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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Question # 5

What is the primary purpose of implementing a systematic data/asset classification and catalog system in cloud environments?

A.

To automate the data encryption process across all cloud services

B.

To reduce the overall cost of cloud storage solutions

C.

To apply appropriate security controls based on asset sensitivity and importance

D.

To increase the speed of data retrieval within the cloud environment

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Question # 6

How does DevSecOps fundamentally differ from traditional DevOps in the development process?

A.

DevSecOps removes the need for a separate security team.

B.

DevSecOps focuses primarily on automating development without security.

C.

DevSecOps reduces the development time by skipping security checks.

D.

DevSecOps integrates security into every stage of the DevOps process.

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Question # 7

What is a key component of governance in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Defining roles and responsibilities

B.

Standardizing technical specifications for security control

C.

Defining tools and technologies

D.

Enforcement of the Penetration Testing procedure

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Question # 8

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 9

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

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Question # 10

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Question # 11

In cloud environments, why are Management Plane Logs indispensable for security monitoring?

A.

They provide real-time threat detection and response

B.

They detail the network traffic between cloud services

C.

They track cloud administrative activities

D.

They report on user activities within applications

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Question # 12

What is a key advantage of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in application development?

A.

It removes the need for manual testing.

B.

It eliminates the need for cybersecurity measures.

C.

It enables version control and rapid deployment.

D.

It ensures zero configuration drift by default.

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Question # 13

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Question # 14

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

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Question # 15

What is a PRIMARY cloud customer responsibility when managing SaaS applications in terms of security and compliance?

A.

Generating logs within the SaaS applications

B.

Managing the financial costs of SaaS subscriptions

C.

Providing training sessions for staff on using SaaS tools

D.

Evaluating the security measures and compliance requirements

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Question # 16

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 17

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Question # 18

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Question # 19

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Question # 20

Which plane in a network architecture is responsible for controlling all administrative actions?

A.

Forwarding plane

B.

Management plane

C.

Data plane

D.

Application plane

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Question # 21

In the context of cloud security, what is the primary benefit of implementing Identity and Access Management (IAM) with attributes and user context for access decisions?

A.

Enhances security by supporting authorizations based on the current context and status

B.

Reduces log analysis requirements

C.

Simplifies regulatory compliance by using a single sign-on mechanism

D.

These are required for proper implementation of RBAC

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Question # 22

A security failure at the root network of a cloud provider will not compromise the security of all customers because of multitenancy configuration.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 23

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

A.

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

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Question # 24

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Question # 25

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 26

How can the use of third-party libraries introduce supply chain risks in software development?

A.

They are usually open source and do not require vetting

B.

They might contain vulnerabilities that can be exploited

C.

They fail to integrate properly with existing continuous integration pipelines

D.

They might increase the overall complexity of the codebase

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Question # 27

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Question # 28

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

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Question # 29

What is the primary function of a Load Balancer Service in a Software Defined Network (SDN) environment?

A.

To create isolated virtual networks

B.

To monitor network performance and activity

C.

To distribute incoming network traffic across multiple destinations

D.

To encrypt data for secure transmission

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Question # 30

When deploying Security as a Service in a highly regulated industry or environment, what should both parties agree on in advance and include in the SLA?

A.

The metrics defining the service level required to achieve regulatory objectives.

B.

The duration of time that a security violation can occur before the client begins assessing regulatory fines.

C.

The cost per incident for security breaches of regulated information.

D.

The regulations that are pertinent to the contract and how to circumvent them.

E.

The type of security software which meets regulations and the number of licenses that will be needed.

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Question # 31

Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?

A.

Redundancy

B.

Auto-scaling

C.

Load balancing

D.

Failover

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Question # 32

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 33

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

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Question # 34

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

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Question # 35

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

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Question # 36

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 37

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 38

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

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Question # 39

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Question # 40

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 41

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Question # 42

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

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Question # 43

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Question # 44

Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

A.

Role-Based Access Control

B.

Unlimited Access

C.

Mandatory Access Control

D.

Least-Privileged Access

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Question # 45

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 46

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

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Question # 47

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Question # 48

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 49

What is the newer application development methodology and philosophy focused on automation of application development and deployment?

A.

Agile

B.

BusOps

C.

DevOps

D.

SecDevOps

E.

Scrum

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Question # 50

Why is governance crucial in balancing the speed of adoption with risk control in cybersecurity initiatives?

A.

Only involves senior management in decision-making

B.

Speeds up project execution irrespective of and focuses on systemic risk

C.

Ensures adequate risk management while allowing innovation

D.

Ensures alignment between global compliance standards

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Question # 51

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Question # 52

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

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Question # 53

What is a commonly used method by which hybrid cloud integrates data centers with public cloud?

A.

Using VPN or dedicated links

B.

Using peer-to-peer networks

C.

Using local area network (LAN)

D.

Using satellite connections

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Question # 54

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Question # 55

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Question # 56

If there are gaps in network logging data, what can you do?

A.

Nothing. There are simply limitations around the data that can be logged in the cloud.

B.

Ask the cloud provider to open more ports.

C.

You can instrument the technology stack with your own logging.

D.

Ask the cloud provider to close more ports.

E.

Nothing. The cloud provider must make the information available.

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Question # 57

What is the primary goal of implementing DevOps in a software development lifecycle?

A.

To create a separation between development and operations

B.

To eliminate the need for IT operations by automating all tasks

C.

To enhance collaboration between development and IT operations for efficient delivery

D.

To reduce the development team size by merging roles

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Question # 58

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 59

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 60

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

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Question # 61

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Question # 62

What is one primary operational challenge associated with using cloud-agnostic container strategies?

A.

Limiting deployment to a single cloud service

B.

Establishing identity and access management protocols

C.

Reducing the amount of cloud storage used

D.

Management plane compatibility and consistent controls

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Question # 63

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 64

Which of the following best describes the concept of AI as a Service (AIaaS)?

A.

Selling Al hardware to enterprises for internal use

B.

Hosting and running Al models with customer-built solutions

C.

Offering pre-built Al models to third-party vendors

D.

Providing software as an Al model with no customization options

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Question # 65

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 66

Why is early integration of pre-deployment testing crucial in a cybersecurity project?

A.

It identifies issues before full deployment, saving time and resources.

B.

It increases the overall testing time and costs.

C.

It allows skipping final verification tests.

D.

It eliminates the need for continuous integration.

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Question # 67

When leveraging a cloud provider, what should be considered to ensure application security requirements are met?

A.

Fully rely on cloud provider's security features

B.

Cloud providers guarantee complete security compliance

C.

Assume default settings are adequate for all applications

D.

Customize additional security measures to address gaps

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Question # 68

What is a cloud workload in terms of infrastructure and platform deployment?

A.

A network of servers connected to execute processes

B.

A collection of physical hardware used to run applications

C.

A single software application hosted on the cloud

D.

Application software deployable on infrastructure/platform

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Question # 69

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

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Question # 70

Why is identity management at the organization level considered a key aspect in cybersecurity?

A.

It replaces the need to enforce the principles of the need to know

B.

It ensures only authorized users have access to resources

C.

It automates and streamlines security processes in the organization

D.

It reduces the need for regular security training and auditing, and frees up cybersecurity budget

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Question # 71

What primary purpose does object storage encryption serve in cloud services?

A.

It compresses data to save space

B.

It speeds up data retrieval times

C.

It monitors unauthorized access attempts

D.

It secures data stored as objects

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Question # 72

In the context of incident response, which phase involves alerts validation to reduce false positives and estimates the incident's scope?

A.

Preparation

B.

Post-Incident Analysis

C.

Detection & Analysis

D.

Containment, Eradication, & Recovery

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Question # 73

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

A.

Implementing network segmentation

B.

Using secure, approved base images

C.

Regularly updating repository software

D.

Enforcing runtime protection measures

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Question # 74

Which cloud security model type provides generalized templates for helping implement cloud security?

A.

Conceptual models or frameworks

B.

Design patterns

C.

Controls models or frameworks

D.

Reference architectures

E.

Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Question # 75

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

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Question # 76

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

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Question # 77

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 78

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Question # 79

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 80

What is an important step in conducting forensics on containerized and serverless environments?

A.

Implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions

B.

Isolating network traffic and analyzing network packets frequently

C.

Regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware software

D.

Capturing container logs and snapshots, and leveraging serverless execution logs

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Question # 81

Which of the following statements best defines the "authorization" as a component of identity, entitlement, and access management?

A.

The process of specifying and maintaining access policies

B.

Checking data storage to make sure it meets compliance requirements

C.

Giving a third party vendor permission to work on your cloud solution

D.

Establishing/asserting the identity to the application

E.

Enforcing the rules by which access is granted to the resources

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Question # 82

CCM: In the CCM tool, ais a measure that modifies risk and includes any process, policy, device, practice or any other actions which modify risk.

A.

Risk Impact

B.

Domain

C.

Control Specification

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Question # 83

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

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Question # 84

How does serverless computing impact infrastructure management responsibility?

A.

Requires extensive on-premises infrastructure

B.

Shifts more responsibility to cloud service providers

C.

Increases workload for developers

D.

Eliminates need for cloud service providers

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Question # 85

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 86

Which of the following best describes the concept of Measured Service in cloud computing?

A.

Cloud systems allocate a fixed immutable set of measured services to each customer.

B.

Cloud systems offer elastic resources.

C.

Cloud systems provide usage reports upon request, based on manual reporting.

D.

Cloud systems automatically monitor resource usage and provide billing based on actual consumption.

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Question # 87

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

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Question # 88

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

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Question # 89

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Question # 90

All assets require the same continuity in the cloud.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 91

Why is it essential to embed cloud decisions within organizational governance?

A.

Speeds up cloud service adoption significantly

B.

Reduces the complexity of implementing cloud solutions

C.

Gives IT department autonomous control over cloud resources

D.

Ensures alignment with business objectives and risk management

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Question # 92

Why is snapshot management crucial for the virtual machine (VM) lifecycle?

A.

It allows for quick restoration points during updates or changes

B.

It is used for load balancing VMs

C.

It enhances VM performance significantly

D.

It provides real-time analytics on VM applications

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Question # 93

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 94

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Question # 95

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Question # 96

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Question # 97

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 98

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Question # 99

What is true of a workload?

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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