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350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (350-401 ENCOR) Question and Answers

Question # 4

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Question # 5

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Question # 6

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Question # 7

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Question # 8

Why is a Type 1 hypervisor more efficient than a Type 2 hypervisor?

A.

Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques.

B.

Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS.

C.

Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it.

D.

Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources.

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Question # 9

An engineer is implementing a new SSID on a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series WLC that must be broadcast on 6 GHz radios. Users will be required to use EAP-TLS to authenticate. Which wireless Layer 2 security method is required?

A.

WPA3 Personal

B.

WPA3 Enterprise

C.

WPA3 Enterprise

D.

WPA2 Personal

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Question # 10

Which unit of measure is used to measure wireless RF SNR?

A.

mw

B.

dbm

C.

db

D.

dBi

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit. What is output by this code?

A.

012345

B.

(0.5)

C.

05

D.

01234

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Question # 12

What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO_CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process?

A.

broadcast discover request

B.

join request to all the WLCs

C.

unicast discovery request to each WLC

D.

Unicast discovery request to the first WLS that resolves the domain name

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Question # 13

What is a benefit of implementing stateful switchover?

A.

modularity

B.

resiliency

C.

flexibilityD scalability

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Question # 14

An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure?

A.

HSRPv1

B.

GLBP

C.

VRRP

D.

HSRPv2

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Question # 15

What are two benefits of using Cisco TrustSec? (Choose two.)

A.

unknown file analysis using sandboxing

B.

advanced endpoint protection against malware

C.

end-to-end traffic encryption

D.

simplified management of network access

E.

consistent network segmentation

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Question # 16

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct a request that configures a deny rule on an access list?

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Question # 17

Which characteristic applies to a traditional WAN solution but not to a Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN solution?

A.

Centralized reachability, security, and application policies

B.

Time-consuming configuration and maintenance

C.

Low complexity and increased overall solution scale

D.

Operates over DTLS/TLS-authenticated and secured tunnels

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Question # 18

What is one characteristic of an AP that is operating in Mobility Express mode?

A.

It is recommended for large scale deployments.

B.

It requires a centralized WLC.

C.

At least three APs are needed for WLC redundancy.

D.

It requires an AP to act as a WLC.

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Question # 19

What is a Type 1 hypervisor?

A.

runs directly on a physical server and depends on a previously installed operating system

B.

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.

runs on a virtual server and depends on an already installed operating system

D.

run on a virtual server and includes its own operating system.

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Question # 20

What is a characteristic of Layer 3 roaming?

A.

Clients must obtain a new IP address when they roam between APs.

B.

It provides seamless roaming between APs that are connected to different Layer 3 networks and different mobility groups.

C.

It is only supported on controllers that run SSO.

D.

It provides seamless client roaming between APs in different Layer 3 networks but within the same mobility group.

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Question # 21

Which AP mode allows a supported AP to function like a WLAN client would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues?

A.

SE-connect mode

B.

sensor mode

C.

client mode

D.

sniffer mode

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Question # 22

Why would an architect use an OSPF virtual link?

A.

to allow a stub area to transit another stub area

B.

to merge two existing Area 0s through a nonbackbone

C.

to connect two networks that have overlapping private IP address space

D.

to connect a nonbackbone area to Area 0 through another nonbackbone area

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Question # 23

Which two characteristics apply to Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.)

A.

They are widely available to license for free.

B.

They provide a platform for running bare metal operating systems.

C.

They can be used to create and manage virtual storage

D.

They are a software layer that runs on top of a virtual server.

E.

They provide a platform for running guest operating systems.

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit. What is the output of this code?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 25

In a Cisco Mobility Express wireless deployment, which AP takes over if the primary AP fails?

A.

AP with highest IP address

B.

AP with the lowest IP address

C.

AP with highest MAC address

D.

AP with highest controller up time

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Question # 26

An engineer is reviewing a PCAP file that contains a packet capture of a four-way handshake exchange between a dient and AP using WPA2 Enterprise Which EAPOL message validates and confirms that the client device has successfully Installed the GTK?

A.

M4-Message

B.

M3-Message

C.

M2-Message

D.

M1-Message

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Question # 27

When using a Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series WLC, which tag/profile can be applied to APs to change the mode to FlexConnect in a specific location?

A.

policy tag

B.

site tag

C.

AP join profile

D.

flex profile

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Question # 28

Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two)

A.

PULL

B.

ADD

C.

HEAD

D.

REMOVE

E.

GET

F.

PUSH

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Question # 29

What is a client who is using 802.1x for authentication referred to as?

A.

authenticator

B.

policy enforcement point

C.

NAC device

D.

supplicant

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Question # 30

Which characteristics applies to Cisco SD-Access?

A.

It uses dynamic routing to discover and provision the border and edge switches

B.

It uses VXLAN for the control plane

C.

It uses PnP to discover and provision border and access switches

D.

It uses GRE tor me policy plane

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Question # 31

What is one characteristic of Cisco SD-Access networks?

A.

Devices are assigned to virtual networks based on their VLAN membership.

B.

Scalable group tags are used for macrosegmentatlon.

C.

Virtual networks are used for microsegmentation.

D.

All traffic is Layer 3 within the fabric.

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Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit An engineer is troubleshooting an issue with non-Wi-Fi interference on the 5-GHz band The engineer has enabled Cisco CleanAir and set the appropriate traps, but the AP does not change the channel when it detects significant interference Which action will resolve the issue?

A.

Enable the Avoid Persistent Non-WiFi Interference option

B.

Disable the Avoid Foreign AP Interference option.

C.

Change the DCA Sensitivity option to High

D.

Enable the Event Driven Radio Resource Management option

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Question # 33

When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem?

A.

Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name.

B.

All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual Interface IP address.

C.

Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address.

D.

All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name

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Question # 34

What is used by vManage to interact withCiscoSD-WAN devices in the fabric?

A.

northbound API

B.

RESTCONF

C.

Southbound API

D.

IPsec

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Question # 35

What is the intent API in Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly DNA Center)?

A.

northbound consumer-facing RESTful API, which enables network discovery and configuration management

B.

southbound consumer-facing RESTful API. which enables network discovery and configuration management

C.

interface between the controller and the network devices, which enables network discovery and configuration management

D.

westbound interface, which allows the exchange of data such as ITSM. IPAM, and reporting information

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Question # 36

Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

A.

containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning

B.

firewalling and intrusion prevention

C.

container-based agents

D.

cloud analysts and endpoint firewall controls

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Question # 37

Which two nodes comprise a collapsed core in a two-tier Cisco SD-Access design? (Choose two.)

A.

edge nodes

B.

distribution nodes

C.

extended nodes

D.

core nodes

E.

border nodes

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Question # 38

What is the VXLAN network identifier used to identify?

A.

network tunnel interface

B.

IP subnet

C.

virtual tunnel endpoint

D.

broadcast domain

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Question # 39

What is the name of the numerical relationship of the wireless signal compared to the noise floor?

A.

SNR

B.

RSSI

C.

EIRP

D.

gain

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Question # 40

What is the primary responsibility of the vBond orchestrator?

A.

to provide centralized management and provisioning of all elements into the network

B.

to configure NAT communication on WAN Edge routers

C.

to provide configuration synchronization of an WAN Edge devices

D.

to facilitate start-up by performing authentication and authorization of all elements into the network

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Question # 41

Which tool is used in Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly DNA Center) to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on devices with similar network settings?

A.

Authentication Template

B.

Template Editor

C.

Application Policies

D.

Command Runner

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Question # 42

What are two characteristics of a directional antenna? (Choose two.)

A.

high gain

B.

receive signals equally from all directions

C.

commonly used to cover large areas

D.

provides the most focused and narrow beam width

E.

low gain

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Question # 43

What does Cisco Cyber Threat Defense provide visibility into?

A.

security threats based on log messages and telemetry information

B.

user stored data and internal dependencies for the user ' s running programs

C.

network software vulnerabilities through continuous scan probes in the network

D.

command and control traffic on the communication channel between compromised hosts and attackers

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Question # 44

Which security mechanism is offered on a next-generation firewall but not on a traditional firewall?

A.

integrated IPS

B.

stateful firewall policies

C.

SSL VPN

D.

NAT

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Question # 45

Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 46

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A.

event manager applet boomevent syslog pattern ' UP ' action 1.0 gets ' logging directly to console '

B.

event manager applet boomevent syslog pattern ' UP ' action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg ' log directly to console '

C.

event manager applet boomevent syslog pattern ' UP ' action 1.0 puts ' logging directly to console '

D.

event manager applet boomevent syslog pattern ' UP ' action 1.0 string ' logging directly to console '

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Question # 47

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A.

An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectively as the client is associated with the new AP.

B.

The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C.

The new controller assign an IP address from the new subnet to the client.

D.

The client database on the original controller is updated with the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

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Question # 48

An engineer must configure a new WLAN that supports 802.11r and requires users to enter a passphrase. What must be configured to support this requirement?

A.

802.1XandSUITEB-1X

B.

FT PSK and Fast Transition

C.

802.1X and Fast Transition

D.

FTPSKandSUITEB-1X

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Question # 49

An engineer must create an EEM script to enable OSPF debugging in the event the OSPF neighborship goes down. Which script must the engineer apply?

A.

event manager applet ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUGevent syslog pattern " %OSPF-1-ADJCHG: Process 5. Nbr 1.1.1.1 on SerialO/0 from FULL to DOWN " action 1.0 cli command " debug ip ospf event " action 2.0 cli command " debug ip ospf adj " action 3.0 syslog priority informational msg " ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUG

B.

event manager applet ENABLEOSPFDEBUGevent syslog pattern " %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 5, Nbr 1.1.1.1 on SerialO/0 from LOADING to FULL " action 1.0 cli command " debug ip ospf event " action 2.0 cli command " debug ip ospf adj " action 3.0 syslog priority informational msg " ENABLE JDSPF_DEBUG "

C.

event manager apple! ENABLE OSPFDEBUGevent syslog pattern " %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 5. Nbr 1.1.1.1 on SerialO/0 from LOADING to FULL " action 1.0 cli command " enable " action 2.0 cli command " debug ip ospf event " action 3.0 cli command " debug ip ospf adj " action 4.0 syslog priority informational msg " ENABLE_OSPFJ} EBUG "

D.

event manager applet ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUGevent syslog pattern " %OSPF-5-ADJCHG: Process 6. Nbr 1.1.1.1 on SerialO/0 from FULL to DOWN " action 1.0 cli command " enable " action 2.0 cli command " debug ip ospf event " action 3.0 cli command " debug ip ospf adj " action 4.0 syslog priority informational msg " ENABLE_OSPF_DEBUG ' *

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Question # 50

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 51

Which characteristic applies to the Cisco SD-Access solution?

A.

Dynamic routing is used to discover and provision border and edge switches.

B.

The control plane is based on VXLAN.

C.

The data plane is based on VXLAN.

D.

GRE is used as the policy plane.

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Question # 52

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

A.

It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.

B.

It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.

C.

It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.

D.

It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.

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Question # 53

Drag and drop the configuration management tools from the left onto the configuration styles they use on the right

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Question # 54

Which protocol is used by vmanage to push centralized policies to vsmart controllers?

A.

NETCONF

B.

TLS

C.

STUN

D.

OMP

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Question # 55

Drag and drop the characteristics of Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN from the left onto the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 56

Which WLC discovery method uses CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER as an identifier?

A.

static configuration

B.

DHCP

C.

L3 broadcast

D.

DNS

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Question # 57

What is the purpose of data modeling languages?

A.

to describe a data schema convertible into any data encoding format

B.

to specify algorithms necessary to decode binary-encoded protocol data units

C.

to translate encoded data for interoperability between different CPU architectures

D.

to provide a framework to describe data flow patterns in networks

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Question # 58

Which characteristic applies to Cisco SD-Access?

A.

It uses dynamic routing the discover and provision access switches.

B.

It uses VXLAN for the control plane

C.

It uses VXLAN for the data plane

D.

It uses dynamic routing to discover and provision border switches

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Question # 59

Which access control feature does MAB provide?

A.

user access based on IP addressB slows devices to bypass authentication

B.

network access based on the physical address of a device

C.

simultaneous user and device authentication

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Question # 60

Which action reduces sticky clients in dense RF environments?

A.

Decrease radio channel widths to 40 MHz.

B.

Increase the mandatory minimum data rates.

C.

Decrease the mandatory minimum data rates.

D.

Increase radio channel widths to 160 MHz.

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Question # 61

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A.

Passive

B.

Tap

C.

Inline tap

D.

Inline

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Question # 62

Which design principle states that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

A.

economy of mechanism

B.

fail-safe defaults

C.

complete mediation

D.

least privilege

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Question # 63

What is a consideration when designing a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

A.

End user subnets and endpoints are part of the underlay network.

B.

The underlay switches provide endpoint physical connectivity for users.

C.

Static routing is a requirement.

D.

It must support IPv4 and IPv6 underlay networks.

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Question # 64

Refer to the exhibit. What does this code achieve?!

A.

It generates a list containing only the hostname of the LLDP neighbor.

B.

It generates a list of the LLDP neighbors and their capabilities

C.

It generates a list of routers with the Repeater capability.

D.

It generates a count of the LLDP neighbors.

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Question # 65

In a high-density AP environment, which feature can be used to reduce the RF cell size and not demodulate radio packets above a given threshold?

A.

RX-SOP

B.

FRA

C.

80211k

D.

RRM

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Question # 66

Which solution simplifies management of secure access to network resources?

A.

TrustSec to logically group internal user environments and assign policies

B.

ISE to automate network access control leveraging RADIUS AV pairs

C.

RFC 3580-based solution to enable authenticated access leveraging RADIUS and AV pairs

D.

802.1AE to secure communication in the network domain

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Question # 67

A network administrator prepares to deploy a new software-defined fabric across campuses. What is needed to ensure success for the overall design?

A.

A fully meshed Layer 2 topology

B.

A fully meshed Layer 3 topology

C.

A point-to-point Layer 3 underlay network with jumbo frames enabled

D.

A point-to-point Layer 2 network with LACP between devices for redundancy

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Question # 68

A customer requests a design that includes GLBP as the FHRP. The network architect discovers that the members of the GLBP group have different throughput capabilities. Which GLBP load balancing method supports this environment?  

A.

host dependent  

B.

weighted

C.

least connection

D.

round robin

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Question # 69

Which feature is used to propagate ARP. broadcast, and link-local frames across a Cisco SD-Access fabric to address connectivity needs for silent hosts that require reception of traffic to start communicating?

A.

Native Fabric Multicast

B.

Layer 2 Flooding

C.

SDA Transit

D.

Multisite Fabric

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Question # 70

Which character formatting is required for DHCP Option 43 to function with current AP models?

A.

ASCII

B.

Hex

C.

Base64

D.

MD5

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Question # 71

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

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Question # 72

Which characteristic applies to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture?

A.

detect and block ransomware in email attachments

B.

cloud-based analysis of threats

C.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

D.

user context analysis

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Question # 73

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Question # 74

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Question # 93

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Question # 94

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