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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge (CCSKv5.0) Question and Answers

Question # 4

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

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Question # 5

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Question # 6

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

A.

To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

B.

To document all cloud services APIs

C.

To list all cloud-compliant software

D.

To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information

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Question # 7

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Question # 8

Which of the following from the governance hierarchy provides specific goals to minimize risk and maintain a secure environment?

A.

Implementation guidance

B.

Control objectives

C.

Policies

D.

Control specifications

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Question # 9

What does Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) primarily use to control access to applications?

A.

Geolocation data exclusively

B.

Username and password

C.

IP address and port number

D.

Identity, device, and contextual factors

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Question # 10

Which of the following best describes a risk associated with insecure interfaces and APIs?

A.

Ensuring secure data encryption at rest

B.

Man-in-the-middle attacks

C.

Increase resource consumption on servers

D.

Data exposure to unauthorized users

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Question # 12

Which type of controls should be implemented when required controls for a cybersecurity framework cannot be met?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Preventive controls

C.

Compensating controls

D.

Administrative controls

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Question # 13

Which best practice is recommended when securing object repositories in a cloud environment?

A.

Using access controls as the sole security measure

B.

Encrypting all objects in the repository

C.

Encrypting the access paths only

D.

Encrypting only sensitive objects

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Question # 14

Which technique is most effective for preserving digital evidence in a cloud environment?

A.

Analyzing management plane logs

B.

Regularly backing up data

C.

Isolating the compromised system

D.

Taking snapshots of virtual machines

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Question # 15

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

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Question # 16

When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to effectively analyze incidents?

A.

Access limited to log events for incident analysis

B.

Unlimited write access for all responders at all times

C.

Full-read access without any approval process

D.

Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations

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Question # 17

When investigating an incident in an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) environment, what can the user investigate on their own?

A.

The CSP server facility

B.

The logs of all customers in a multi-tenant cloud

C.

The network components controlled by the CSP

D.

The CSP office spaces

E.

Their own virtual instances in the cloud

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Question # 18

In Identity and Access Management (IAM) containment, why is it crucial to understand if an attacker escalated their identity?

A.

It aids in determining the source IP of the attacker.

B.

Because it simplifies the recovery process and increases the response time.

C.

To prevent further unauthorized access and limit the management plane blast radius.

D.

To facilitate the eradication of malware.

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Question # 19

Which of the following best describes a primary risk associated with the use of cloud storage services?

A.

Increased cost due to redundant data storage practices

B.

Unauthorized access due to misconfigured security settings

C.

Inherent encryption failures within all cloud storage solutions

D.

Complete data loss due to storage media degradation

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Question # 20

Your cloud and on-premises infrastructures should always use the same network address ranges.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 21

What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in the management infrastructure?

A.

Building and properly configuring a secure network infrastructure

B.

Configuring second factor authentication across the network

C.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, especially the firewalls

D.

Properly configuring the deployment of the virtual network, except the firewalls

E.

Providing as many API endpoints as possible for custom access and configurations

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Question # 22

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Question # 23

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

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Question # 24

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Question # 26

CCM: A company wants to use the IaaS offering of some CSP. Which of the following options for using CCM is NOT suitable for the company as a cloud customer?

A.

Submit the CCM on behalf of the CSP to CSA Security, Trust & Assurance Registry (STAR), a free, publicly accessible registry that documents the security controls provided by CSPs

B.

Use CCM to build a detailed list of requirements and controls that they want their CSP to implement

C.

Use CCM to help assess the risk associated with the CSP

D.

None of the above

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Question # 27

CCM: A hypothetical start-up company called "ABC" provides a cloud based IT management solution. They are growing rapidly and therefore need to put controls in place in order to manage any changes in

their production environment. Which of the following Change Control & Configuration Management production environment specific control should they implement in this scenario?

A.

Policies and procedures shall be established for managing the risks associated with applying changes to business-critical or customer (tenant)-impacting (physical and virtual) applications and system-system interface (API) designs and configurations, infrastructure network and systems components.

B.

Policies and procedures shall be established, and supporting business processes and technical measures implemented, to restrict the installation of unauthorized software on organizationally-owned ormanaged user end-point devices (e.g. issued workstations, laptops, and mobile devices) and IT infrastructure network and systems components.

C.

All cloud-based services used by the company's mobile devices or BYOD shall be pre-approved for usage and the storage of company business data.

D.

None of the above

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Question # 28

Select the best definition of “compliance” from the options below.

A.

The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.

B.

The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.

C.

The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

D.

The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.

E.

The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.

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Question # 29

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

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Question # 30

Which of the following events should be monitored according to CIS AWS benchmarks?

A.

Regular file backups

B.

Data encryption at rest

C.

Successful login attempts

D.

Unauthorized API calls

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Question # 31

Which of the following best describes how cloud computing manages shared resources?

A.

Through virtualization, with administrators allocating resources based on SLAs

B.

Through abstraction and automation to distribute resources to customers

C.

By allocating physical systems to a single customer at a time

D.

Through manual configuration of resources for each user need

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Question # 32

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Question # 33

Which type of AI workload typically requires large data sets and substantial computing resources?

A.

Evaluation

B.

Data Preparation

C.

Training

D.

Inference

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Question # 34

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Question # 35

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Question # 36

Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of cloud security frameworks?

A.

To implement detailed procedural instructions for security measures

B.

To organize control objectives for achieving desired security outcomes

C.

To ensure compliance with all regulatory requirements

D.

To provide tools for automated security management

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Question # 37

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Question # 38

What are the key outcomes of implementing robust cloud risk management practices?

A.

Ensuring the security and resilience of cloud environments

B.

Negotiating shared responsibilities

C.

Transferring compliance to the cloud service provider via inheritance

D.

Reducing the need for compliance with regulatory requirements

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Question # 39

In federated identity management, what role does the identity provider (IdP) play in relation to the relying party?

A.

The IdP relies on the relying party to authenticate and authorize users.

B.

The relying party makes assertions to the IdP about user authorizations.

C.

The IdP and relying party have no direct trust relationship.

D.

The IdP makes assertions to the relying party after building a trust relationship.

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Question # 40

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Question # 41

How does SASE enhance traffic management when compared to traditional network models?

A.

It solely focuses on user authentication improvements

B.

It replaces existing network protocols with new proprietary ones

C.

It filters traffic near user devices, reducing the need for backhauling

D.

It requires all traffic to be sent through central data centers

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Question # 42

In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

A.

Management plane activity logs

B.

Network perimeter monitoring

C.

Endpoint protection status

D.

Physical hardware access

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Question # 43

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

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Question # 44

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Question # 45

Which aspects are most important for ensuring security in a hybrid cloud environment?

A.

Use of encryption for all data at rest

B.

Implementation of robust IAM and network security practices

C.

Regular software updates and patch management

D.

Deployment of multi-factor authentication only

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Question # 46

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

A.

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

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Question # 47

What method can be utilized along with data fragmentation to enhance security?

A.

Encryption

B.

Organization

C.

Knowledge management

D.

IDS

E.

Insulation

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Question # 48

In a containerized environment, what is fundamental to ensuring runtime protection for deployed containers?

A.

Implementing real-time visibility

B.

Deploying container-specific antivirus scanning

C.

Using static code analysis tools in the pipeline

D.

Full packet network monitoring

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Question # 49

Which concept is a mapping of an identity, including roles, personas, and attributes, to an authorization?

A.

Access control

B.

Federated Identity Management

C.

Authoritative source

D.

Entitlement

E.

Authentication

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Question # 50

What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

A.

Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management

B.

Validating the underlying container security

C.

Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

D.

Placing serverless components behind application load balancers

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Question # 51

What type of information is contained in the Cloud Security Alliance's Cloud Control Matrix?

A.

Network traffic rules for cloud environments

B.

A number of requirements to be implemented, based upon numerous standards and regulatory requirements

C.

Federal legal business requirements for all cloud operators

D.

A list of cloud configurations including traffic logic and efficient routes

E.

The command and control management hierarchy of typical cloud company

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Question # 52

Which of the following is true about access policies in cybersecurity?

A.

They are used to monitor real-time network traffic

B.

They are solely concerned with user authentication methods

C.

They provide data encryption protocols for secure communication

D.

They define permissions and network rules for resource access

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Question # 53

Which of the following best describes the responsibility for security in a cloud environment?

A.

Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. The Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are accountable.

B.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The exact allocation of responsibilities depends on the technology and context.

C.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) are solely responsible for security in the cloud environment. Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) have an advisory role.

D.

Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) and Cloud Service Customers (CSCs) share security responsibilities. The allocation of responsibilities is constant.

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Question # 54

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

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Question # 55

What is the most significant security difference between traditional infrastructure and cloud computing?

A.

Management plane

B.

Intrusion detection options

C.

Secondary authentication factors

D.

Network access points

E.

Mobile security configuration options

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Question # 56

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) might be limited or require pre-testing permission from the provider.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 57

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Question # 58

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Question # 59

Which of the following best describes a benefit of using VPNs for cloud connectivity?

A.

VPNs are more cost-effective than any other connectivity option.

B.

VPNs provide secure, encrypted connections between data centers and cloud deployments.

C.

VPNs eliminate the need for third-party authentication services.

D.

VPNs provide higher bandwidth than direct connections.

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Question # 60

Which aspect is crucial for crafting and enforcing CSP (Cloud Service Provider) policies?

A.

Integration with network infrastructure

B.

Adherence to software development practices

C.

Optimization for cost reduction

D.

Alignment with security objectives and regulatory requirements

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Question # 61

Which of the following best describes the shift-left approach in software development?

A.

Relies only on automated security testing tools

B.

Emphasizes post-deployment security audits

C.

Focuses on security only during the testing phase

D.

Integrates security early in the development process

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Question # 62

An important consideration when performing a remote vulnerability test of a cloud-based application is to

A.

Obtain provider permission for test

B.

Use techniques to evade cloud provider’s detection systems

C.

Use application layer testing tools exclusively

D.

Use network layer testing tools exclusively

E.

Schedule vulnerability test at night

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Question # 63

Which of the following encryption methods would be utilized when object storage is used as the back-end for an application?

A.

Database encryption

B.

Media encryption

C.

Asymmetric encryption

D.

Object encryption

E.

Client/application encryption

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Question # 64

In the context of cloud security, which approach prioritizes incoming data logsfor threat detection by applying multiple sequential filters?

A.

Cascade-and-filter approach

B.

Parallel processing approach

C.

Streamlined single-filter method

D.

Unfiltered bulk analysis

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Question # 65

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 66

How does Infrastructure as Code (IaC) facilitate rapid recovery in cybersecurity?

A.

IaC is primarily used for designing network security policies

B.

IaC enables automated and consistent deployment of recovery environments

C.

IaC provides encryption and secure key management during recovery

D.

IaC automates incident detection and alerting mechanisms

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Question # 67

Which type of cloud workload would be most appropriate for running isolated applications with minimum resource overhead?

A.

Containers

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

AI Workloads

D.

Virtual Machines (VMs)

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Question # 68

In the shared security model, how does the allocation of responsibility vary by service?

A.

Shared responsibilities should be consistent across all services.

B.

Based on the per-service SLAs for security.

C.

Responsibilities are the same across IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS in the shared model.

D.

Responsibilities are divided between the cloud provider and the customer based on the service type.

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Question # 69

What is the primary objective of posture management in a cloud environment?

A.

Automating incident response procedures

B.

Optimizing cloud cost efficiency

C.

Continuous monitoring of configurations

D.

Managing user access permissions

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Question # 70

ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

A.

Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company

B.

Resource isolation may fail

C.

Provider may change physical location

D.

Mass layoffs may occur

E.

Non-binding agreements put at risk

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Question # 71

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Question # 72

Sending data to a provider’s storage over an API is likely as much more reliable and secure than setting up your own SFTP server on a VM in the same provider

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 73

How does cloud sprawl complicate security monitoring in an enterprise environment?

A.

Cloud sprawl disperses assets, making it harder to monitor assets.

B.

Cloud sprawl centralizes assets, simplifying security monitoring.

C.

Cloud sprawl reduces the number of assets, easing security efforts.

D.

Cloud sprawl has no impact on security monitoring.

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Question # 74

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

A.

False

B.

True

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Question # 75

Which Identity and Access Management (IAM) principle focuses on implementing multiple security layers to dilute access power, thereby averting a misuse or compromise?

A.

Continuous Monitoring

B.

Federation

C.

Segregation of Duties

D.

Principle of Least Privilege

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Question # 76

In a hybrid cloud environment, why would an organization choose cascading log architecture for security purposes?

A.

To reduce the number of network hops for log collection

B.

To facilitate efficient central log collection

C.

To use CSP's analysis tools for log analysis

D.

To convert cloud logs into on-premise formats

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Question # 77

Which of the following is a perceived advantage or disadvantage of managing enterprise risk for cloud deployments?

A.

More physical control over assets and processes.

B.

Greater reliance on contracts, audits, and assessments due to lack of visibility or management.

C.

Decreased requirement for proactive management of relationship and adherence to contracts.

D.

Increased need, but reduction in costs, for managing risks accepted by the cloud provider.

E.

None of the above.

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Question # 78

The Software Defined Perimeter (SDP) includes which components?

A.

Client, Controller, and Gateway

B.

Client, Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

C.

Client, Firewall, and Gateway

D.

Controller, Firewall, and Gateway

E.

Client, Controller, and Firewall

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Question # 79

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Question # 80

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Question # 81

What are the encryption options available for SaaS consumers?

A.

Any encryption option that is available for volume storage, object storage, or PaaS

B.

Provider-managed and (sometimes) proxy encryption

C.

Client/application and file/folder encryption

D.

Object encryption Volume storage encryption

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Question # 82

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Question # 83

What should every cloud customer set up with its cloud service provider (CSP) that can be utilized in the event of an incident?

A.

A data destruction plan

B.

A communication plan

C.

A back-up website

D.

A spill remediation kit

E.

A rainy day fund

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Question # 84

What is true of a workload?

A.

It is a unit of processing that consumes memory

B.

It does not require a hardware stack

C.

It is always a virtual machine

D.

It is configured for specific, established tasks

E.

It must be containerized

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Question # 85

Which tool is most effective for ensuring compliance and identifying misconfigurations in cloud management planes?

A.

Data Security Posture Management (DSPM)

B.

SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)

C.

Cloud Detection and Response (CDR)

D.

Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)

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Question # 86

What is the primary advantage of implementing Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery/Deployment (CI/CD) pipelines in the context of cybersecurity?

A.

Replacing the need for security teams.

B.

Slowing down the development process for testing.

C.

Automating security checks and deployments.

D.

Enhancing code quality.

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Question # 87

Which aspect is most important for effective cloud governance?

A.

Formalizing cloud security policies

B.

Implementing best-practice cloud security control objectives

C.

Negotiating SLAs with cloud providers

D.

Establishing a governance hierarchy

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Question # 88

What is the best way to ensure that all data has been removed from a public cloud environment including all media such as back-up tapes?

A.

Allowing the cloud provider to manage your keys so that they have the ability to access and delete the data from the main and back-up storage.

B.

Maintaining customer managed key management and revoking or deleting keys from the key management system to prevent the data from being accessed again.

C.

Practice Integration of Duties (IOD) so that everyone is able to delete the encrypted data.

D.

Keep the keys stored on the client side so that they are secure and so that the users have the ability to delete their own data.

E.

Both B and D.

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Question # 89

Which approach creates a secure network, invisible to unauthorized users?

A.

Firewalls

B.

Software-Defined Perimeter (SDP)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

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Question # 90

What's the difference between DNS Logs and Flow Logs?

A.

They represent the logging of different networking solutions, and DNS Logs are more suitable for a ZTA implementation

B.

DNS Logs record domain name resolution requests and responses, while Flow Logs record info on source, destination, protocol

C.

They play identical functions and can be used interchangeably

D.

DNS Logs record all the information about the network behavior, including source, destination, and protocol, while Flow Logs record users' applications behavior

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Question # 91

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

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