Labour Day Sale - Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: mxmas70

Home > Cisco > CCNP Enterprise > 350-401

350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be implemented to establish EBGP peering between R1 and R2?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 5

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer checks connectivity between two routers. The engineer can ping the remote endpoint but cannot see an ARP entry. Why is there no ARP entry?

A.

The ping command must be executed in the global routing table.

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/0 Is configured in VRF CUST-A, so the ARP entry is also in that VRF.

C.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol must be enabled In each VRF.

D.

When VRFs are used. ARP protocol is disabled in the global routing table.

Full Access
Question # 6

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must load balance traffic that comes from the NAT Router and is destined to 10.10.110.10, to several FTP servers. Which two commands sets should be applied? (Choose two).

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 7

What is a characteristic of the overlay network in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A.

It uses a traditional routed access design to provide performance and high availability to the network.

B.

It consists of a group of physical routers and switches that are used to maintain the network.

C.

It provides isolation among the virtual networks and independence from the physical network.

D.

It provides multicast support to enable Layer 2 Hooding capability in the underlay network.

Full Access
Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 9

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the technology types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 10

Which two characteristics apply to the endpoint security aspect of the Cisco Threat Defense architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

detect and black ransomware in email attachments

B.

outbound URL analysis and data transfer controls

C.

user context analysis

D.

blocking of fileless malware in real time

E.

cloud-based analysis of threats

Full Access
Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer entered the command no spanning-tree bpduguard enable on interface Fa 1/0/7. What is the effect of this command on Fa 1/0/7?

A.

It remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

B.

It remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause failed-port-state command is entered in the global configuration mode.

C.

It remains in err-disabled state until the no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

D.

It remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode.

Full Access
Question # 12

Drag anti drop the characteristics from the ten onto the configuration models on the right.

Full Access
Question # 13

Which option must be used to support a WLC with an IPv6 management address and 100 Cisco Aironet 2800 Series access points that will use DHCP to register?

A.

43

B.

52

C.

60

D.

82

Full Access
Question # 14

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

applications

B.

disk

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Full Access
Question # 15

Which benefit is provided by the Cisco DNA Center telemetry feature?

A.

provides improved network security

B.

inventories network devices

C.

aids In the deployment network configurations

D.

improves the user experience

Full Access
Question # 16

What is one main REST security design principle?

A.

separation of privilege

B.

password hashing

C.

confidential algorithms

D.

OAuth

Full Access
Question # 17

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left to the table types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 18

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of introducing the sampler feature into the Flexible NetFlow configuration on the router?

A.

NetFlow updates to the collector are sent 50% less frequently.

B.

Every second IPv4 packet is forwarded to the collector for inspection.

C.

CPU and memory utilization are reduced when compared with what is required for full NetFlow.

D.

The resolution of sampling data increases, but it requires more performance from the router.

Full Access
Question # 20

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must allow R1 to advertise the 192 168.1 0/24 network to R2 R1 must perform this action without sending OSPF packets to SW1 Which command set should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 21

What is an OVF?

A.

a package that is similar to an IMG and that contains an OVA file used to build a virtual machine

B.

an alternative form of an ISO that Is used to install the base operating system of a virtual machine

C.

the third step in a P2V migration

D.

a package of files that is used to describe a virtual machine or virtual appliance

Full Access
Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configured RSPAN to troubleshoot an issue between switch1 and switch2. The switches are connected using interface GigabitEthernet 1/1. An external packet capture device is connected is switch2 interface GigabitEthernet 1/2. Which two commands must be added to complete this configuration? (Choose two)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 23

If the maximum power level assignment for global TPC 802.11a/n/ac is configured to 10 dBm, which power level effectively doubles the transmit power?

A.

13dBm

B.

14 dBm

C.

17dBm

D.

20 dBm

Full Access
Question # 24

A system must validate access rights to all its resources and must not rely on a cached permission matrix. If the access level to a given resource is revoked but is not reflected in the permission matrix, the security is violated. Which term refers to this REST security design principle?

A.

economy of mechanism

B.

complete mediation

C.

separation of privilege

D.

least common mechanism

Full Access
Question # 25

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings?

A.

fabric control plane node

B.

fabric wireless controller

C.

fabric border node

D.

fabric edge node

Full Access
Question # 26

Which Cisco FlexConnect state allows wireless users that are connected to the network to continue working after the connection to the WLC has been lost?

A.

Authentication Down/Switching Down

B.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Local

C.

Authentication- Down/Switch-Local

D.

Authentication-Central/Switch-Central

Full Access
Question # 27

What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A.

EIRP

B.

mW

C.

dBm

D.

dBi

Full Access
Question # 28

A company requires a wireless solution to support its mam office and multiple branch locations. All sites have local Internet connections and a link to the main office lor corporate connectivity. The branch offices are managed centrally. Which solution should the company choose?

A.

Cisco United Wireless Network

B.

Cisco DNA Spaces

C.

Cisco Catalyst switch with embedded controller

D.

Cisco Mobility Express

Full Access
Question # 29

Which protocol is responsible for data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A.

VXLAN

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

LISP

Full Access
Question # 30

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

A.

thee emote spine

B.

the next hop

C.

the leaf switch

D.

the remote switch

Full Access
Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must allow the FTP traffic from users on 172.16.1.0 /24 to 172.16.2.0 /24 and block all other traffic. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 32

What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A.

It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric

B.

It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric

C.

It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric

D.

It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments

Full Access
Question # 33

Which NTP mode must be activated when using a Cisco router as an NTP authoritative server?

A.

primary

B.

server

C.

broadcast client

D.

peer

Full Access
Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit Remote users cannot access the Internet but can upload files to the storage server Which configuration must be applied to allow Internet access?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 35

Which configuration enables a device to be configured via NETCONF over SSHv2?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 36

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the script to convert a Python object into a JSON string. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 37

A company recently rearranged some users' workspaces and moved several users to different desks. The network administrator receives a report that all of the users who were moved are having connectivity issues. Which of the following is the most likely reason?

A.

Ports are error disabled.

B.

Ports are administratively down.

C.

Ports are having an MDIX issue.

D.

Ports are trunk ports.

Full Access
Question # 38

How is traffic classified when using Cisco TrustSec technology?

A.

with the VLAN

B.

with the MAC address

C.

with the IP address

D.

with the security group tag

Full Access
Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer deploys a script to retrieve the running configuration from a NETCONF-capable Cisco IOS XE device that is configured with default settings. The script fails. Which configuration must be applied to retrieve the configurauon using NETCONF?

A.

Print (netconf_host.get_config('show running'!)

B.

hostkey_verify=True,

C.

device_params={name':'ios-xe'})

D.

port=830

Full Access
Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an ERSPAN tunnel that mirrors traffic from linux1 on Switch1 to Linux2 on Switch2. Which command must be added to the destination configuration to enable the ERSPAN tunnel?

A.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# origin ip address 172.16.10.10

B.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 172.16.10.10

C.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# no shut

D.

(config-mon-erspan-dst-src)# erspan-id 110

Full Access
Question # 41

Which protocol infers that a YANG data model is being used?

A.

SNMP

B.

NX-API

C.

REST

D.

RESTCONF

Full Access
Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two reasons for IP SLA tracking failure? (Choose two )

A.

The destination must be 172 30 30 2 for icmp-echo

B.

A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2.

C.

The source-interface is configured incorrectly.

D.

The default route has the wrong next hop IP address

E.

The threshold value is wrong

Full Access
Question # 43

What is a characteristic of Cisco DNA Northbound APIs?

A.

They simplify the management of network infrastructure devices.

B.

They enable automation of network infrastructure based on intent.

C.

They utilize RESTCONF.

D.

They utilize multivendor support APIs.

Full Access
Question # 44

When are multicast RPs required?

A.

RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode.

B.

By default, the RP is needed penodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers.

C.

RPs are required for protocol Independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode.

D.

By default, the RP Is needed only start new sessions with sources and receivers.

Full Access
Question # 45

What is required for intercontroller Layer 3 roaming?

A.

Mobility groups are established between wireless controllers.

B.

The management VLAN is present as a dynamic VLAN on the second WLC.

C.

WLCs use separate DHCP servers.

D.

WLCs have the same IP addresses configured on their interfaces.

Full Access
Question # 46

An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 48

An engineer configures GigabitEthernet 0/1 for VRRP group 115. The router must assume the primary role when it has the highest priority in the group. Which command set is required to complete this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 49

Refer to the exhibit.

VPN-A sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-B and receives traffic only from VPN-C VPN-B sends point-to-point traffic to VPN-C and receives traffic only from VPN-A Which configuration is applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 50

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how Is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?

A.

with IP SLA

B.

ARP probing

C.

using BFD

D.

with OMP

Full Access
Question # 51

In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer?

A.

provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic

B.

provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence

C.

provide advanced network security features such as 802. IX, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security

D.

provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP

Full Access
Question # 52

Which function does a Cisco SD-Access extended node perform?

A.

provides fabric extension to nonfabric devices through remote registration and configuration

B.

performs tunneling between fabric and nonfabric devices to route traffic over unknown networks

C.

used to extend the fabric connecting to downstream nonfabric enabled Layer 2 switches

D.

in charge of establishing Layer 3 adjacencies with nonfabric unmanaged node

Full Access
Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied for the TACACS+ server to grant access-level rights to remote users?

A.

R1(config)# aaa authentication login enable

B.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default local if-authenticated

C.

R1(config)# aaa authorization exec default group tacacs+

D.

R1(config)# aaa accounting commands 15 default start-stop group tacacs+

Full Access
Question # 54

Refer to me exhibit. The NETCONF object is sent to a Cisco IOS XE switch. What is me purpose of the object?

A.

view the configuration of all GigabitEthernet interfaces.

B.

Discover the IP address of interface GigabitEthernet.

C.

Set the description of interface GigabitEthernet1 to *1*.

D.

Remove the IP address from interface GigabitEthernet1.

Full Access
Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is needed to complete the EEM applet and use the Tel script to store the backup file?

A.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl tcl"

B.

action 2.0 cli command "flash:write_backup.tcl"

C.

action 2.0 cli command "write_backup.tcl"

D.

action 2.0 cli command "telsh flash:write_backup.tcl"

Full Access
Question # 56

What is one method for achieving REST API security?

A.

using built-in protocols known as Web Services Security

B.

using a combination of XML encryption and XML signatures

C.

using a MD5 hash to verify the integrity

D.

using HTTPS and TLS encryption

Full Access
Question # 57

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to build generic configurations that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings?

A.

Command Runner

B.

Template Editor

C.

Application Policies

D.

Authentication Template

Full Access
Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has a BGP neighborship with a directly connected router on interface Gi0/0.

Which command set is applied between the iterations of show ip bgp 2.2.2.2?

A.

R1(config)#router bgp 65001

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

B.

R1(config)#router bgp 65002

R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.50.2 shutdown

C.

R1(config)#no ip route 192.168.50.2 255.255.255.255 Gi0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.255 192.168.50.2

Full Access
Question # 59

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right

Full Access
Question # 60

A technician needs to find the MAC address of a connecting router. Which of the following commands should the technician use?

A.

arp

B.

traceroute

C.

nslookup

D.

ping

Full Access
Question # 61

A customer has 20 stores located throughout a city. Each store has a single Cisco access point managed by a central WLC. The customer wants to gather analysis for users in each store. Which technique supports these requirements?

A.

angle of arrival

B.

hyperlocation

C.

trilateration

D.

presence

Full Access
Question # 62

Which security measure mitigates a man-in-the-middle attack of a REST API?

A.

SSL certificates

B.

biometric authentication

C.

password hash

D.

non repudiotion feature

Full Access
Question # 63

An engineer must configure router R1 to validate user logins via RADIUS and fall back to the local user database if the RADIUS server is not available. Which configuration must be applied?

A.

aaa authorization exec default radius local

B.

aaa authorization exec default radius

C.

aaa authentication exec default radius local

D.

aaa authentication exec default radius

Full Access
Question # 64

Refer to the exhibit. What is printed to the console when this script is run?

A.

a key-value pair in tuple type

B.

a key-value pair in list type

C.

a key-value pair in string type

D.

an error

Full Access
Question # 65

What are two characteristics of Cisco SD-Access elements? (Choose two.)

A.

The border node is required for communication between fabric and nonfabric devices.

B.

Traffic within the fabric always goes through the control plane node.

C.

Fabric endpoints are connected directly to the border node.

D.

The control plane node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

E.

The border node has the full RLOC-to-EID mapping database.

Full Access
Question # 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures a trunk between SW1 and SW2 but tagged packets are not passing. Which action fixes the issue?

A.

Configure SW1 with dynamic auto mode on interface FastEthernet0/1.

B.

Configure the native VLAN to be the same VLAN on both switches on interface FastEthernet0/1.

C.

Configure SW2 with encapsulation dot1q on interface FastEthernet0/1.

D.

Configure FastEthernet0/1 on both switches for static trunking.

Full Access
Question # 67

What is a client who is running 802.1x for authentication reffered to as?

A.

supplicant

B.

NAC device

C.

authenticator

D.

policy enforcement point

Full Access
Question # 68

Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?

A.

vBond

B.

cSmart

C.

vManage

D.

WAN Edge

Full Access
Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must create a manually triggered EEM applet to enable the R2 router interface and assign an IP address to it. What is required to complete this configuration?

A.

R2(config-applel)# event oir

B.

R2(config-apple)#action 4 cli command "ip add 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.255"

C.

R2(config)# event manager session cli username

D.

R2(config-apple)# event none sync yes

Full Access
Question # 70

An engineer is implementing a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to improve the streaming experience for the clients of a video-on-demand server. Which action must the engineer perform to configure extended discovery to support the MPLS LDP session between the headend and tailend routers?

A.

Configure the interface bandwidth to handle TCP and UDP traffic between the LDP peers

B.

Configure a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel on both ends of the session

C.

Configure an access list on the interface to permit TCP and UDP traffic

D.

Configure a targeted neighbor session.

Full Access
Question # 71

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the deployment models on the right.

Full Access
Question # 72

What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC?

A.

It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller.

B.

It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs.

C.

It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D.

It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between Itself and the primary controller.

Full Access
Question # 73

Which two items are found in YANG data models? (Choose two.)

A.

HTTP return codes

B.

rpc statements

C.

JSON schema

D.

container statements

E.

XML schema

Full Access
Question # 74

Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)

A.

MPLS EXP bits

B.

bandwidth

C.

DSCP

D.

ToS

E.

packet size

Full Access
Question # 75

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A.

uses flexible NetFlow

B.

assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C.

classifies traffic based an the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

D.

classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

Full Access
Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line, but not from show running-config. Which command completes the configuration?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator is attempting to configure an IS-IS adjacency between two routers, but the adjacency cannot be established. To troubleshoot the problem, the operator collects this debugging output. Which interfaces are misconfigured on these routers?

A.

The peer router interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the R2 interface is configured as Level 2 only

B.

The R2 interface is configured as Level 1 only, and the Peer router interface is configured as Level 2 only

C.

The R2 interface is configured as point-to-point, and the peer router interface is configured as multipoint.

D.

The peer router interface is configured as point-as-point, and the R2 interface is configured as multipoint.

Full Access
Question # 78

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure deployment models they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over Gi1/3 trunk port between DWS1 and DSW2? (Choose two)

A.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16

B.

DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3

C.

DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0

D.

DSW1(config) #interface gi1/3

E.

DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128

Full Access
Question # 80

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of these commands on the BR and HQ tunnel interfaces?

A.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 6

B.

The keepalives are sent every 5 seconds and 3 retries

C.

The keepalives are sent every 3 seconds and 5 retries

D.

The tunnel line protocol goes down when the keepalive counter reaches 5

Full Access
Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102 0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?

A.

192.168.101.18

B.

192.168.101.6

C.

192.168.101.10

D.

192.168.101.14

Full Access
Question # 82

What NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source?

A.

Stratum 0

B.

Stratum 1

C.

Stratum 14

D.

Stratum 15

Full Access
Question # 83

When is the Design workflow used In Cisco DNA Center?

A.

in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

B.

in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data

C.

in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network

D.

in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices

Full Access
Question # 84

What is a benefit of Type 1 hypervisors?

A.

Administrators are able to load portable virtual machine packages in OVA or QCOW2 formats.

B.

Network engineers are able to create virtual networks o interconnect virtual machines in Layer 2 topologies

C.

Operators are able to leverage orchestrators to manage workloads that run on multiple Type 1 hypervisors

D.

Storage engineers are able to leverage VMDK files to provide storage to virtual machine.

Full Access
Question # 85

Refer to the exhibit

Communication between London and New York is down Which to resolve this issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 86

Refer to the exhibit. Router BRDR-1 is configured to receive the 0.0.0.0/0 and 172.17.1.0/24 network via BGP and advertise them into OSPF are 0. An engineer has noticed that the OSPF domain is receiving only the 172.17.1.0/24 route and default route 0.0.0.0/0 is still missing. Which configurating must engineer apply to resolve the problem?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 87

An administrator must enable Telnet access to Router X using the router username and password database for authentication. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 88

Drag and drop characteristics of PIM dense mode from the left to the right.

Full Access
Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?

A.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0

B.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0

C.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

D.

R3(config)#router bgp 200

R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100

R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3

R4(config)#router bgp 100

R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200

R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

Full Access
Question # 90

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 91

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures OSPF and wants to verify the configuration Which configuration is applied to this device?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result when a switch that is running PVST+ is added to this network?

A.

DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+

B.

Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

C.

Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network

D.

Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode.

Full Access
Question # 93

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters.

  • The first method for authentication is TACACS
  • If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials

Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

B.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

R1#sh run | include username

R1#

C.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

password 7 0202039485748

D.

R1#sh run | include aaa

aaa new-model

aaa authentication login default group tacacs+

aaa session-id common

R1#sh run | section vty

line vty 0 4

transport input none

R1#

Full Access
Question # 94

An engineer must create an EEM applet that sends a syslog message in the event a change happens in the network due to trouble with an OSPF process. Which action should the engineer use?

A.

action 1 syslog msg "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

B.

action 1 syslog send "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

C.

action 1 syslog pattern "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

D.

action 1syslog write "OSPF ROUTING ERROR"

Full Access
Question # 95

AN engineer is implementing a route map to support redistribution within BGP. The route map must configured to permit all unmatched routes. Which action must the engineer perform to complete this task?

A.

Include a permit statement as the first entry

B.

Include at least one explicit deny statement

C.

Remove the implicit deny entry

D.

Include a permit statement as the last entry

Full Access
Question # 96

Refer to the exhibit.

A network architect has partially configured static NAT. which commands should be asked to complete the configuration?

A.

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat outside

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat inside

B.

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat outside

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat inside

C.

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat inside

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat outside

D.

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat inside

R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat outside

Full Access
Question # 97

How are map-register messages sent in a LISP deployment?

A.

egress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

B.

ingress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

C.

egress tunnel routers to map servers to determine the appropriate egress tunnel router

D.

ingress tunnel routers to map resolvers to determine the appropnate egress tunnel router

Full Access
Question # 98

Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 99

Which solution do laaS service providers use to extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network?

A.

VLAN

B.

VTEP

C.

VXLAN

D.

VRF

Full Access
Question # 100

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A.

fail-safe defaults

B.

password hash

C.

adding a timestamp in requests

D.

OAuth

Full Access
Question # 101

Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection?

A.

Omnidirectional

B.

dipole

C.

patch

D.

Yagi

Full Access
Question # 102

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer troubleshoots connectivity issues with an application. Testing is performed from the server gateway, and traffic with the DF bit set is dropped along the path after increasing packet size. Removing the DF bit setting at the gateway prevents the packets from being dropped. What is the cause of this issue?

A.

PMTUD does not work due to ICMP Packet Too Big messages being dropped by an ACL

B.

The remote router drops the traffic due to high CPU load

C.

The server should not set the DF bit in any type of traffic that is sent toward the network

D.

There is a CoPP policy in place protecting the WAN router CPU from this type of traffic

Full Access
Question # 103

Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A.

security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch

B.

security group tag number assigned to each port on a network

C.

security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D.

security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

Full Access
Question # 104

What is the process for moving a virtual machine from one host machine to another with no downtime?

A.

high availability

B.

disaster recovery

C.

live migration

D.

multisite replication

Full Access
Question # 105

Refer to the exhibit.

CR2 and CR3 ate configured with OSPF. Which configuration, when applied to CR1. allows CR1 to exchange OSPF Information with CR2 and CR3 but not with other network devices or on new Interfaces that are added to CR1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 106

What Is a Type 2 hypervisor?

A.

installed as an application on an already installed operating system

B.

runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system

C.

supports over-allocation of physical resources

D.

also referred to as a "bare metal hypervisor" because it sits directly on the physical server

Full Access
Question # 107

Which new enhancement was implemented in Wi-Fi 6?

A.

Wi-Fi Protected Access 3

B.

4096 Quadrature Amplitude Modulation Mode

C.

Channel bonding

D.

Uplink and Downlink Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access

Full Access
Question # 108

Which Python code snippet must be added to the script to save the returned configuration as a JSON-formatted file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 109

Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the web server on port 8080. To allow this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port G0/0 in the inbound direction?

A.

permit host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080

B.

permit host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080

C.

permit host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2

D.

permit host 192.168.0.5 it 8080 host 172.16.0.2

Full Access
Question # 110

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to construct a script that adds a prefix list to a route map and sets the local preference. Not all options are used

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured Cisco ISE to assign VLANs to clients based on their method of authentication, but this is not working as expected. Which action will resolve this issue?

A.

require a DHCP address assignment

B.

utilize RADIUS profiling

C.

set a NAC state

D.

enable AAA override

Full Access
Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use?

A.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state down

B.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event track 10 state unreachable

C.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state unreachable

D.

event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA

event sla 10 state down

Full Access
Question # 113

Refer to me exhibit. What is the cause of the log messages?

A.

hello packet mismatch

B.

OSPF area change

C.

MTU mismatch

D.

IP address mismatch

Full Access
Question # 114

What is the difference between CEF and process switching?

A.

CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage.

B.

CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.

C.

CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.

D.

Process switching is faster than CEF.

Full Access
Question # 115

What is used to perform OoS packet classification?

A.

the Options field in the Layer 3 header

B.

the Type field in the Layer 2 frame

C.

the Flags field in the Layer 3 header

D.

the TOS field in the Layer 3 header

Full Access
Question # 116

A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?

A.

Autonomous

B.

Mobility Express

C.

SD-Access wireless

D.

Local mode

Full Access
Question # 117

Refer the exhibit.

Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?

A.

This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B.

This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

C.

Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID

D.

Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID

Full Access
Question # 118

What is the differences between TCAM and the MAC address table?

A.

The MAC address table is contained in TCAM ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM

B.

The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match

C.

Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM.

D.

TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions CAM is used to build routing tables

Full Access
Question # 119

A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device.

What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device?

A.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked?

B.

A TACACS+server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail. a local database is checked.

C.

A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADUIS server is checked.

D.

A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked.

Full Access
Question # 120

What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server?

A.

Multiple virtual servers can be deployed on the same physical server without having to buy additional hardware.

B.

Virtual machines increase server processing performance.

C.

The CPU and RAM resources on a virtual machine cannot be affected by other virtual machines.

D.

Deploying a virtual machine is technically less complex than deploying a physical server.

Full Access
Question # 121

At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A.

EEM applets or scripts

B.

Session layer

C.

YMAL output from responses to API calls

D.

Northbound APIs

Full Access
Question # 122

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?

A.

to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric

B.

to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric

C.

to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

D.

to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric

Full Access
Question # 123

Where is radio resource management performed in a cisco SD-access wireless solution?

A.

DNA Center

B.

control plane node

C.

wireless controller

D.

Cisco CMX

Full Access
Question # 124

An engineer plans to use Python to convert text files that contain device information lo JSON. Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct the request. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 125

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of this Python code?

A.

1

B.

0

C.

7

D.

7.5

Full Access
Question # 126

What is a characteristic of a Type 2 hypervisor?

A.

It eliminates the need for an underlying operating system.

B.

Its main task is to manage hardware resources between different operating systems

C.

Problems in the base operating system can affect the entire system.

D.

It is completely independent of the operating system

Full Access
Question # 127

What is a characteristic of the Cisco DMA Center Template Editor feature?

A.

It facilitates software upgrades lo network devices from a central point.

B.

It facilitates a vulnerability assessment of the network devices.

C.

It provides a high-level overview of the health of every network device.

D.

It uses a predefined configuration through parameterized elements or variables.

Full Access
Question # 128

How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions?

A.

It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch.

B.

It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure.

C.

It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, white the routing protocol reconverges.

D.

It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device.

Full Access
Question # 129

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer issues the debug command while troubleshooting a network issue. What does the output confirm?

A.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from 1.1.1.1 destined for 10.1.1.1.

B.

ACL100 is tracking all traffic from 10.1.1.1 destined far 1.1.

C.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from 10.1.1.1 destined for 11.1.1

D.

ACL100 is tracking ICMP traffic from Serial 1/0 destined for Serial3/0.

Full Access
Question # 130

Which configuration filters out DOT1X messages in the format shown below from being sent toward Syslog server 10.15.20.33?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 131

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 30 use?

A.

00:05:0c:07:ac:30

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:1e

C.

05:0c:5e:ac:07:30

D.

00:42:18:14:05:1e

Full Access
Question # 132

What is the result when an active route processor fails that combines NSF with SSO?

A.

An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

B.

The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes.

C.

An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network.

D.

The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete.

Full Access
Question # 133

Drag and drop the tools from the left onto the agent types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 134

Which IP SLA operation requires the IP SLA responder to be configured on the remote end?

A.

TCP connect

B.

ICMP echo

C.

ICMP jitter

D.

UDP jitter

Full Access
Question # 135

What is a characteristics of Cisco SD-WAN?

A.

operates over DTLS/TLS authenticated and secured tunnels

B.

requires manual secure tunnel configuration

C.

uses unique per-device feature templates

D.

uses control connections between routers

Full Access
Question # 136

Which solution simplifies management ot secure access to network resources?

A.

RFC 3580-based solution to enable authenticated access leveraging RADIUS and AV pairs

B.

TrustSec to logically group internal user environments and assign policies

C.

802.1AE to secure communication in the network domain

D.

ISE to automate network access control leveraging RADIUS AV pairs

Full Access
Question # 137

Simulation 05

Full Access
Question # 138

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

A.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.

B.

All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center.

C.

Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect

D.

Users lose connectivity.

E.

User connectivity is unaffected.

Full Access
Question # 139

What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic?

A.

PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

B.

PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic.

C.

PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP.

D.

PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic.

Full Access
Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Both controllers are in the same mobility group. Which result occurs when client 1 roams between APs that are registered to different controllers in the same WLAN?

A.

Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel.

B.

CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B.

C.

Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A.

D.

The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B.

Full Access
Question # 141

Which authorization framework gives third-party applications limited access to HTTP services?

A.

iPsec

B.

Basic Auth

C.

GRE

D.

OAuth 2.0

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEtherenet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.

Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

B.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4

C.

Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4

D.

Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6

E.

Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 143

: 264

What is a characteristic of para-virtualization?

A.

Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor.

B.

Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed.

C.

Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another.

D.

Para-virtualization lacks support for containers.

Full Access
Question # 144

Which of the following fiber connector types is the most likely to be used on a network interface card?

A.

LC

B.

SC

C.

ST

D.

MPO

Full Access
Question # 145

When is GLBP preferred over HSRP?

A.

When encrypted helm are required between gateways h a single group.

B.

When the traffic load needs to be shared between multiple gateways using a single virtual IP.

C.

When the gateway routers are a mix of Cisco and non-Cisco routers

D.

When clients need the gateway MAC address lo Be the same between multiple gateways

Full Access
Question # 146

How is a data modelling language used?

A.

To enable data to be easily structured, grouped, validated, and replicated.

B.

To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed.

C.

To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure

D.

To provide human readability to scripting languages

Full Access
Question # 147

A network administrator for a small office is adding a passive IDS to its network switch for the purpose of inspecting network traffic. Which of the following should the administrator use?

A.

SNMPtrap

B.

Port mirroring

C.

Syslog collection

D.

API integration

Full Access
Question # 148

Simulation 02

Configure HSRP between DISTRO-SW1 and DISTRO-SW2 on VLAN 100 for hosts connected to ACCESS-SW1 to achieve these goals:

1. Configure group number 1 using the virtual IP address of 192.168.1.1/24.

2. Configure DlSTRO-SW1 as the active router using a priority value of 110 and DISTRO-SW2 as the standby router.

3. Ensure that DISTRO-SW2 will take over the active role when DISTRO-SW1 goes down, and when DISTRO-SW1 recovers, it automatically resumes the active role.

DISTRO-SW2

Full Access
Question # 149

Refer to Ihe exhibit. An engineer must update the existing configuation to achieve these resu ts:

• Only administrators from the 192.168 1.0.'?4 subnet can access the vty lines.

* Access to the vty lines using clear-text protocols is prohibited.

Which command set should be appled?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 150

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code to create an EEM script that adds an entry to a locally stored text file with a timestamp when a configuration change is made. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 151

By default, which virtual MAC address does HSRP group 22 use?

A.

c0:42:01:67:05:16

B.

c0:07:0c:ac:00:22

C.

00:00:0c:07:ac:16

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:22

Full Access
Question # 152

What is a characteristic of Cisco StackWise technology?

A.

It uses proprietary cabling

B.

It supports devices that are geographically separated

C.

lt combines exactly two devices

D.

It is supported on the Cisco 4500 series.

Full Access
Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0724 network?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02?

A.

G0/0 and G0/1 on Core

B.

G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02

C.

G0/1on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02

D.

G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01

Full Access
Question # 155

Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)?

A.

43

B.

66

C.

69

D.

150

Full Access
Question # 156

An engineer must enable a login authentication method that allows a user to log in by using local authentication if all other defined authentication methods fail Which configuration should be applied?

A.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local-case enable aaa

B.

authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable none

C.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group radius local enable

D.

aaa authentication login CONSOLE group tacacs+ local enable

Full Access
Question # 157

Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43?

A.

The WLC is running a different software version.

B.

The API is joining a primed WLC

C.

The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3.

D.

The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2.

Full Access
Question # 158

What is provided by the Stealthwatch component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution?

A.

real-time threat management to stop DDoS attacks to the core and access networks

B.

real-time awareness of users, devices and traffic on the network

C.

malware control

D.

dynamic threat control for web traffic

Full Access
Question # 159

What is required for a virtual machine to run?

A.

a Type 1 hypervisor and a host operating system

B.

a hypervisor and physical server hardware

C.

only a Type 1 hypervisor

D.

only a Type 2 hypervisor

Full Access
Question # 160

What occurs when a high bandwidth multicast stream is sent over an MVPN using Cisco hardware?

A.

The traffic uses the default MDT to transmit the data only if it isa (S,G) multicast route entry

B.

A data MDT is created to if it is a (*, G) multicast route entries

C.

A data and default MDT are created to flood the multicast stream out of all PIM-SM neighbors.

D.

A data MDT is created to allow for the best transmission through the core for (S, G) multicast route entries.

Full Access
Question # 161

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements:

Which protocol does the design include?

A.

HSRP version 2

B.

VRRP version 2

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP version 3

Full Access
Question # 162

Which data is properly formatted with JSON?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit Which single security feature is recommended to provide Network Access Control in the enterprise?

A.

MAB

B.

802.1X

C.

WebAuth

D.

port security sticky MAC

Full Access
Question # 164

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A.

An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B.

The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C.

The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D.

The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Full Access
Question # 165

What are two characteristics of VXLAN? (Choose two)

A.

It uses VTEPs to encapsulate and decapsulate frames.

B.

It has a 12-bit network identifier

C.

It allows for up to 16 million VXLAN segments

D.

It lacks support for host mobility

E.

It extends Layer 2 and Layer 3 overlay networks over a Layer 2 underlay.

Full Access
Question # 166

Which features does Cisco EDR use to provide threat detection and response protection?

A.

containment, threat intelligence, and machine learning

B.

firewalling and intrusion prevention

C.

container-based agents

D.

cloud analysis and endpoint firewall controls

Full Access
Question # 167

What is a consideration when designing a Cisco SD-Access underlay network?

A.

End user subnets and endpoints are part of the underlay network.

B.

The underlay switches provide endpoint physical connectivity for users.

C.

Static routing is a requirement,

D.

It must support IPv4 and IPv6 underlay networks

Full Access
Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Security policy requires all idle-exec sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds. Which configuration achieves this goal?

A.

line vty 0 15

absolute-timeout 600

B.

line vty 0 15

exec-timeout

C.

line vty 01 5

exec-timeout 10 0

D.

line vty 0 4

exec-timeout 600

Full Access
Question # 169

Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ is enabled on all switches. Which command set must be configured on switch1 to achieve the following results on port fa0/1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 170

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?

A.

MTU

B.

Window size

C.

MRU

D.

MSS

Full Access
Question # 171

Which outbound access list, applied to the WAN interface of a router, permits all traffic except for http traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 172

Which measurement is used from a post wireless survey to depict the cell edge of the access points?

A.

SNR

B.

Noise

C.

RSSI

D.

CCI

Full Access
Question # 173

An engineer is troubleshooting the Ap join process using DNS. Which FQDN must be resolvable on the network for the access points to successfully register to the WLC?

A.

wlcbostname.domain.com

B.

cisco-capwap-controller.domain.com

C.

ap-manager.domain.com

D.

primary-wlc.domain.com

Full Access
Question # 174

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A.

container

B.

Type 1 hypervisor

C.

hardware pass-thru

D.

Type 2 hypervisor

Full Access
Question # 175

An engineer configures HSRP group 37. The configuration does not modify the default virtual MAC address. Which virtual MAC address does the group use?

A.

C0:00:00:25:00:00

B.

00:00:0c:07:ac:37

C.

C0:39:83:25:258:5

D.

00:00:0c:07:ac:25

Full Access
Question # 176

Refer to the exhibit How was spanning-tree configured on this interface?

A.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode.

B.

By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode

C.

By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode

D.

By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode

Full Access
Question # 177

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

A.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C.

Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D.

Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Full Access
Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit. POSTMAN is showing an attempt to retrieve network device information from Cisco DNA Center API. What is the issue?

A.

The URI string is incorrect

B.

The token has expired.

C.

Authentication has failed

D.

The JSON payload contains the incorrect UUID

Full Access
Question # 179

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel between Switch1 and Switch2 and notices the console message on switch2. Based on the output, which action resolves this issue?

A.

Configure less member ports on Switch2.

B.

Configure the same port channel interface number on both switches

C.

Configure the same EtherChannel protocol on both switches

D.

Configure more member ports on Switch1.

Full Access
Question # 180

What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?

A.

It creates two entries for each network node, one for Its identity and another for its location on the network.

B.

It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.

C.

It allows multiple Instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.

D.

It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.

Full Access
Question # 181

An engineer measures the Wi-Fi coverage at a customer site. The RSSI values are recorded as follows:

Which two statements does the engineer use to explain these values to the customer? (Choose two)

A.

The signal strength at location C is too weak to support web surfing

B.

Location D has the strongest RF signal strength

C.

The RF signal strength at location B is 50% weaker than location A

D.

The signal strength at location B is 10 dB better than location C

E.

The RF signal strength at location C is 10 times stronger than location B

 

Full Access
Question # 182

Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices?

A.

vBond

B.

vSmart

C.

vManage

D.

PNP server

Full Access
Question # 183

Which congestion queuing method on Cisco IOS based routers uses four static queues?

A.

Priority

B.

custom

C.

weighted fair

D.

low latency

Full Access
Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times. Which command accomplish this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 185

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 186

Which design principle slates that a user has no access by default to any resource, and unless a resource is explicitly granted, it should be denied?

A.

least privilege

B.

fail-safe defaults

C.

economy of mechanism

D.

complete mediation

Full Access
Question # 187

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is troubleshooting a connectivity issue and executes a traceoute. What does the result confirm?

A.

The destination server reported it is too busy

B.

The protocol is unreachable

C.

The destination port is unreachable

D.

The probe timed out

Full Access
Question # 188

Refer to the exhibit. After configurating an IPsec VPN, an engineer enters the show command to verify the ISAKMP SA status. What does the status show?

A.

ISAKMP SA is authenticated and can be used for Quick Mode.

B.

Peers have exchanged keys, but ISAKMP SA remains unauthenticated.

C.

VPN peers agreed on parameters for the ISAKMP SA

D.

ISAKMP SA has been created, but it has not continued to form.

Full Access
Question # 189

Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial?

A.

under interface saturation condition

B.

under network convergence condition

C.

under all network condition

D.

under traffic classification and marking conditions.

Full Access
Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router r R1 Allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 191

What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.)

A.

increased MTU size

B.

hardware independence

C.

VM-level isolation

D.

increased flexibility

E.

extended 802.1Q VLAN range

Full Access
Question # 192

Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication?

A.

SSL

B.

MD5

C.

AES128

D.

AES256

Full Access
Question # 193

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 194

What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric?

A.

1500

B.

9100

C.

4464

D.

17914

Full Access
Question # 195

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 196

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the orchestration tools they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 197

How are the different versions of IGMP compatible?

A.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv1.

B.

IGMPv2 is compatible only with IGMPv2.

C.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv3.

D.

IGMPv3 is compatible only with IGMPv1

Full Access
Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to create a configuration to allow the Blue VRF to leak into the global routing table, but the configuration does not function as expected. Which action resolves this issue?

A.

Change the access-list destination mask to a wildcard.

B.

Change the source network that Is specified in access-list 101.

C.

Change the route-map configuration to VRF_BLUE.

D.

Change the access-list number in the route map

Full Access
Question # 199

What does the cisco DNA REST response indicate?

A.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for cat3850-1

B.

Cisco DNA Center is unable to communicate with cat9000-1

C.

Cisco DNA Center has the incorrect credentials for cat9000-1

D.

Cisco DNA Center has the Incorrect credentials for RouterASR-1

Full Access
Question # 200

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 201

Refer to exhibit.

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?

A.

SW1 (config)#vtp pruning

B.

SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent

C.

SW2(config)=vtp pruning

D.

SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Full Access
Question # 202

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the QoS components on the right.

Full Access
Question # 203

Which AP mode allows an engineer to scan configured channels for rogue access points?

A.

sniffer

B.

monitor

C.

bridge

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 204

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520 at a site directly next to a large commercial airport. Users report that they intermittently lose WI-FI connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two)

A.

Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 Ghz channel list

B.

Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference.

C.

Configure channels on the UNIk2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 Ghz band only

D.

Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference.

E.

Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar

Full Access
Question # 205

What is a characteristic of a next-generation firewall?

A.

only required at the network perimeter

B.

required in each layer of the network

C.

filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only

D.

provides intrusion prevention

Full Access
Question # 206

What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.)

A.

The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

B.

The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the Information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

C.

FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

D.

The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.

E.

The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.

Full Access
Question # 207

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A.

PETR

B.

PITR

C.

map resolver

D.

map server

Full Access
Question # 208

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to ensure that the preferred path for traffic from AS 65010 toward AS 65020 uses the R2 to R4 path?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 209

Refer to the exhibit.

The OSPF neighborship fails between two routers. What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The OSPF router ID is missing on this router.

B.

The OSPF process is stopped on the neighbor router.

C.

There is an MTU mismatch between the two routers.

D.

The OSPF router ID is missing on the neighbor router.

Full Access
Question # 210

Which of the following should a junior security administrator recommend implementing to mitigate malicious network activity?

A.

Intrusion prevention system

B.

Load balancer

C.

Access logging

D.

Endpoint encryption

Full Access
Question # 211

What does the number in an NTP stratum level represent?

A.

The number of hops it takes to reach the master time server.

B.

The number of hops it takes to reach the authoritative time source.

C.

The amount of offset between the device clock and true time.

D.

The amount of drift between the device clock and true time.

Full Access
Question # 212

Which component transports data plane traffic across a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A.

vSmart

B.

vManage

C.

cEdge

D.

vBond

Full Access
Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 214

An engineer is configuring Local WebAuth on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. According to RFC 5737, WHICH VIRTUAL IP address must be used in this configuration?

A.

192.0.2.1

B.

172.20.10.1

C.

1.1.1.1

D.

192.168.0.1

Full Access
Question # 215

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the API request?

A.

The "params" variable sends data fields to the network appliance.

B.

The native interface information is read from the network appliance.

C.

The Information for all interfaces is read from the network appliance.

D.

The "params" variable reads data fields from the network appliance

Full Access
Question # 216

Refer to the exhibit. Which EEM script generates a critical-level syslog message and saves a copy of the running configuration to the bootflash when an administrator saves the running configuration to the startup configuration?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 217

Refer to the exhibit. Which command set must be added to permit and log all traffic that comes from 172.20.10.1 in interface GigabitEthernet0/1 without impacting the functionality of the access list?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 218

Which Python snippet should be used to store the devices data structure in a JSON file?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 219

Which IPv4 packet field carries the QoS IP classification marking?

A.

ID

B.

TTL

C.

FCS

D.

ToS

Full Access
Question # 220

What are the main components of Cisco TrustSec?

A.

Cisco ISE and Enterprise Directory Services

B.

Cisco ISE. network switches, firewalls, and routers

C.

Cisco ISE and TACACS+

D.

Cisco ASA and Cisco Firepower Threat Defense

Full Access
Question # 221

What is the recommended minimum SNR for data applications on wireless networks?

A.

15

B.

20

C.

25

D.

10

Full Access
Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker can advertise OSPF fake routes from 172.16.20.0 network to the OSPF domain and black hole traffic. Which action must be taken to avoid this attack and still be able to advertise this subnet into OSPF?

A.

Configure 172.16.20.0 as a stub network.

B.

Apply a policy to filter OSPF packets on R2.

C.

Configure a passive Interface on R2 toward 172.16.20.0.

D.

Configure graceful restart on the 172.16.20.0 interface.

Full Access
Question # 223

Reter to the exhibit.

An administrator troubleshoots intermittent connectivity from internal hosts to an external public server. Some internal hosts can connect to the server while others receive an ICMP Host Unreachable message and these hosts change over time. What is the cause of this issue?

A.

The translator does not use aOdress overloading

B.

The NAT ACL does not match alt internal hosts

C.

The NAT ACL and NAT pool share the same name

D.

The NAT pool netmask rs excessively wide

Full Access
Question # 224

Which two features does the Cisco SD-Access architecture add to a traditional campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

private VLANs

C.

SD-WAN

D.

modular QoS

E.

identity services

Full Access
Question # 225

Refer the exhibit.

Which configuration elects SW4 as the root bridge for VLAN 1 and puts G0/2 on SW2 into a blocking state?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 226

Which protocol is implemented to establish secure control plane adjacencies between Cisco SD-WAN nodes?

A.

IKF

B.

TLS

C.

IPsec

D.

ESP

Full Access
Question # 227

An engineer must configure a new loopback Interface on a router and advertise the interface as a fa4 in OSPF. Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 228

What happens when a FlexConnect AP changes to standalone mode?

A.

All controller-dependent activities stop working except the DFS.

B.

All client roaming continues to work

C.

Only clients on central switching WLANs stay connected.

D.

All clients on an WLANs are disconnected

Full Access
Question # 229

Which option works with a DHCP server to return at least one WLAN management interface IP address during the discovery phase and is dependent upon the VCI of the AP?

A.

Option 42

B.

Option 15

C.

Option 125

D.

Option 43

Full Access
Question # 230

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right.

Full Access
Question # 231

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure an ERSPAN session with the remote end of the session 10.10.0.1. Which commands must be added to complete the configuration?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 232

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must deny Telnet traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the Loopback interface of router R2 during, the weekend hours. All other traffic between the loopback interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be allowed at all times Which command set accomplishes this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 233

What is the API keys option for REST API authentication?

A.

a predetermined string that is passed from client to server

B.

a one-time encrypted token

C.

a username that is stored in the local router database

D.

a credential that is transmitted unencrypted

Full Access
Question # 234

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the script be completed so that each device configuration is saved into a JSON-formatted file under the device name?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 235

A network engineer is configuring OSPF on a router. The engineer wants to prevent having a route to 177.16.0.0/16 learned via OSPF. In the routing table and configures a prefix list using the command ip prefix-list OFFICE seq S deny 172.16.0.0/16. Winch two identical configuration commands must be applied to accomplish the goal? (Choose two.)

A.

distribute-list prefix OFFICE in under the OSPF process

B.

Ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 Ie 32

C.

ip prefix-list OFFICE seq 10 permit 0.0.0.0/0 ge 32

D.

distribute-list OFFICE out under the OSPF process

E.

distribute-list OFFICE in under the OSPF process

Full Access
Question # 236

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 gets 'logging directly to console'

B.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg 'log directly to console'

C.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 puts 'logging directly to console'

D.

event manager applet boom

event syslog pattern 'UP'

action 1.0 string 'logging directly to console'

Full Access
Question # 237

What is a characteristic of a type 2 hypervisor?

A.

ideal for data center

B.

complicated deployment

C.

ideal for client/end-user system

D.

referred to as bare-metal

Full Access
Question # 238

Drag and drop the Cisco SD-Access solution areas from the left onto the protocols they use on the right.

Full Access
Question # 239

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients'?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 240

Refer to The exhibit.

Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A.

VRF VFN_A

B.

VRF VPN_B

C.

management VRF

D.

default VRF

Full Access
Question # 241

What is the JSON syntax that is formed the data?

A.

{'Name'';''Bob johnon';''Age': Sevenfive,''Alive'': true,''FavoriteFoods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

B.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age': 75 ''Alive'': true,''Favorite Foods';[''Cereal';''Mustard';''Onions'}}

C.

{'Name'':''Bob johnon':''Age: 75,''Alive: true, FavoriteFoods;[Cereal, Mustard';''Onions}}

D.

{'Name'': 'Bob johnon','Age': 75,'Alive': true,''FavoriteFoods': 'Cereal';'Mustard','Onions'}}

Full Access
Question # 242

Drag and drop the automation characteristics from the left onto the appropriate tools on the right.

Full Access
Question # 243

Refer to the exhibit. What is achieved by this code?

A.

It unshuts the loopback interface

B.

It renames the loopback interface

C.

It deletes the loopback interface

D.

It displays the loopback interface

Full Access
Question # 244

An administrator is configuring NETCONF using the following XML string. What must the administrator end the request with?

A.

]]>]]>

B.

C.

D.

Full Access
Question # 245

Which two Cisco SD-Access components provide communication between traditional network elements and controller layer? (choose two)

A.

network data platform

B.

network underlay

C.

fabric overlay

D.

network control platform

E.

partner ecosystem

Full Access
Question # 246

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures routing between all routers and must build a configuration to connect R1 to R3 via a GRE tunnel Which configuration must be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure an eBGP neighborship to Router B on Router A. The network that is connected to GO/1 on Router A must be advertised to Router B. Which configuration should be applied?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 248

Refer to the exhibit.

After configuring HSRP an engineer enters the show standby command. Which two facts are derived from the output? (Choose two.)

A.

The router with IP 10.10 1.3 is active because it has a higher IP address

B.

If Fa0/0 is shut down, the HSRP priority on R2 becomes 80

C.

R2 Fa1/0 regains the primary role when the link comes back up

D.

R2 becomes the active router after the hold time expires.

E.

R2 is using the default HSRP hello and hold timers.

Full Access
Question # 249

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer troubleshoots an issue with the port channel between SW1 and SW2. which command resolves the issue?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 250

Which two network problems Indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.)

A.

port flapping

B.

excess jitter

C.

misrouted network packets

D.

duplicate IP addresses

E.

bandwidth-related packet loss

Full Access
Question # 251

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A.

SIP flow information

B.

Wi-Fi multimedia

C.

traffic specification

D.

VoIP media session awareness

Full Access
Question # 252

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?

A.

NTP server

B.

PKI server

C.

RADIUS server

D.

TACACS server

Full Access