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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which strategy is critical for securing containers at the image creation stage?

A.

Implementing network segmentation

B.

Using secure, approved base images

C.

Regularly updating repository software

D.

Enforcing runtime protection measures

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Question # 5

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 6

In securing virtual machines (VMs), what is the primary role of using an “image factory" in VM deployment?

A.

To encrypt data within VMs for secure storage

B.

To facilitate direct manual intervention in VM deployments

C.

To enable rapid scaling of virtual machines on demand

D.

To ensure consistency, security, and efficiency in VM image creation

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Question # 7

What is true of security as it relates to cloud network infrastructure?

A.

You should apply cloud firewalls on a per-network basis.

B.

You should deploy your cloud firewalls identical to the existing firewalls.

C.

You should always open traffic between workloads in the same virtual subnet for better visibility.

D.

You should implement a default allow with cloud firewalls and then restrict as necessary.

E.

You should implement a default deny with cloud firewalls.

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Question # 8

Which opportunity helps reduce common application security issues?

A.

Elastic infrastructure

B.

Default deny

C.

Decreased use of micro-services

D.

Segregation by default

E.

Fewer serverless configurations

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Question # 9

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Question # 10

For third-party audits or attestations, what is critical for providers to publish and customers to evaluate?

A.

Scope of the assessment and the exact included features and services for the assessment

B.

Provider infrastructure information including maintenance windows and contracts

C.

Network or architecture diagrams including all end point security devices in use

D.

Service-level agreements between all parties

E.

Full API access to all required services

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Question # 11

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

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Question # 12

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Question # 13

Which practice ensures container security by preventing post-deployment modifications?

A.

Implementing dynamic network segmentation policies

B.

Employing Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) for container access

C.

Regular vulnerability scanning of deployed containers

D.

Use of immutable containers

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Question # 14

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Question # 15

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Question # 17

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 18

What is the primary benefit of Federated Identity Management in an enterprise environment?

A.

It allows single set credential access to multiple systems and services

B.

It encrypts data between multiple systems and services

C.

It segregates user permissions across different systems and services

D.

It enhances multi-factor authentication across all systems and services

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Question # 19

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Question # 20

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

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Question # 21

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Question # 22

Cloud services exhibit five essential characteristics that demonstrate their relation to, and differences from, traditional computing approaches. Which one of the five characteristics is described as: a consumer can unilaterally provision computing capabilities such as server time and network storage as needed.

A.

Rapid elasticity

B.

Resource pooling

C.

Broad network access

D.

Measured service

E.

On-demand self-service

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Question # 23

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

A.

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

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Question # 24

Which of the following is a common exploitation factor associated with serverless and container workloads?

A.

Poor Documentation

B.

Misconfiguration

C.

Insufficient Redundancy

D.

Low Availability

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Question # 25

What is a core tenant of risk management?

A.

The provider is accountable for all risk management.

B.

You can manage, transfer, accept, or avoid risks.

C.

The consumers are completely responsible for all risk.

D.

If there is still residual risk after assessments and controls are inplace, you must accept the risk.

E.

Risk insurance covers all financial losses, including loss ofcustomers.

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Question # 26

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

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Question # 27

If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 28

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

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Question # 29

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Question # 30

Which of the following best describes the advantage of custom application level encryption?

A.

It simplifies the encryption process by centralizing it at the network level

B.

It enables ownership and more granular control of encryption keys

C.

It reduces the need for encryption by enhancing network security

D.

It delegates the control of keys to third-party providers

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Question # 31

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Question # 32

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Question # 33

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 34

What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

A.

Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release

B.

Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing

C.

Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

D.

Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development

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Question # 35

Which of the following items is NOT an example of Security as a Service (SecaaS)?

A.

Spam filtering

B.

Authentication

C.

Provisioning

D.

Web filtering

E.

Intrusion detection

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Question # 36

Which activity is a critical part of the Post-Incident Analysis phase in cybersecurity incident response?

A.

Notifying affected parties

B.

Isolating affected systems

C.

Restoring services to normal operations

D.

Documenting lessons learned and improving future responses

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Question # 37

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

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Question # 38

CCM: A hypothetical company called: “Health4Sure” is located in the United States and provides cloud based services for tracking patient health. The company is compliant with HIPAA/HITECH Act among other industry standards. Health4Sure decides to assess the overall security of their cloud service against the CCM toolkit so that they will be able to present this document to potential clients.

Which of the following approach would be most suitable to assess the overall security posture of Health4Sure’s cloud service?

A.

The CCM columns are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered ad a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls. This approach will save time.

B.

The CCM domain controls are mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act and therefore Health4Sure could verify the CCM controls already covered as a result of their compliance with HIPPA/HITECH Act. They could then assess the remaining controls thoroughly. This approach saves time while being able to assess the company’s overall security posture in an efficient manner.

C.

The CCM domains are not mapped to HIPAA/HITECH Act. Therefore Health4Sure should assess the security posture of their cloud service against each and every control in the CCM. This approach will allow a thorough assessment of the security posture.

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Question # 39

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Question # 40

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

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Question # 41

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 42

What factors should you understand about the data specifically due to legal, regulatory, and jurisdictional factors?

A.

The physical location of the data and how it is accessed

B.

The fragmentation and encryption algorithms employed

C.

The language of the data and how it affects the user

D.

The implications of storing complex information on simple storage systems

E.

The actual size of the data and the storage format

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Question # 43

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

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Question # 44

According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

A.

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

B.

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

C.

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

D.

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

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Question # 45

Which of the following is one of the five essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by NIST?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Nation-state boundaries

C.

Measured service

D.

Unlimited bandwidth

E.

Hybrid clouds

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Question # 46

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 47

A company plans to shift its data processing tasks to the cloud. Which type of cloud workload best describes the use of software emulations of physical computers?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Serverless Functions (FaaS)

C.

Containers

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 48

Which cloud service model requires the customer to manage the operating system and applications?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Network as a Service (NaaS)

C.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 49

Which approach is commonly used by organizations to manage identities in the cloud due to the complexity of scaling across providers?

A.

Decentralization

B.

Centralization

C.

Federation

D.

Outsourcing

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Question # 50

What is the primary function of Privileged Identity Management (PIM) and Privileged Access Management (PAM)?

A.

Encrypt data transmitted over the network

B.

Manage the risk of elevated permissions

C.

Monitor network traffic and detect intrusions

D.

Ensure system uptime and reliability

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Question # 51

What is the primary purpose of virtual machine (VM) image sources?

A.

To back up data within the VM

B.

To provide core components for VM images

C.

To optimize VM performance

D.

To secure the VM against unauthorized access

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Question # 52

When implementing a Zero Trust (ZT) strategy, which approach is considered fundamental for ensuring enterprise security and connectivity?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to resources within local networks but restricting cloud access

B.

Implementing perimeter-based security as the primary defense mechanism

C.

Enforcing strict access control and verification for all users and devices

D.

Only allowing trusted devices to connect to local/office networks

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Question # 53

What is true of companies considering a cloud computing business relationship?

A.

The laws protecting customer data are based on the cloud provider and customer location only.

B.

The confidentiality agreements between companies using cloud computing services is limited legally to the company, not the provider.

C.

The companies using the cloud providers are the custodians of the data entrusted to them.

D.

The cloud computing companies are absolved of all data security and associated risks through contracts and data laws.

E.

The cloud computing companies own all customer data.

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Question # 54

When comparing different Cloud Service Providers (CSPs), what should a cybersecurity professional be mindful of regarding their organizational structures?

A.

All CSPs use the same organizational structure and terminology

B.

Different CSPs may have similar structures but use varying terminology

C.

CSPs have vastly different organizational structures and identical terminology

D.

Terminology difference in CSPs does not affect cybersecurity practices.

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Question # 55

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

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Question # 56

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 57

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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Question # 58

Which statement best describes the impact of Cloud Computing on business continuity management?

A.

A general lack of interoperability standards means that extra focus must be placed on the security aspects of migration between Cloud providers.

B.

The size of data sets hosted at a Cloud provider can present challenges if migration to another provider becomes necessary.

C.

Customers of SaaS providers in particular need to mitigate the risks of application lock-in.

D.

Clients need to do business continuity planning due diligence in case they suddenly need to switch providers.

E.

Geographic redundancy ensures that Cloud Providers provide highly available services.

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Question # 59

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

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Question # 60

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Question # 61

APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 62

Which benefit of automated deployment pipelines most directly addresses continuous security and reliability?

A.

They enable consistent and repeatable deployment processes

B.

They enhance collaboration through shared tools

C.

They provide detailed reports on team performance

D.

They ensure code quality through regular reviews

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Question # 63

Select the statement below which best describes the relationship between identities and attributes

A.

Attributes belong to entities and identities belong to attributes. Each attribute can have multiple identities but only one entity.

B.

An attribute is a unique object within a database. Each attribute it has a number of identities which help define its parameters.

C.

An identity is a distinct and unique object within a particular namespace. Attributes are properties which belong to an identity. Each identity can have multiple attributes.

D.

Attributes are made unique by their identities.

E.

Identities are the network names given to servers. Attributes are the characteristics of each server.

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Question # 64

Which of the following best describes the purpose of cloud security control objectives?

A.

They are standards that cannot be modified to suit the unique needs of different cloud environments.

B.

They focus on the technical aspects of cloud security with less consideration on the broader organizational goals.

C.

They dictate specific implementation methods for securing cloud environments, tailored to individual cloud providers.

D.

They provide outcome-focused guidelines for desired controls, ensuring measurable and adaptable security measures

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Question # 65

Which aspect of a Cloud Service Provider's (CSPs) infrastructure security involves protecting the interfaces used to manage configurations and resources?

A.

Management plane

B.

Virtualization layers

C.

Physical components

D.

PaaS/SaaS services

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Question # 66

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Question # 67

Which aspect of cybersecurity can AI enhance by reducing false positive alerts?

A.

Anomaly detection

B.

Assisting analysts

C.

Threat intelligence

D.

Automated responses

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Question # 68

Which resilience tool helps distribute network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability and availability?

A.

Redundancy

B.

Auto-scaling

C.

Load balancing

D.

Failover

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Question # 69

What is the primary purpose of the CSA Security, Trust, Assurance, and Risk (STAR) Registry?

A.

To provide cloud service rate comparisons

B.

To certify cloud services for regulatory compliance

C.

To document security and privacy controls of cloud offerings

D.

To manage data residency and localization requirements

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Question # 70

What is the primary role of Identity and Access Management (IAM)?

A.

To encrypt data at rest and in transit

B.

Ensure only authorized entities access resources

C.

To monitor and log all user activities and traffic

D.

Ensure all users have the same level of access

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Question # 71

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

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Question # 72

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 73

What is the primary focus during the Preparation phase of the Cloud Incident Response framework?

A.

Developing a cloud service provider evaluation criterion

B.

Deploying automated security monitoring tools across cloud services

C.

Establishing a Cloud Incident Response Team and response plans

D.

Conducting regular vulnerability assessments on cloud infrastructure

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Question # 74

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 75

How can virtual machine communications bypass network security controls?

A.

VM communications may use a virtual network on the same hardware host

B.

The guest OS can invoke stealth mode

C.

Hypervisors depend upon multiple network interfaces

D.

VM images can contain rootkits programmed to bypass firewalls

E.

Most network security systems do not recognize encrypted VM traffic

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Question # 76

How should an SDLC be modified to address application security in a Cloud Computing environment?

A.

Integrated development environments

B.

Updated threat and trust models

C.

No modification is needed

D.

Just-in-time compilers

E.

Both B and C

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Question # 77

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

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Question # 78

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

A.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements.

B.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology.

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload.

D.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit.

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Question # 79

Which strategic approach is most appropriate for managing a multi-cloud environment that includes multiple IaaS and PaaS providers?

A.

Allow each department to manage their own cloud services independently.

B.

Use a single security tool for all providers.

C.

Rely on each provider's native security features with limited additional oversight.

D.

Implement strict governance and monitoring procedures across all platforms.

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Question # 80

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Question # 81

Which of the following represents a benefit of using serverless computing for new workload types?

A.

Requires short-term commitments and defers upfront costs

B.

Automatic scaling and reduced operational overhead

C.

Large initial configuration is not required

D.

Full control over underlying server environments

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Question # 82

What technology is commonly used to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user's device and a private network over the public Internet?

A.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

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Question # 83

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Question # 84

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 85

CCM: The Architectural Relevance column in the CCM indicates the applicability of the cloud security control to which of the following elements?

A.

Service Provider or Tenant/Consumer

B.

Physical, Network, Compute, Storage, Application or Data

C.

SaaS, PaaS or IaaS

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Question # 86

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Question # 87

An organization deploys an AI application for fraud detection. Which threat is MOST likely to affect its AI model’s accuracy?

A.

Adversarial attacks

B.

DDoS attacks

C.

Third-party services

D.

Jailbreak attack

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Question # 88

What is the primary reason dynamic and expansive cloud environments require agile security approaches?

A.

To reduce costs associated with physical hardware

B.

To simplify the deployment of virtual machines

C.

To quickly respond to evolving threats and changing infrastructure

D.

To ensure high availability and load balancing

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Question # 89

ENISA: Which is a potential security benefit of cloud computing?

A.

More efficient and timely system updates

B.

ISO 27001 certification

C.

Provider can obfuscate system O/S and versions

D.

Greater compatibility with customer IT infrastructure

E.

Lock-In

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Question # 90

Your SLA with your cloud provider ensures continuity for all services.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 91

Which AI workload mitigation strategy best addresses model inversion attacks that threaten data confidentiality?

A.

Secure multi-party computation

B.

Differential privacy

C.

Encryption

D.

Model hardening

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Question # 92

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of image factories in the context of virtual machine (VM) management?

A.

Automating the VM image creation processes

B.

Managing network configurations for VMs

C.

Providing backup solutions for VM images

D.

Enhancing security of VM images

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Question # 93

What is the primary purpose of secrets management in cloud environments?

A.

Optimizing cloud infrastructure performance

B.

Managing user authentication for human access

C.

Securely handling stored authentication credentials

D.

Monitoring network traffic for security threats

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Question # 94

In the context of IaaS, what are the primary components included in infrastructure?

A.

Network configuration tools, storage encryption, and virtualization platforms

B.

Compute, network, and storage resource pools

C.

User authentication systems, application deployment services, and database management

D.

Load balancers, firewalls, and backup solutions

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Question # 95

Which component is primarily responsible for filtering and monitoring HTTP/S traffic to and from a web application?

A.

Anti-virus Software

B.

Load Balancer

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 96

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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