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Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Question and Answers

Question # 4

The prevention and correction of dental and oral irregularities through the use of mechanical corrective devices is called:

A.

Orthodontics

B.

Endodontics

C.

Periodontics

D.

Prosthodontics

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Question # 5

The interest that an insurance company earns on life insurance premiums paid helps to:

A.

Increase the life insurance premium rate

B.

Increase the mortality rate

C.

Decrease the life insurance premium rate

D.

Decrease the mortality rate

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Question # 6

Under IRS rules, a company normally may do all of the following with funds in a qualified retirement plan EXCEPT:

A.

Invest in shares of common stocks

B.

Make allocations to participating shareholder-employees

C.

Distribute vested funds to employees who leave

D.

Repossess the funds for business purposes

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Question # 7

One characteristic of flexible premium life insurance is that payment of the premium can be altered at the option of:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The contingent beneficiary

C.

The insurer, if the Consumer Price Index has risen at least 10% over the past year

D.

The insurer, if the prime interest rate falls below 6%

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Question # 8

What is often payable to a life insurance policyowner when a medical condition drastically limits the insured’s life expectancy?

A.

Death benefit

B.

Accelerated death benefit

C.

Reduced paid-up insurance

D.

Extended term insurance

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Question # 9

All of the following are advantages of whole life insurance EXCEPT:

A.

Policy loans may be available

B.

Long-term protection is provided

C.

The initial cost of coverage is lower than for an equivalent amount of term insurance

D.

There is a cash value if the policy is terminated after a sufficient period of time

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Question # 10

Renewal of small employer health insurance plans may be denied for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

A.

Nonpayment of premiums

B.

Having less than the required number of participants

C.

Overuse of physician and hospital services

D.

Fraud by the employer

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Question # 11

One premium payment covers which period of time in a single premium whole life policy?

A.

One month

B.

One year

C.

To the insured's age 65

D.

The full life of the policy

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Question # 12

An insured died six months after a life insurance policy was issued. The full death benefit will NOT be paid if the cause of death was:

A.

Accidental injury

B.

Lung cancer

C.

Suicide

D.

Heart attack

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Question # 13

A function performed by both the life insurance agent and the home office underwriter is:

A.

Finding new clients

B.

Evaluating risks

C.

Collecting premiums

D.

Reviewing a client’s coverage periodically

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Question # 14

If an employee in poor health is part of a large group that is acceptable for group life insurance, that employee is:

A.

Ineligible for coverage under the plan

B.

Eligible for coverage, but on a rated basis

C.

Eligible for the same type of coverage as other employees

D.

Eligible for coverage more limited than that of other employees

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Question # 15

One feature that distinguishes a continuous premium whole life policy from a limited payment whole life policy is:

A.

The length of time premiums will be paid

B.

The settlement options available

C.

The mortality table from which premiums are calculated

D.

The form in which dividends are paid

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Question # 16

All changes and corrections made to an application for health insurance by an agent must be initialed by the:

A.

Agent

B.

Applicant

C.

Applicant’s physician

D.

Insurance company underwriter

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Question # 17

After an insured’s death, the insurer learned that the age on the application for a whole life insurance policy was understated by five years. The rate per $1,000 for the applicant’s actual age was $18, and the rate for the understated age was $15. How much will the insurer pay?

A.

15/18 of the policy face amount

B.

95% of the policy face amount

C.

The policy face amount

D.

Nothing at all

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Question # 18

When the business of insurance is no longer conducted under an assumed name, an agent must notify:

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Chamber of Commerce

D.

The Surety Organization of Virginia

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Question # 19

A coordination of benefits provision is included in group health insurance to reduce:

A.

Dependent coverage

B.

Overinsurance

C.

Probationary periods

D.

Waiting periods

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Question # 20

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

A.

They are also known as 403(b) plans.

B.

Accumulation payments often come from voluntary salary reductions.

C.

The annuitant may have an individual account or contract.

D.

The investment gain each year is included in the participant’s gross income.

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Question # 21

When a small employer health insurance plan is offered, it must be available:

A.

To all eligible employees who apply

B.

To all eligible employees after a 12-month waiting period

C.

Only to employees who provide evidence of insurability

D.

Only to employees under age 65

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Question # 22

An individual currently owns a long-term care policy. At the time of application for similar coverage, which item must be signed by the applicant and retained by the insurer?

A.

A cancellation notice

B.

A substitution notice

C.

A replacement notice

D.

A duplication notice

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Question # 23

The overall authority of an insurance agent includes all of the following EXCEPT:

A.

Apparent authority

B.

Express or specific authority

C.

Implied authority

D.

Residual authority

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Question # 24

Disability income insurance policies usually provide coverage for loss of income resulting from:

A.

Self-inflicted injuries

B.

Injuries incurred while in military service

C.

Disability resulting from war

D.

Accidental injuries

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Question # 25

A group health insurance contract is between the:

A.

Employer and employees

B.

Employee and insurance company

C.

Employer and insurance company

D.

Employer, employees, and insurance company

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Question # 26

If a patient with a preferred provider plan chooses to use a non-preferred provider, the patient usually can expect:

A.

To have higher out-of-pocket expenses

B.

To pay the full cost of care

C.

100% reimbursement for the service provided

D.

A one-year waiting period before re-enrolling in the preferred provider plan

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Question # 27

Needs analysis is a method of life insurance planning which:

A.

Identifies the needs of an individual and the individual’s dependents

B.

Eliminates the need for estimating future interest and inflation rates

C.

Requires the team effort of the agent and home office underwriter

D.

Ignores Social Security benefit payments

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Question # 28

The voluntary act of terminating an insurance contract is called:

A.

Elimination

B.

Rejection

C.

Finalization

D.

Cancellation

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Question # 29

Nearly all citizens of the U.S.A., regardless of age, are eligible for Medicare Part B if they are:

A.

Retired permanently

B.

Eligible for Medicare Part A

C.

Uninsurable through commercial insurers

D.

"Fully insured" under Social Security

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Question # 30

What is a condition for which medical advice or treatment was recommended by or received from a provider of health care service within six months preceding the effective date of an individual long-term care policy?

A.

Covered illness

B.

Pre-existing condition

C.

Long-term care condition

D.

Pre-determined risk

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Question # 31

What is a situation or condition that increases the likelihood of an insured loss occurring?

A.

Hazard

B.

Peril

C.

Exposure

D.

Risk

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Question # 32

A spendthrift clause in a life insurance policy would have NO effect if the beneficiary receives the proceeds as:

A.

Fixed amount installments

B.

Fixed period installments

C.

Interest-only payments

D.

One lump sum payment

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Question # 33

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists, and optometrists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and mobility

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Question # 34

Which term refers to the period of time from the beginning of confinement to the beginning of benefits under a long-term care insurance policy?

A.

The trial period

B.

The exclusion period

C.

The qualifying period

D.

The elimination period

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Question # 35

In a deferred annuity, which contract feature begins at a high level, often 5%-10%, and then diminishes until it disappears after a specified number of years?

A.

The surrender charge

B.

The front end sales load

C.

The guaranteed interest rate

D.

The expense charge

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Question # 36

Which is true about the conversion privilege in term life insurance?

A.

The policyowner may convert to another term policy of the insured’s choice

B.

The policyowner may convert to permanent life insurance on an attained age basis without evidence of insurability

C.

The policyowner may convert to an annuity at attained age rates only if evidence of insurability is provided

D.

The policyowner may obtain additional term insurance at issue age rates without evidence of insurability

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Question # 37

Who usually selects the beneficiary of a life insurance policy?

A.

The policyowner

B.

The insurer

C.

The beneficiary

D.

The agent

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Question # 38

A qualified plan participant elected a trustee-to-trustee transfer of rollover funds instead of personally receiving the funds and then rolling them over. This election permits the participant to:

A.

Avoid mandatory income tax withholding on the amount transferred

B.

Eliminate the possibility of funds being lost in the mail

C.

Significantly reduce the amount of time required for the transaction

D.

Eliminate the penalty tax that normally applies to rollover funds

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Question # 39

Which of the following is an advantage of term life insurance?

A.

The cost is about the same as whole life insurance

B.

It will be cost-effective in the long term if it is maintained to age 65 and beyond

C.

It provides insurance protection on a permanent basis

D.

The initial premium is lower than for an equivalent amount of whole life insurance

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Question # 40

The owner of a life insurance policy who enters into a viatical settlement contract is called:

A.

A viatical settlement provider

B.

A viatical settlement broker

C.

A viator

D.

A viatee

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Question # 41

In the solicitation and sale of Medicare Supplement insurance policies, when must an agent deliver the buyer’s guide?

A.

Only when the solicitation involves replacement

B.

At the time of application

C.

Prior to accepting any payment of premium

D.

Only when the purchaser is a first-time buyer

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Question # 42

When the employer pays the premium, covered individuals normally receive tax-free benefits under all of the following group health plans EXCEPT:

A.

Disability income

B.

Major medical

C.

Dental

D.

Health maintenance organization

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Question # 43

Giving policyholders some part of the agent’s commission as an inducement to purchase insurance is an unfair trade practice known as:

A.

Twisting

B.

Rebating

C.

Replacement

D.

Retention

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Question # 44

All of the following are common features found in health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT:

A.

Wellness programs

B.

Discounts on local health spa memberships

C.

Twenty-four hour access to emergency care

D.

Outpatient medical services

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Question # 45

Preferred provider organizations (PPOs) encourage patients to use specified hospitals by:

A.

Making public service announcements

B.

Offering outpatient diagnostic coverage

C.

Extending days of hospitalization coverage

D.

Offering greater coinsurance percentages

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