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350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Question and Answers

Question # 4

An administrator is configuring N I P on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A.

Specify the NTP version

B.

Configure the NTP stratum

C.

Set the authentication key

D.

Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP DNS hostname

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Question # 5

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System?

A.

Correlation

B.

Intrusion

C.

Access Control

D.

Network Discovery

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Question # 6

In which two ways does Easy Connect help control network access when used with Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two)

A.

It allows multiple security products to share information and work together to enhance security posture in the network.

B.

It creates a dashboard in Cisco ISE that provides full visibility of all connected endpoints.

C.

It allows for the assignment of Security Group Tags and does not require 802.1x to be configured on the switch or the endpoint.

D.

It integrates with third-party products to provide better visibility throughout the network.

E.

It allows for managed endpoints that authenticate to AD to be mapped to Security Groups (PassiveID).

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Question # 7

Which type of dashboard does Cisco Catalyst Center provide for complete control of the network?

A.

Distributed management

B.

Centralized management

C.

Application management

D.

Service management

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Question # 8

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

A.

SaaS

B.

IaaS

C.

on-premises

D.

off-premises

E.

PaaS

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Question # 9

Which SNMPv3 configuration must be used to support the strongest security possible?

A.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

C.

asa-host(config)#snmpserver group myv3 v3 noauthasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv 3des ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

D.

asa-host(config)#snmp-server group myv3 v3 privasa-host(config)#snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256 ciscXXXXXXXXasa-host(config)#snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

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Question # 10

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

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Question # 11

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites

but other sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A.

Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.

B.

IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.

C.

Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.

D.

Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy

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Question # 12

Which product allows Cisco FMC to push security intelligence observable to its sensors from other products?

A.

Encrypted Traffic Analytics

B.

Threat Intelligence Director

C.

Cognitive Threat Analytics

D.

Cisco Talos Intelligence

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Question # 13

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

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Question # 14

What is the benefit of installing Cisco AMP for Endpoints on a network?

A.

It provides operating system patches on the endpoints for security.

B.

It provides flow-based visibility for the endpoints network connections.

C.

It enables behavioral analysis to be used for the endpoints.

D.

It protects endpoint systems through application control and real-time scanning

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Question # 15

A company discovered an attack propagating through their network via a file. A custom file policy was created in order to track this in the future and ensure no other endpoints execute the infected file. In addition, it was discovered during testing that the scans are not detecting the file as an indicator of compromise. What must be done in order to ensure that the created is functioning as it should?

A.

Create an IP block list for the website from which the file was downloaded

B.

Block the application that the file was using to open

C.

Upload the hash for the file into the policy

D.

Send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

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Question # 16

A network administrator needs a solution to match traffic and allow or deny the traffic based on the type of application, not just the source or destination address and port used. Which kind of security product must the network administrator implement to meet this requirement?

A.

Next-generation Intrusion Prevention System

B.

Next-generation Firewall

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Question # 17

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

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Question # 18

Which two devices support WCCP for traffic redirection? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Secure Web Appliance

B.

Cisco IOS

C.

proxy server

D.

Cisco ASA

E.

Cisco IPS

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Question # 19

What is the default action before identifying the URL during HTTPS inspection in Cisco Secure Firewall Threat Defense software?

A.

reset

B.

buffer

C.

pass

D.

drop

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Question # 20

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin authentication for packets?

A.

IKEv1

B.

AH

C.

ESP

D.

IKEv2

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Question # 21

What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco AMP

D.

Cisco App Dynamics

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Question # 22

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

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Question # 23

For which type of attack is multifactor authentication an effective deterrent?

A.

Ping of death

B.

Teardrop

C.

SYN flood

D.

Phishing

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Question # 24

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

A.

delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule

B.

unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard

C.

enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard

D.

manual identification and classification of client devices

E.

unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard

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Question # 25

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?

A.

Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

B.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices

C.

Set the sftunnel port to 8305.

D.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

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Question # 26

A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?

A.

DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.

B.

The ip arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.

C.

Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs

D.

The no ip arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces

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Question # 27

An organization is using DNS services for their network and want to help improve the security of the DNS infrastructure. Which action accomplishes this task?

A.

Use DNSSEC between the endpoints and Cisco Umbrella DNS servers.

B.

Modify the Cisco Umbrella configuration to pass queries only to non-DNSSEC capable zones.

C.

Integrate Cisco Umbrella with Cisco CloudLock to ensure that DNSSEC is functional.

D.

Configure Cisco Umbrella and use DNSSEC for domain authentication to authoritative servers.

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Question # 28

Which key feature of Cisco ZFW is unique among other Cisco IOS firewall solutions?

A.

Security levels

B.

Stateless inspection

C.

Security zones

D.

SSL inspection

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Question # 29

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

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Question # 30

A Cisco FTD engineer is creating a new IKEv2 policy called s2s00123456789 for their organization to allow for additional protocols to terminate network devices with. They currently only have one policy established and need the new policy to be a backup in case some devices cannot support the stronger algorithms listed in the primary policy. What should be done in order to support this?

A.

Change the integrity algorithms to SHA* to support all SHA algorithms in the primary policy

B.

Make the priority for the new policy 5 and the primary policy 1

C.

Change the encryption to AES* to support all AES algorithms in the primary policy

D.

Make the priority for the primary policy 10 and the new policy 1

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit. When creating an access rule for URL filtering, a network engineer adds certain categories and individual URLs to block. What is the result of the configuration?

A.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 1-3 will be blocked.

B.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be blocked.

C.

Only URLs for botnets with reputation scores of 3-5 will be blocked.

D.

Only URLs for botnets with a reputation score of 3 will be allowed while the rest will be blocked.

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Question # 32

Which Cisco network security device supports contextual awareness?

A.

Firepower

B.

CISCO ASA

C.

Cisco IOS

D.

ISE

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Question # 33

An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution must be API-based and

operate as a cloud-native CASB. Which solution must be used for this implementation?

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall

D.

Cisco Umbrella

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Question # 34

How does Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection protect users?

A.

It validates the sender by using DKIM.

B.

It determines which identities are perceived by the sender

C.

It utilizes sensors that send messages securely.

D.

It uses machine learning and real-time behavior analytics.

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Question # 35

What is the purpose of a NetFlow version 9 template record?

A.

It specifies the data format of NetFlow processes.

B.

It provides a standardized set of information about an IP flow.

C.

lt defines the format of data records.

D.

It serves as a unique identification number to distinguish individual data records

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Question # 36

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.

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Question # 37

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

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Question # 38

Refer to the exhibit.

What will happen when the Python script is executed?

A.

The hostname will be translated to an IP address and printed.

B.

The hostname will be printed for the client in the client ID field.

C.

The script will pull all computer hostnames and print them.

D.

The script will translate the IP address to FODN and print it

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Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an incoming mail policy so that each email sent from usera1@example.com to a domain of @cisco.com is scanned for antispam and advanced malware protection. All other settings will use the default behavior. What must be configured in the incoming mail policy to meet the requirements?

A.

Policy Name: Default Policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

B.

Policy Name: usera1 policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

C.

Policy Name: Anti-Malware policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

D.

Policy Name: cisco.com policy

  Sender: usera1@example.com

  Recipient: @cisco.com

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Question # 40

Which two cryptographic algorithms are used with IPsec? (Choose two)

A.

AES-BAC

B.

AES-ABC

C.

HMAC-SHA1/SHA2

D.

Triple AMC-CBC

E.

AES-CBC

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Question # 41

Which IETF attribute is supported for the RADIUS CoA feature?

A.

24 State

B.

30 Calling-Station-ID

C.

42 Acct-Session-ID

D.

81 Message-Authenticator

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Question # 42

An engineer is configuring Cisco Umbrella and has an identity that references two different policies. Which action ensures that the policy that the identity must use takes precedence over the second one?

A.

Configure the default policy to redirect the requests to the correct policy

B.

Place the policy with the most-specific configuration last in the policy order

C.

Configure only the policy with the most recently changed timestamp

D.

Make the correct policy first in the policy order

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Question # 43

What provides visibility and awareness into what is currently occurring on the network?

A.

CMX

B.

WMI

C.

Prime Infrastructure

D.

Telemetry

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Question # 44

Which feature requires that network telemetry be enabled?

A.

per-interface stats

B.

SNMP trap notification

C.

Layer 2 device discovery

D.

central syslog system

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Question # 45

Which Cisco AMP feature allows an engineer to look back to trace past activities, such as file and process activity on an endpoint?

A.

Retrospective security

B.

Endpoint isolation

C.

Advanced investigation

D.

Advanced search

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Question # 46

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

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Question # 47

A security engineer is tasked with configuring TACACS on a Cisco ASA firewall. The engineer must be able to access the firewall command line interface remotely. The authentication must fall back to the local user database of the Cisco ASA firewall. AAA server group named TACACS-GROUP is already configured with TACACS server IP address 192.168.10.10 and key C1sc0512222832!. Which configuration must be done next to meet the requirement?

A.

aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication ssh console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

C.

aaa authentication serial console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

D.

aaa authentication http console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

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Question # 48

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

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Question # 49

Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers

and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNS flood attack

C.

cache poisoning

D.

DNS hijacking

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Question # 50

Which two actions does the Cisco ISE posture module provide that ensures endpoint security? (Choose two.)

A.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

B.

Patch management remediation is performed.

C.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

D.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

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Question # 51

Which two activities are performed using Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

DHCP

B.

Design

C.

Provision

D.

DNS

E.

Accounting

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Question # 52

Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly in the applications?

A.

Orchestration

B.

CI/CD pipeline

C.

Container

D.

Security

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Question # 53

An engineer must configure AsyncOS for Cisco Secure Web Appliance to push log files to a syslog server using the SCP retrieval method. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to complete the configuration.

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Question # 54

Drag and drop the Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System detectors from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

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Question # 55

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

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Question # 56

Which benefit is provided by ensuring that an endpoint is compliant with a posture policy configured in Cisco ISE?

A.

It allows the endpoint to authenticate with 802.1x or MAB.

B.

It verifies that the endpoint has the latest Microsoft security patches installed.

C.

It adds endpoints to identity groups dynamically.

D.

It allows CoA to be applied if the endpoint status is compliant.

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Question # 57

Which Cisco solution extends network visibility, threat detection, and analytics to public cloud environments?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Cisco Appdynamics

D.

Cisco CloudLock

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Question # 58

Which Cisco security solution secures public, private, hybrid, and community clouds?

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco ASAv

C.

Cisco Cloudlock

D.

Cisco pxGrid

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Question # 59

What is the difference between deceptive phishing and spear phishing?

A.

Deceptive phishing is an attacked aimed at a specific user in the organization who holds a C-level role.

B.

A spear phishing campaign is aimed at a specific person versus a group of people.

C.

Spear phishing is when the attack is aimed at the C-level executives of an organization.

D.

Deceptive phishing hijacks and manipulates the DNS server of the victim and redirects the user to a false webpage.

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Question # 60

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

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Question # 61

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco Catalyst Center? (Choose two.)

A.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

B.

Connect to ITSM platforms

C.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

D.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

E.

Third party reporting

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Question # 62

In which cloud services model is the tenant responsible for virtual machine OS patching?

A.

IaaS

B.

UCaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

SaaS

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Question # 63

A security engineer must create a policy based on the reputation verdict of a file from a Cisco Secure Email Gateway. The file with an undetermined verdict must be dropped. Which action must the security engineer take to meet the requirement?

A.

Configure threshold settings for files with no score to be allowed.

B.

Set up a policy to automatically drop files with no reputation score.

C.

Implement a policy to disable file analysis.

D.

Create a policy to send a file to quarantine.

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Question # 64

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

A.

transparent

B.

redirection

C.

forward

D.

proxy gateway

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Question # 65

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

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Question # 66

Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a CA signed certificate while also automatically configuring endpoint network settings to use the signed endpoint certificate, allowing the endpoint to gain network access?

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco NAC

C.

Cisco TACACS+

D.

Cisco WSA

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Question # 67

When using Cisco AMP for Networks which feature copies a file to the Cisco AMP cloud for analysis?

A.

Spero analysis

B.

dynamic analysis

C.

sandbox analysis

D.

malware analysis

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Question # 68

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command was used to generate this output and to show which ports are

authenticating with dot1x or mab?

A.

show authentication registrations

B.

show authentication method

C.

show dot1x all

D.

show authentication sessions

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Question # 69

Which Cisco solution integrates industry-leading artificial intelligence and machine learning analytics and an assurance database to review the security posture and maintain visibility of an organization’s cloud environment?

A.

Cisco CSR1000v

B.

Cisco Secure Workload

C.

Cisco DNA

D.

Cisco FTD

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Question # 70

Which two authentication protocols are supported by the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

WCCP

B.

NTLM

C.

TLS

D.

SSL

E.

LDAP

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Question # 71

When Cisco and other industry organizations publish and inform users of known security findings and

vulnerabilities, which name is used?

A.

Common Security Exploits

B.

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures

C.

Common Exploits and Vulnerabilities

D.

Common Vulnerabilities, Exploits and Threats

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Question # 72

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

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Question # 73

Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention

System? (Choose two)

A.

packet decoder

B.

SIP

C.

modbus

D.

inline normalization

E.

SSL

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Question # 74

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to enable a separated email transfer flow from the Internet and from the LAN. Which deployment mode must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

single interface

B.

multi-context

C.

transparent

D.

two-interface

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Question # 75

When MAB is configured for use within the 802.1X environment, an administrator must create a policy that allows the devices onto the network. Which information is used for the username and password?

A.

The MAB uses the IP address as username and password.

B.

The MAB uses the call-station-ID as username and password.

C.

Each device must be set manually by the administrator.

D.

The MAB uses the MAC address as username and password.

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Question # 76

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

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Question # 77

What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

A.

It includes multiple interfaces and access rules between interfaces are customizable

B.

It is a Layer 3 segment and includes one port and customizable access rules

C.

It allows ARP traffic with a single access rule

D.

It has an IP address on its BVI interface and is used for management traffic

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Question # 78

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

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Question # 79

What can be integrated with Cisco Threat Intelligence Director to provide information about security threats,

which allows the SOC to proactively automate responses to those threats?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

External Threat Feeds

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

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Question # 80

When a Cisco WSA checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It blocks the request.

B.

It applies the global policy.

C.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

D.

It applies the advanced policy.

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Question # 81

Which two deployment modes does the Cisco ASA FirePower module support? (Choose two)

A.

transparent mode

B.

routed mode

C.

inline mode

D.

active mode

E.

passive monitor-only mode

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Question # 82

Which feature within Cisco ISE verifies the compliance of an endpoint before providing access to the

network?

A.

Posture

B.

Profiling

C.

pxGrid

D.

MAB

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Question # 83

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

A.

outbreakconfig

B.

websecurityconfig

C.

webadvancedconfig

D.

websecurityadvancedconfig

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Question # 84

An engineer is configuring AMP for endpoints and wants to block certain files from executing. Which outbreak

control method is used to accomplish this task?

A.

device flow correlation

B.

simple detections

C.

application blocking list

D.

advanced custom detections

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Question # 85

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multi-national organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A.

Defang

B.

Quarantine

C.

FilterAction

D.

ScreenAction

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Question # 86

What are two differences between a Cisco Secure Web Appliance that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two.)

A.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

B.

When the Cisco Secure Web Appliance is running in transparent mode, it uses the Secure Web Appliance's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

C.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

D.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

The Cisco Secure Web Appliance uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

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Question # 87

Which policy does a Cisco Secure Web Appliance use to block or monitor URL requests based on the reputation score?

A.

Encryption

B.

Enforcement Security

C.

Cisco Data Security

D.

Outbound Malware Scanning

Full Access
Question # 88

Which feature is supported when deploying Cisco ASAv within AWS public cloud?

A.

multiple context mode

B.

user deployment of Layer 3 networks

C.

IPv6

D.

clustering

Full Access
Question # 89

What is a difference between GRE over IPsec and IPsec with crypto map?

A.

Multicast traffic is supported by IPsec with crypto map.

B.

GRE over IPsec supports non-IP protocols.

C.

GRE provides its own encryption mechanism.

D.

IPsec with crypto map oilers better scalability.

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Question # 90

Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

A.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

B.

aaa new-model

C.

auth-type all

D.

ip device-tracking

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Question # 91

Drag and drop the Cisco CWS redirection options from the left onto the capabilities on the right.

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Question # 92

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

A.

Configure an advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list

C.

Configure an application custom detection list

D.

Configure a simple custom detection list

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Question # 93

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)

A.

REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE.

B.

REST codes can be compiled with any programming language.

C.

REST is a Linux platform-based architecture.

D.

The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path.

E.

REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service.

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Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit. The DHCP snooping database resides on router R1, and dynamic ARP inspection is configured only on switch SW2. Which ports must be configured as untrusted so that dynamic ARP inspection operates normally?

A.

P2 and P3 only

B.

P2, P3, and P6 only

C.

P5, P6, and P7 only

D.

P1, P2, P3, and P4 only

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Question # 95

How is ICMP used an exfiltration technique?

A.

by flooding the destination host with unreachable packets

B.

by sending large numbers of ICMP packets with a targeted hosts source IP address using an IP broadcast address

C.

by encrypting the payload in an ICMP packet to carry out command and control tasks on a compromised host

D.

by overwhelming a targeted host with ICMP echo-request packets

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Question # 96

When configuring ISAKMP for IKEv1 Phase1 on a Cisco IOS router, an administrator needs to input the

command crypto isakmp key cisco address 0.0.0.0. The administrator is not sure what the IP addressing in this command issued for. What would be the effect of changing the IP address from 0.0.0.0 to 1.2.3.4?

A.

The key server that is managing the keys for the connection will be at 1.2.3.4

B.

The remote connection will only be allowed from 1.2.3.4

C.

The address that will be used as the crypto validation authority

D.

All IP addresses other than 1.2.3.4 will be allowed

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Question # 97

An administrator is adding a new switch onto the network and has configured AAA for network access control. When testing the configuration, the RADIUS authenticates to Cisco ISE but is being rejected. Why is the ip radius source-interface command needed for this configuration?

A.

Only requests that originate from a configured NAS IP are accepted by a RADIUS server

B.

The RADIUS authentication key is transmitted only from the defined RADIUS source interface

C.

RADIUS requests are generated only by a router if a RADIUS source interface is defined.

D.

Encrypted RADIUS authentication requires the RADIUS source interface be defined

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Question # 98

A network engineer has entered the snmp-server user andy myv3 auth sha cisco priv aes 256

cisc0380739941 command and needs to send SNMP information to a host at 10.255.254.1. Which command achieves this goal?

A.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 andy

B.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 version 3 myv3

C.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 andy

D.

snmp-server host inside 10.255.254.1 snmpv3 myv3

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Question # 99

What are two benefits of Flexible NetFlow records? (Choose two)

A.

They allow the user to configure flow information to perform customized traffic identification

B.

They provide attack prevention by dropping the traffic

C.

They provide accounting and billing enhancements

D.

They converge multiple accounting technologies into one accounting mechanism

E.

They provide monitoring of a wider range of IP packet information from Layer 2 to 4

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Question # 100

What must be configured in Cisco ISE to enforce reauthentication of an endpoint session when an endpoint is

deleted from an identity group?

A.

posture assessment

B.

CoA

C.

external identity source

D.

SNMP probe

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Question # 101

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively used by devices, using many of the default policy elements.

What else must be done to accomplish this task?

A.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

D.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

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Question # 102

Which feature of Cisco ASA allows VPN users to be postured against Cisco ISE without requiring an inline

posture node?

A.

RADIUS Change of Authorization

B.

device tracking

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

VLAN hopping

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Question # 103

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a Cisco switch to perform PPP authentication via a TACACS server located at IP address 10.1.1.10. Authentication must fall back to the local database using the username LocalUser and password C1Sc0451069341l if the TACACS server is unreachable.

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the corresponding configuration steps on the right.

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Question # 104

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)

A.

Windows service

B.

computer identity

C.

user identity

D.

Windows firewall

E.

default browser

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Question # 105

Which two Cisco Umbrella security categories are used to prevent command-and-control callbacks on port 53 and protect users from being tricked into providing confidential information? (Choose two.)

A.

DNS Tunneling VPN

B.

Dynamic DNS

C.

Newly Seen Domains

D.

Potentially Harmful Domains

E.

Phishing Attacks

Full Access
Question # 106

Using Cisco Cognitive Threat Analytics, which platform automatically blocks risky sites, and test unknown sites for hidden advanced threats before allowing users to click them?

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine (ISE)

B.

Cisco Enterprise Security Appliance (ESA)

C.

Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA)

D.

Cisco Advanced Stealthwatch Appliance (ASA)

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Question # 107

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

A.

supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi

B.

requires an additional license

C.

performs transparent redirection

D.

supports SSL decryption

Full Access
Question # 108

Which technology must De used to Implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

A.

GET VPN

B.

IPsec DVTI

C.

DMVPN

D.

FlexVPN

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Question # 109

In which type of attack does the attacker insert their machine between two hosts that are communicating with each other?

A.

LDAP injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

cross-site scripting

D.

insecure API

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Question # 110

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:// /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Full Access
Question # 111

Which two statements about a Cisco WSA configured in Transparent mode are true? (Choose two)

A.

It can handle explicit HTTP requests.

B.

It requires a PAC file for the client web browser.

C.

It requires a proxy for the client web browser.

D.

WCCP v2-enabled devices can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

E.

Layer 4 switches can automatically redirect traffic destined to port 80.

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Question # 112

What must be used to share data between multiple security products?

A.

Cisco Rapid Threat Containment

B.

Cisco Platform Exchange Grid

C.

Cisco Advanced Malware Protection

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Full Access
Question # 113

What is a benefit of using Cisco CWS compared to an on-premises Cisco WSA?

A.

Cisco CWS eliminates the need to backhaul traffic through headquarters for remote workers whereas Cisco WSA does not

B.

Cisco CWS minimizes the load on the internal network and security infrastructure as compared to Cisco WSA.

C.

URL categories are updated more frequently on Cisco CWS than they are on Cisco WSA

D.

Content scanning for SAAS cloud applications is available through Cisco CWS and not available through Cisco WSA

Full Access
Question # 114

Which portion of the network do EPP solutions solely focus on and EDR solutions do not?

A.

server farm

B.

perimeter

C.

core

D.

East-West gateways

Full Access
Question # 115

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

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Question # 116

In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Security Appliance?

(Choose two)

A.

configure Active Directory Group Policies to push proxy settings

B.

configure policy-based routing on the network infrastructure

C.

reference a Proxy Auto Config file

D.

configure the proxy IP address in the web-browser settings

E.

use Web Cache Communication Protocol

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Question # 117

In which scenario is endpoint-based security the solution?

A.

inspecting encrypted traffic

B.

device profiling and authorization

C.

performing signature-based application control

D.

inspecting a password-protected archive

Full Access
Question # 118

What is an advantage of using a next-generation firewall compared to a traditional firewall?

A.

Next-generation firewalls have stateless inspection capabilities, and traditional firewalls use stateful inspection.

B.

Next-generation firewalls use dynamic packet filtering, and traditional firewalls use static packet filtering.

C.

Next-generation firewalls have threat intelligence feeds, and traditional firewalls use signature detection.

D.

Next-generation firewalls use intrusion prevention policies, and traditional firewalls use intrusion detection policies.

Full Access
Question # 119

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

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Question # 120

An engineer needs to configure an access control policy rule to always send traffic for inspection without

using the default action. Which action should be configured for this rule?

A.

monitor

B.

allow

C.

block

D.

trust

Full Access
Question # 121

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

Full Access
Question # 122

An engineer integrates Cisco FMC and Cisco ISE using pxGrid Which role is assigned for Cisco FMC?

A.

client

B.

server

C.

controller

D.

publisher

Full Access
Question # 123

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

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Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a new Cisco ISE backend server as a RADIUS server to provide AAA for all access requests from the client to the ISE-Frontend server.

Which Cisco ISE configuration must be used?

A.

Set 10.11.1.2 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set port 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

B.

Set 10.11.1.1 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

C.

Set 10.11.1.2 as the external RADIUS server in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1812/1813 for authentication and accounting.

D.

Set 10.11.1.1 as a network device in ISE-Frontend. Set ports 1700/2083 for RADIUS authentication.

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Question # 125

An engineer has been tasked with configuring a Cisco FTD to analyze protocol fields and detect anomalies in the traffic from industrial systems. What must be done to meet these requirements?

A.

Implement pre-filter policies for the CIP preprocessor

B.

Enable traffic analysis in the Cisco FTD

C.

Configure intrusion rules for the DNP3 preprocessor

D.

Modify the access control policy to trust the industrial traffic

Full Access
Question # 126

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

Full Access
Question # 127

An engineer must deploy Cisco Secure Email with Cloud URL Analysis and must meet these requirements:

    To protect the network from large-scale virus outbreaks

    To protect the network from non-viral attacks such as phishing scams and malware distribution

    To provide active analysis of the structure of the URL and information about the domain and page contents

Which two prerequisites must the engineer ensure are configured? (Choose two.)

A.

Scanning enabled for each Verdict, Prepend Subject and Deliver.

B.

Outbreak Filters must be enabled globally.

C.

Enable TLS by setting to Preferred to the Default Domain.

D.

Service Logs must be enabled.

E.

Enable Rejected Connection Logging.

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Question # 128

An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group. Which

probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

A.

NetFlow

B.

NMAP

C.

SNMP

D.

DHCP

Full Access
Question # 129

Which direction do attackers encode data in DNS requests during exfiltration using DNS tunneling?

A.

inbound

B.

north-south

C.

east-west

D.

outbound

Full Access
Question # 130

A small organization needs to reduce the VPN bandwidth load on their headend Cisco ASA in order to

ensure that bandwidth is available for VPN users needing access to corporate resources on the10.0.0.0/24 local HQ network. How is this accomplished without adding additional devices to the

network?

A.

Use split tunneling to tunnel traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network only.

B.

Configure VPN load balancing to distribute traffic for the 10.0.0.0/24 network,

C.

Configure VPN load balancing to send non-corporate traffic straight to the internet.

D.

Use split tunneling to tunnel all traffic except for the 10.0.0.0/24 network.

Full Access
Question # 131

Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two)

A.

Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.

B.

Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.

C.

Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.

D.

Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.

E.

Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.

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Question # 132

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Full Access
Question # 133

Which protocol provides the strongest throughput performance when using Cisco AnyConnect VPN?

A.

TLSv1.2

B.

TLSv1.1

C.

BJTLSv1

D.

DTLSv1

Full Access
Question # 134

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Full Access
Question # 135

Where are individual sites specified to be block listed in Cisco Umbrella?

A.

Application settings

B.

Security settings

C.

Destination lists

D.

Content categories

Full Access
Question # 136

What are two recommended approaches to stop DNS tunneling for data exfiltration and command and control call backs? (Choose two.)

A.

Use intrusion prevention system.

B.

Block all TXT DNS records.

C.

Enforce security over port 53.

D.

Use next generation firewalls.

E.

Use Cisco Umbrella.

Full Access
Question # 137

Which algorithm provides asymmetric encryption?

A.

RC4

B.

AES

C.

RSA

D.

3DES

Full Access
Question # 138

What is a function of Cisco AMP for Endpoints?

A.

It detects DNS attacks

B.

It protects against web-based attacks

C.

It blocks email-based attacks

D.

It automates threat responses of an infected host

Full Access
Question # 139

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Full Access
Question # 140

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Full Access
Question # 141

Which API is used for Content Security?

A.

NX-OS API

B.

IOS XR API

C.

OpenVuln API

D.

AsyncOS API

Full Access
Question # 142

When planning a VPN deployment, for which reason does an engineer opt for an active/active FlexVPN

configuration as opposed to DMVPN?

A.

Multiple routers or VRFs are required.

B.

Traffic is distributed statically by default.

C.

Floating static routes are required.

D.

HSRP is used for faliover.

Full Access
Question # 143

What is a difference between DMVPN and sVTI?

A.

DMVPN supports tunnel encryption, whereas sVTI does not.

B.

DMVPN supports dynamic tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

C.

DMVPN supports static tunnel establishment, whereas sVTI does not.

D.

DMVPN provides interoperability with other vendors, whereas sVTI does not.

Full Access
Question # 144

When a Cisco Secure Web Appliance checks a web request, what occurs if it is unable to match a user-defined policy?

A.

It applies the next identification profile policy.

B.

It applies the advanced policy.

C.

It applies the global policy.

D.

It blocks the request.

Full Access
Question # 145

What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the central code repository are merged and synchronized?

A.

CD

B.

EP

C.

CI

D.

QA

Full Access
Question # 146

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

A.

RBAC

B.

ETHOS detection engine

C.

SPERO detection engine

D.

TETRA detection engine

Full Access
Question # 147

An engineer is implementing Cisco CES in an existing Microsoft Office 365 environment and must route inbound email to Cisco CE.. record must be modified to accomplish this task?

A.

CNAME

B.

MX

C.

SPF

D.

DKIM

Full Access
Question # 148

An organization deploys multiple Cisco FTD appliances and wants to manage them using one centralized

solution. The organization does not have a local VM but does have existing Cisco ASAs that must migrate over

to Cisco FTDs. Which solution meets the needs of the organization?

A.

Cisco FMC

B.

CSM

C.

Cisco FDM

D.

CDO

Full Access
Question # 149

What is the difference between Cross-site Scripting and SQL Injection, attacks?

A.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is injected into a database, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is injected into a browser.

B.

Cross-site Scripting is a brute force attack targeting remote sites, whereas SQL Injection is a socialengineering attack.

C.

Cross-site Scripting is when executives in a corporation are attacked, whereas SQL Injection is when adatabase is manipulated.

D.

Cross-site Scripting is an attack where code is executed from the server side, whereas SQL Injection is an attack where code is executed from the client side.

Full Access
Question # 150

Which two probes are configured to gather attributes of connected endpoints using Cisco Identity Services

Engine? (Choose two)

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

DHCP

D.

sFlow

E.

SMTP

Full Access
Question # 151

What is the purpose of joining Cisco WSAs to an appliance group?

A.

All WSAs in the group can view file analysis results.

B.

The group supports improved redundancy

C.

It supports cluster operations to expedite the malware analysis process.

D.

It simplifies the task of patching multiple appliances.

Full Access
Question # 152

Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

A.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it

B.

With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

C.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

D.

With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of theproduct, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.

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Question # 153

An engineer is configuring Cisco WSA and needs to deploy it in transparent mode. Which configuration component must be used to accomplish this goal?

A.

MDA on the router

B.

PBR on Cisco WSA

C.

WCCP on switch

D.

DNS resolution on Cisco WSA

Full Access
Question # 154

Which two deployment model configurations are supported for Cisco FTDv in AWS? (Choose two)

A.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by an FMCv installed in AWS

B.

Cisco FTDv with one management interface and two traffic interfaces configured

C.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and managed by a physical FMC appliance on premises

D.

Cisco FTDv with two management interfaces and one traffic interface configured

E.

Cisco FTDv configured in routed mode and IPv6 configured

Full Access
Question # 155

A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on

four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further

violations? (Choose two)

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

802.1AE MacSec

C.

Port security

D.

IP Device track

E.

Dynamic ARP inspection

F.

Private VLANs

Full Access
Question # 156

What features does Cisco FTDv provide over ASAv?

A.

Cisco FTDv runs on VMWare while ASAv does not

B.

Cisco FTDv provides 1GB of firewall throughput while Cisco ASAv does not

C.

Cisco FTDv runs on AWS while ASAv does not

D.

Cisco FTDv supports URL filtering while ASAv does not

Full Access
Question # 157

A network engineer is deciding whether to use stateful or stateless failover when configuring two ASAs for high availability. What is the connection status in both cases?

A.

need to be reestablished with stateful failover and preserved with stateless failover

B.

preserved with stateful failover and need to be reestablished with stateless failover

C.

preserved with both stateful and stateless failover

D.

need to be reestablished with both stateful and stateless failover

Full Access
Question # 158

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

A.

Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting

B.

Tetra Engine to detect malware when me endpoint is connected to the cloud

C.

Clam AV Engine to perform email scanning

D.

Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis

Full Access
Question # 159

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TFTP

D.

NctFlow

Full Access
Question # 160

What is a characteristic of Dynamic ARP Inspection?

A.

DAI determines the validity of an ARP packet based on valid IP to MAC address bindings from the DHCPsnooping binding database.

B.

In a typical network, make all ports as trusted except for the ports connecting to switches, which areuntrusted

C.

DAI associates a trust state with each switch.

D.

DAI intercepts all ARP requests and responses on trusted ports only.

Full Access
Question # 161

Which two key and block sizes are valid for AES? (Choose two)

A.

64-bit block size, 112-bit key length

B.

64-bit block size, 168-bit key length

C.

128-bit block size, 192-bit key length

D.

128-bit block size, 256-bit key length

E.

192-bit block size, 256-bit key length

Full Access
Question # 162

What are the two most commonly used authentication factors in multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

A.

biometric factor

B.

time factor

C.

confidentiality factor

D.

knowledge factor

E.

encryption factor

Full Access
Question # 163

Which suspicious pattern enables the Cisco Tetration platform to learn the normal behavior of users?

A.

file access from a different user

B.

interesting file access

C.

user login suspicious behavior

D.

privilege escalation

Full Access
Question # 164

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint loC feature?

A.

It provides stealth threat prevention.

B.

lt is a signature-based engine.

C.

lt is an incident response tool

D.

It provides precompromise detection.

Full Access
Question # 165

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

Full Access
Question # 166

Which deployment model is the most secure when considering risks to cloud adoption?

A.

Public Cloud

B.

Hybrid Cloud

C.

Community Cloud

D.

Private Cloud

Full Access
Question # 167

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

Full Access
Question # 168

What is the difference between EPP and EDR?

A.

EPP focuses primarily on threats that have evaded front-line defenses that entered the environment.

B.

Having an EPP solution allows an engineer to detect, investigate, and remediate modern threats.

C.

EDR focuses solely on prevention at the perimeter.

D.

Having an EDR solution gives an engineer the capability to flag offending files at the first sign of malicious behavior.

Full Access
Question # 169

Which algorithm provides encryption and authentication for data plane communication?

A.

AES-GCM

B.

SHA-96

C.

AES-256

D.

SHA-384

Full Access
Question # 170

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco ISE with a MDM solution?

A.

It provides compliance checks for access to the network

B.

It provides the ability to update other applications on the mobile device

C.

It provides the ability to add applications to the mobile device through Cisco ISE

D.

It provides network device administration access

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Question # 171

Based on the NIST 800-145 guide, which cloud architecture may be owned, managed, and operated by one or more of the organizations in the community, a third party, or some combination of them, and it may exist on or off premises?

A.

hybrid cloud

B.

private cloud

C.

public cloud

D.

community cloud

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Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length of the domain name and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

A.

W32/AutoRun worm

B.

HeartBleed SSL Bug

C.

Spectre Worm

D.

Eternal Blue Windows

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Question # 173

Which Cisco platform processes behavior baselines, monitors for deviations, and reviews for malicious processes in data center traffic and servers while performing software vulnerability detection?

A.

Cisco Tetration

B.

Cisco ISE

C.

Cisco AMP for Network

D.

Cisco AnyConnect

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Question # 174

Which two methods must be used to add switches into the fabric so that administrators can control how switches are added into DCNM for private cloud management? (Choose two.)

A.

Cisco Cloud Director

B.

Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C.

PowerOn Auto Provisioning

D.

Seed IP

E.

CDP AutoDiscovery

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Question # 175

Which statement describes a traffic profile on a Cisco Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

A.

It allows traffic if it does not meet the profile.

B.

It defines a traffic baseline for traffic anomaly deduction.

C.

It inspects hosts that meet the profile with more intrusion rules.

D.

It blocks traffic if it does not meet the profile.

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Question # 176

What is the role of an endpoint in protecting a user from a phishing attack?

A.

Use Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco ISE Integration.

B.

Utilize 802.1X network security to ensure unauthorized access to resources.

C.

Use machine learning models to help identify anomalies and determine expected sending behavior.

D.

Ensure that antivirus and anti malware software is up to date

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Question # 177

A Cisco ISE engineer configures Central Web Authentication (CWA) for wireless guest access and must have the guest endpoints redirect to the guest portal for authentication and authorization. While testing the policy, the engineer notices that the device is not redirected and instead gets full guest access. What must be done for the redirect to work?

A.

Tag the guest portal in the CWA part of the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

B.

Use the track movement option within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

C.

Create an advanced attribute setting of Cisco:cisco-gateway-id=guest within the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

D.

Add the DACL name for the Airespace ACL configured on the WLC in the Common Tasks section of the authorization profile for the authorization policy line that the unauthenticated devices hit.

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Question # 178

What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

A.

ASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed.

B.

It cannot take actions such as blocking traffic.

C.

It is out-of-band from traffic.

D.

It must have inline interface pairs configured.

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Question # 179

Which solution allows an administrator to provision, monitor, and secure mobile devices on Windows and Mac computers from a centralized dashboard?

A.

Cisco Umbrella

B.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

C.

Cisco ISE

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

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Question # 180

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of using this authentication protocol in the configuration?

A.

The authentication request contains only a username.

B.

The authentication request contains only a password.

C.

There are separate authentication and authorization request packets.

D.

The authentication and authorization requests are grouped in a single packet.

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Question # 181

On Cisco Firepower Management Center, which policy is used to collect health modules alerts from managed

devices?

A.

health policy

B.

system policy

C.

correlation policy

D.

access control policy

E.

health awareness policy

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Question # 182

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZ_inside zone once the configuration is deployed?

A.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection.

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not.

C.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted.

D.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection.

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Question # 183

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

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Question # 184

Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?

A.

username and password

B.

encryption method

C.

device serial number

D.

registration key

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Question # 185

How does Cisco Secure Endpoint provide next-generation protection?

A.

It integrates with Cisco FTD devices.

B.

It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware.

C.

It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response.

D.

It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Secure Endpoint to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers.

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Question # 186

Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

A.

DMZ multiple zone mode

B.

transparent firewall mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

routed mode

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Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit,

which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?

A.

debug crypto isakmp

B.

debug crypto ipsec endpoint

C.

debug crypto Ipsec

D.

debug crypto isakmp connection

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Question # 188

Which Cisco firewall solution supports configuration via Cisco Policy Language?

A.

CBAC

B.

ZFW

C.

IPS

D.

NGFW

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Question # 189

What is a characteristic of an EDR solution and not of an EPP solution?

A.

stops all ransomware attacks

B.

retrospective analysis

C.

decrypts SSL traffic for better visibility

D.

performs signature-based detection

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Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure a Cisco router to send traps using SNMPv3. The engineer configures a remote user to receive traps and sets the security level to use authentication without privacy. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthno remoteuser config

B.

snmp-server host 10.12.8.4 informs version 3 noauthnoPriv remoteuser config

C.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1

D.

snmp-server user TrapUser group2 remote 10.12.8.4 v3 auth md5 password1 priv access des56

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Question # 191

A security engineer must add destinations into a destination list in Cisco Umbrella. What describes the application of these changes?

A.

The changes are applied immediately it the destination list is part or a policy.

B.

The destination list must be removed from the policy before changes are made to It.

C.

The changes are applied only after the configuration is saved in Cisco Umbrella.

D.

The user role of Block Page Bypass or higher is needed to perform these changes.

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Question # 192

Which VPN technology can support a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

A.

SSL VPN

B.

GET VPN

C.

FlexVPN

D.

DMVPN

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Question # 193

Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?

A.

dot1x system-auth-control

B.

dot1x pae authenticator

C.

authentication port-control aut

D.

aaa new-model

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Question # 194

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

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Question # 195

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

B.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

C.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

D.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

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Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of this Python script of the Cisco DNA Center API?

A.

adds authentication to a switch

B.

adds a switch to Cisco DNA Center

C.

receives information about a switch

D.

deletes a switch from Cisco DNA Center

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Question # 197

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast

packets have been flooding the network. What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to

address this issue?

A.

Bridge Protocol Data Unit guard

B.

embedded event monitoring

C.

storm control

D.

access control lists

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Question # 198

When web policies are configured in Cisco Umbrella, what provides the ability to ensure that domains are blocked when they host malware, command and control, phishing, and more threats?

A.

Application Control

B.

Security Category Blocking

C.

Content Category Blocking

D.

File Analysis

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Question # 199

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

A.

Integration

B.

Intent

C.

Event

D.

Multivendor

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Question # 200

Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based?

(Choose two)

A.

URLs

B.

protocol IDs

C.

IP addresses

D.

MAC addresses

E.

port numbers

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Question # 201

A Cisco Secure Email Gateway network administrator has been tasked to use a newly installed service to help create policy based on the reputation verdict. During testing, it is discovered that the Secure Email Gateway is not dropping files that have an undetermined verdict. What is causing this issue?

A.

The file has a reputation score that is below the threshold.

B.

The file has a reputation score that is above the threshold.

C.

The policy was created to disable file analysis.

D.

The policy was created to send a message to quarantine instead of drop.

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Question # 202

What are two things to consider when using PAC files with the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

If the WSA host port is changed, the default port redirects web traffic to the correct port automatically.

B.

PAC files use if-else statements to determine whether to use a proxy or a direct connection for traffic between the PC and the host.

C.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 9001 by default.

D.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 6001 by default.

E.

By default, they direct traffic through a proxy when the PC and the host are on the same subnet.

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Question # 203

What is provided by the Secure Hash Algorithm in a VPN?

A.

integrity

B.

key exchange

C.

encryption

D.

authentication

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Question # 204

What is a description of microsegmentation?

A.

Environments deploy a container orchestration platform, such as Kubernetes, to manage the application delivery.

B.

Environments apply a zero-trust model and specify how applications on different servers or containers can communicate.

C.

Environments deploy centrally managed host-based firewall rules on each server or container.

D.

Environments implement private VLAN segmentation to group servers with similar applications.

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Question # 205

Refer to the exhibit.

Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length off the domain name

and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which

observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

A.

Spectre Worm

B.

Eternal Blue Windows

C.

Heartbleed SSL Bug

D.

W32/AutoRun worm

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Question # 206

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

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Question # 207

An administrator configures a Cisco WSA to receive redirected traffic over ports 80 and 443. The organization requires that a network device with specific WSA integration capabilities be configured to send the traffic to the WSA to proxy the requests and increase visibility, while making this invisible to the users. What must be done on the Cisco WSA to support these requirements?

A.

Configure transparent traffic redirection using WCCP in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

B.

Configure active traffic redirection using WPAD in the Cisco WSA and on the network device

C.

Use the Layer 4 setting in the Cisco WSA to receive explicit forward requests from the network device

D.

Use PAC keys to allow only the required network devices to send the traffic to the Cisco WSA

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Question # 208

What are two reasons for implementing a multifactor authentication solution such as Duo Security provide to an

organization? (Choose two)

A.

flexibility of different methods of 2FA such as phone callbacks, SMS passcodes, and push notifications

B.

single sign-on access to on-premises and cloud applications

C.

integration with 802.1x security using native Microsoft Windows supplicant

D.

secure access to on-premises and cloud applications

E.

identification and correction of application vulnerabilities before allowing access to resources

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Question # 209

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

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Question # 210

What is the primary difference between an Endpoint Protection Platform and an Endpoint Detection and

Response?

A.

EPP focuses on prevention, and EDR focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

B.

EDR focuses on prevention, and EPP focuses on advanced threats that evade perimeter defenses.

C.

EPP focuses on network security, and EDR focuses on device security.

D.

EDR focuses on network security, and EPP focuses on device security.

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Question # 211

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

A.

To issue and revoke digital certificates

B.

To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C.

To create the private key for a digital certificate

D.

To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

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Question # 212

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

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Question # 213

Cisco SensorBase gaihers threat information from a variety of Cisco products and services and performs analytics to find patterns on threats Which term describes this process?

A.

deployment

B.

consumption

C.

authoring

D.

sharing

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Question # 214

Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

A.

File Analysis

B.

SafeSearch

C.

SSL Decryption

D.

Destination Lists

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Question # 215

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition?

A.

CBAC

B.

Cisco AMP

C.

ZBFW

D.

Cisco ASA

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Question # 216

Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

6

D.

31

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Question # 217

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a

recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

A.

SAT

B.

BAT

C.

HAT

D.

RAT

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