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Managing-Cloud-Security WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02, GZO1) Question and Answers

Question # 4

As part of training to help the data center engineers understand different attack vectors that affect the infrastructure, they work on a set of information about access and availability attacks that was presented. Part of the labs requires the engineers to identify different threat vectors and their names. Which threat prohibits the use of data by preventing access to it?

A.

Brute force

B.

Encryption

C.

Rainbow tables

D.

Denial of service

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Question # 5

Which security information and event management concept focuses on account and service hijacking issues?

A.

Digital forensics

B.

Trust

C.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

D.

Access control

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Question # 6

An organization is implementing a new hybrid cloud deployment. Before granting access to any of the resources, the security team wants to ensure that all employees are checked against a database to see if they are allowed to access the requested resource. Which type of security control is the organization leveraging for its employees?

A.

Authorization

B.

Web application firewall (WAF)

C.

Antispyware program

D.

Authentication

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Question # 7

Which device identifies and stops attack-based commands from executing on a structured query language (SQL) server?

A.

Host-based firewall

B.

Database activity monitor

C.

Hardware security module

D.

Cloud access and security broker

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Question # 8

Which type of data sanitization should be used to destroy data on a USB thumb drive while keeping the drive intact?

A.

Key revocation

B.

Physical destruction

C.

Overwriting

D.

Degaussing

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Question # 9

Which security testing method requires compliance with the cloud service provider’s terms of service?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Continuous delivery pipeline

C.

Static analysis

D.

Code review

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Question # 10

In which cloud service model is the cloud consumer responsible for installation and maintenance of the operating system?

A.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 11

Which security threat occurs when authorized users increase their level of access in an unauthorized manner?

A.

Escalation of privilege

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Role assumption

D.

Segregation of duties

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Question # 12

Which characteristic could affect the audit process for a customer of a cloud service provider?

A.

Lack of physical access to the cloud infrastructure

B.

Utilization constraints on the bandwidth imposed by the cloud service vendor

C.

Limits for up-time of the hosted system

D.

Restrictions on the data storage options offered by the cloud service provider

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Question # 13

Developers need to be aware of a common application programming interface (API) threat that occurs when attackers send malicious code through a form input to a web application so that it may then be executed. Which type of attack represents this API threat?

A.

On-path

B.

Injection

C.

Credential

D.

Denial-of-service

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Question # 14

An organization wants to conduct some of the disaster recovery plan testing with the least possible impact on production. Which method should be used?

A.

Unit testing

B.

Full test

C.

Dry run test

D.

Tabletop testing

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Question # 15

Which concept focuses on operating highly available workloads in the cloud?

A.

Resource hierarchy

B.

Security

C.

Operational excellence

D.

Reliability

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Question # 16

What must be provided by a European Union (EU) citizen, according to the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), before a firm may process the personal data of that individual?

A.

Specific consent for the processing of the data

B.

Attestation on the legal purpose for processing the data

C.

Verification of the accuracy of the data

D.

Statement about need for the data to be processed

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Question # 17

Which category of cloud service provides on-demand, self-service access to basic building blocks, such as virtualized servers, block storage, and networking capacity, that can be used to create custom IT solutions?

A.

Networking as a service (NaaS)

B.

Platform as a service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a service (IaaS)

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Question # 18

An organization’s help desk receives a call from a person claiming to be an employee wanting to verify their home address on file. The caller answers the basic authentication questions, so the help desk employee provides them the sensitive information. The organization later discovers that this call was fraudulent. Which type of threat does this represent?

A.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

B.

Social engineering

C.

Escalation of privilege

D.

Internal threats

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Question # 19

A customer requests that a cloud provider physically destroys any drives storing their personal data. What must the provider do with the drives?

A.

It should destroy them only if the contract includes hardware disposal insurance.

B.

It should use cryptographic erasure to securely remove any personal data from the drives.

C.

It should destroy them only if dedicated hardware disposal is specified in the contract.

D.

It should use degaussing tools to securely remove any personal data from the drives.

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Question # 20

A cloud consumer is scheduling a vulnerability assessment of a cloud service procured through a cloud broker. Who should the cloud consumer notify before beginning the assessment?

A.

The cloud broker

B.

The cloud consumer’s legal department

C.

The cloud consumer’s customers

D.

The cloud service provider

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Question # 21

Which open-source software (OSS) cloud computing platform provides a full set of features and components for a cloud environment?

A.

Apache OpenStack

B.

Hypervisor

C.

VMware vSphere

D.

Open Web Application Security Project

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Question # 22

Which process is implemented during the hardening of an operating system (OS) and its workloads?

A.

Change management

B.

Incident management

C.

Patch management

D.

Security management

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Question # 23

Which activity is within the scope of the cloud provider’s role in the chain of custody?

A.

Setting data backup and recovery policies

B.

Collecting and preserving digital evidence

C.

Initiating and executing incident response

D.

Classifying and analyzing data

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Question # 24

An organization is concerned that it will be unable to recover or access data if the cloud provider goes into bankruptcy and leaves the market. How is this concern addressed in a business continuity and disaster recovery plan?

A.

Consider options for portability and interoperability

B.

Enable multiple zones to mitigate service disruptions

C.

Revise contractual and personnel obligations

D.

Use best tools to securely connect to the cloud

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Question # 25

Which data destruction technique involves encrypting the data, followed by encrypting the resulting keys with a different engine, and then destroying the keys resulting from the second encryption round?

A.

One-way hashing

B.

Degaussing

C.

Overwriting

D.

Cryptographic erasure

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Question # 26

Which regulation defines requirements for the electronic transfer of healthcare data to a cloud service provider?

A.

Stark Law

B.

Healthcare Quality Improvement Law

C.

Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act

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Question # 27

Which business continuity and disaster recovery consideration should be part of a cloud application architecture?

A.

Architecting for failure

B.

Health status pages

C.

Compliance of applications

D.

Application message queues

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Question # 28

Which security control could be implemented as part of a layered physical defense at a cloud hosting site?

A.

Access control enforcement

B.

Background checks

C.

Video surveillance capability

D.

Multifactor authentication

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Question # 29

Which tool provides a dedicated environment to contain and analyze malware?

A.

Encryption

B.

Gateway

C.

Sandbox

D.

Controller

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Question # 30

Which description accurately characterizes the movement of applications to the cloud?

A.

In a desktop as a service (DaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.

B.

In an infrastructure as a service (IaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.

C.

In a platform as a service (PaaS) environment, the customer is responsible for securing the underlying infrastructure.

D.

In a software as a service (SaaS) environment, the CSP is responsible for securing the platform.

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Question # 31

An organization is planning for an upcoming Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) audit and wants to ensure that only relevant files are included in the audit materials. Which process should the organization use to ensure that the relevant files are identified?

A.

Normalization

B.

Tokenization

C.

Categorization

D.

Anonymization

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Question # 32

An organization that primarily uses a remote work model is reviewing the documentation of various insurance providers to become eligible for cybersecurity insurance. Competitive insurance providers require the organization to implement security controls to ensure only authorized personnel can access the network, data, emails, and other administrative information. Which commonly required control should the organization implement before applying for cybersecurity insurance from these competitive insurance providers?

A.

Network segmentation

B.

Application whitelisting

C.

Multifactor authentication (MFA)

D.

Trusted platform module (TPM)

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Question # 33

In most redundant array of independent disks (RAID) configurations, data is stored across different disks. Which method of storing data is described?

A.

Striping

B.

Archiving

C.

Mapping

D.

Crypto-shredding

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Question # 34

What is the definition of transportable as it relates to cloud contract design requirements?

A.

Available to be accessed by mobile devices

B.

Able to be moved to another vendor

C.

Available in a proprietary format

D.

Able to be archived quickly

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Question # 35

An organization is considering a cloud provider that has multivendor pathway connectivity. What does this feature provide?

A.

Connections to several electric providers that are not on the same grid

B.

Contracts with fuel providers

C.

Contracts with heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) providers

D.

Connections to several internet service providers

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Question # 36

An organization consists of many divisions. Its leadership team has gathered the managers and key team members in each division to help create a disaster recovery plan. It studies the type of natural events that commonly occur and the risk involved for each location in which the organization has a data center. What is the leadership team doing in this scenario?

A.

Performing an asset inventory

B.

Running a disaster declaration process

C.

Identifying the actions

D.

Defining the disaster criteria

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Question # 37

Which cloud platform detection and analysis methodology can be performed to determine whether other similar instances were potentially exposed during the same attack?

A.

Reviewing application logs

B.

Examining network flows

C.

Reviewing log data

D.

Examining configuration data

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Question # 38

After creating a backup set, an engineer stores the backups according to company policy. Which action should the engineer take periodically to ensure the backed-up data is viable?

A.

The engineer should test the backups according to company policy.

B.

The engineer should delete backups according to company policy.

C.

The engineer should compare the old backups with newer ones.

D.

The engineer should replace the old backups with newer ones.

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Question # 39

Which factor should be the basis of a business continuity plan?

A.

Costs

B.

Risks

C.

Customers

D.

Locations

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Question # 40

Which technique is used to count source and destination internet protocol (IP) addresses in incoming log flow across all log sources?

A.

Software error

B.

Frequency

C.

Time

D.

Baseline

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Question # 41

Who should be part of formal tasking when conducting testing for business continuity management?

A.

Organizational personnel

B.

Moderators

C.

Governing bodies

D.

External consultants

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Question # 42

A user creates new financial documents that will be stored in the cloud. Which action should the user take before uploading the documents to protect them against threats such as packet capture and on-path attacks?

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Change tracking

D.

Metadata labeling

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Question # 43

Which setting ensures that an attacker cannot read the information stored temporarily for use by another virtual machine (VM)?

A.

Encrypted network protocols

B.

Encrypted file system

C.

Dedicated processor

D.

Dedicated memory

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Question # 44

Which technology is increasingly deployed in enterprise environments for applications such as digital tracking of the supply chain?

A.

Internet of Things

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Big data

D.

Machine learning

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Question # 45

An organization’s security architects determined that all authentication and authorization requests need to be validated before any employee can access corporate resources. Because of this, the organization needs to implement a system that stores and manages the employees' credential information and then validates any requests sent. Which system would allow the organization to meet the architects' requirements?

A.

Hardware security module (HSM)

B.

Zero trust

C.

Bastion host

D.

Identity provider (IdP)

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Question # 46

During a financial data investigation, the investigator is unsure how to handle a specific data set. Which set of documentation should they refer to for detailed steps on how to proceed?

A.

Policies

B.

Procedures

C.

Legal rulings

D.

Legal definitions

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Question # 47

Which regulation provides a guide for implementing the risk management framework?

A.

NIST SP 800-37

B.

ISO 31000:2009

C.

ISO 27001

D.

PCI-DSS

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Question # 48

Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) test requires the whole organization to participate in a scheduled disaster scenario without performing all of the actual tasks?

A.

Tabletop

B.

Dry run

C.

Parallel

D.

Full

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Question # 49

Which role in cloud computing provides products or services that interact with the primary offering of a cloud service provider?

A.

Regulator

B.

Cloud service partner

C.

Customer

D.

Cloud service developer

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Question # 50

Which phase of the cloud data life cycle involves activities such as data categorization and classification, including data labeling, marking, tagging, and assigning metadata?

A.

Store

B.

Use

C.

Destroy

D.

Create

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Question # 51

Which U.S. law requires all publicly traded corporations in the United States to provide information about their financial status and implements controls to ensure the accuracy of the disclosed information?

A.

The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

B.

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)

C.

The Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act

D.

The Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act

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Question # 52

Which item determines whether a server has the capacity and the instance allocation to meet a customer’s requirements?

A.

Cloud provider

B.

Instance provider

C.

Cloud controller

D.

UniFi controller

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Question # 53

Which phase of the software development life cycle includes creating user stories?

A.

Developing

B.

Designing

C.

Defining

D.

Planning

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Question # 54

An engineer needs to create segmentation using the built-in tools provided by the company's cloud provider. The InfoSec team has given the engineer directions to limit traffic using a security group between two cloud deployments in the organization. Which mechanisms should the engineer use to create this segmentation?

A.

MAC addresses and protocols

B.

Ports and protocols

C.

Unique identifiers and protocols

D.

Definitions and protocols

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Question # 55

A network administrator is concerned about the loss of physical control when moving data to the cloud. Which countermeasure should be implemented to avoid this threat?

A.

Multi-layer control

B.

Tertiary control

C.

Ancillary control

D.

Compensating control

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Question # 56

When should a cloud service provider delete customer data?

A.

When the cloud provider oversubscribes its storage space

B.

When the data has not been accessed in the last 30 days

C.

After a scheduled data review

D.

After the specified retention period

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Question # 57

Which role ensures that third parties take adequate technical and organizational security measures to safeguard data?

A.

Cloud user

B.

Data controller

C.

Cloud provider

D.

Data subject

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Question # 58

Which security issue can be found only through dynamic application security testing (DAST)?

A.

Code quality

B.

Null pointer dereference

C.

Insecure cryptographic function

D.

Runtime privileges

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Question # 59

An organization is going through the process of selecting a new enterprise resource management (ERM) vendor. The organization has already selected the vendor and is now preparing to go through the onboarding process. Which specific issues should be discussed between the organization and the vendor during this phase?

A.

Verifying the details of the contract and arrangements for data transfer

B.

Ensuring the vendor has securely destroyed all confidential information

C.

Identifying the business need the vendor will address

D.

Deciding how to respond to the request for proposal (RFP)

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Question # 60

What is an appropriate countermeasure given the threat of a power outage of a cloud service provider?

A.

Database replication

B.

Storage array replication

C.

Web application firewalls

D.

Backup generators

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Question # 61

Which phase in secure application design and development includes threat modeling?

A.

Define

B.

Design

C.

Training

D.

Develop

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