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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Question and Answers

Question # 4

What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?

A.

FlexConnect allows a personal SSID to be configured on the AP, and personal SSIDs are not supported with OfficeExtend.

B.

OfficeExtend does not support DTLS tunneling of traffic to the WLC, and FlexConnect tunnels traffic to the WLC with DTLS.

C.

OfficeExtend tunnels all traffic through the WLC, and FlexConnect terminates client traffic at the AP switch port.

D.

FlexConnect must be deployed behind a router that NATs the client traffic, and OfficeExtend uses public IP sources.

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Question # 5

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 265 255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255 255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10

Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

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Question # 6

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Question # 7

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

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Question # 8

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

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Question # 9

How does encryption project the wireless network?

A.

via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame

B.

via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks

C.

via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it

D.

via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network

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Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to identify valid routes for the R3 loopback address 1.1.1.3/32? (Choose two.)

A.

lowest cost to teach the next hop

B.

highest metric

C.

highest administrative distance

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest administrative distance

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Question # 11

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 12

Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?

A.

personal 10-digit PIN and RSA certificate

B.

complex password and personal 10-digit PIN

C.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-digit PIN

D.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

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Question # 13

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the internet.

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

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Question # 15

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

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Question # 16

Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:

• using an industry-standard trunking protocol

• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs

How must the interconnecting ports be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 17

What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

A.

employs PKI and RADIUS to identify access points

B.

applies 802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption

C.

uses TKIP and per-packet keying

D.

defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks

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Question # 18

How does MAC learning function on a switch?

A.

broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table

C.

sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received

D.

sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group

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Question # 19

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

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Question # 20

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interlace of the WLC.

E.

Configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

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Question # 21

Refer to the exhibit.

An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request?

A.

Enable local HTTP profiling.

B.

Enable Disassociation Imminent.

C.

Enable FlexConnect Local Switching.

D.

Enable local DHCP Profiling.

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Question # 22

Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.

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Question # 23

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

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Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6

R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6

R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6

R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2

R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Question # 25

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

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Question # 26

Which properly is shared by 10GBase-SR and 10GBase-LR interfaces?

A.

Both require fiber cable media for transmission.

B.

Both require UTP cable media for transmission.

C.

Both use the single-mode fiber type.

D.

Both use the multimode fiber type.

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Question # 27

SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 28

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

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Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

A.

192.168.10/24

B.

192.168.3.0/24

C.

192.168.2.0/24

D.

172.16 1.0/24

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Question # 30

What describes a northbound REST API for SON?

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

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Question # 32

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

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Question # 33

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

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Question # 34

Refer to the exhibit.

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

A.

Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

B.

Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.

D.

Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream.

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Question # 35

What are two differences between WPA2 and WPA3 wireless security? (Choose two.)

A.

WPA3 um AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses SAE

B.

WPA2 uses 1 M-bit key encryption and WPA3 requires 256-brt key encryption

C.

WPA3 uses AES for stronger protection than WPA2 which uses TKIP WPA3 uses

D.

SAE tor stronger protection than WPA2 which uses AES

E.

WPA2 uses 12B-M key encryption and WPA3 supports 128 bit and 192 bit key encryption

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Question # 36

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

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Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

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Question # 38

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 39

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

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Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit.

Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration?

A.

Uncheck the Guest User check box

B.

Check the Guest User Role check box

C.

Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0

D.

Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value

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Question # 41

Drag and chop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

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Question # 42

What is the purpose of the Cisco DNA Center controller?

A.

to secure physical access to a data center

B.

to scan a network and generate a Layer 2 network diagram

C.

to securely manage and deploy network devices

D.

to provide Layer 3 services to autonomous access points

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Question # 43

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

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Question # 44

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

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Question # 45

What is a zero-day exploit?

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

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Question # 46

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

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Question # 47

Refer to the exhibit.

Load-balanced traffic is coming in from the WAN destined to a host at 172.16.1.190. Which next-hop is used by the router to forward the request?

A.

192.168.7.4

B.

192.168.7.7

C.

192.168.7.35

D.

192.168.7.40

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Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168 10.1 to the destination at IP address 192.168.20 75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

A.

10.10101

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.101014

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Question # 49

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

A.

ip ospf network broadcast

B.

ip ospf dead-interval 40

C.

ip ospf network point-to-point

D.

ip ospf priority 0

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Question # 50

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

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Question # 51

What is the difference between an IPv6 link-local address and a unique local address?

A.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a loopback address, and an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a directly attached interface.

B.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address can be used throughout a company site or network, but an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

C.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is global, but the scope of an IPv6 unique local address is limited to a loopback address.

D.

The scope of an IPv6 link-local address is limited to a directly attached interface, but an IPv6 unique local address is used throughout a company site or network.

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Question # 52

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

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Question # 53

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 54

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 55

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

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Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures an interface control re switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 57

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the description on the right.

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Question # 58

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

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Question # 59

Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?

A.

bridge

B.

route

C.

autonomous

D.

lightweight

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Question # 60

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Question # 61

What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC?

A.

In-band management via an asynchronous transport

B.

out-of-band management via an IP transport

C.

in-band management via an IP transport

D.

out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport

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Question # 62

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

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Question # 63

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

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Question # 64

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the users wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

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Question # 65

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Question # 66

Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

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Question # 67

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

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Question # 68

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

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Question # 69

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

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Question # 70

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

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Question # 71

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Question # 72

Where does wireless authentication happen?

A.

SSID

B.

radio

C.

band

D.

Layer 2

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Question # 73

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Question # 74

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

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Question # 77

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Question # 78

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Question # 80

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?

A.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh

B.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp

C.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet

D.

access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https

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Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Question # 82

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Question # 83

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

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Question # 84

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Question # 85

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Question # 86

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Question # 87

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

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Question # 88

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 90

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

All ARP packets are dropped by the switch

B.

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

C.

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

D.

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Full Access
Question # 91

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Full Access
Question # 92

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A.

cost

B.

adminstrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Full Access
Question # 93

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

Full Access
Question # 95

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Full Access
Question # 96

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Full Access
Question # 97

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 98

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Full Access
Question # 99

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

Full Access
Question # 100

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 101

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Full Access
Question # 102

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

Full Access
Question # 103

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 104

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 105

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 106

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 107

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Full Access
Question # 108

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Full Access
Question # 109

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 110

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Full Access
Question # 111

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 113

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 114

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Full Access
Question # 116

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 117

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 118

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

i

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

I

access-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1

ip helper-address 10.0.1.1

!

access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 119

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 120

Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?

A.

VLANID

B.

SSID

C.

RFID

D.

WLANID

Full Access
Question # 121

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 122

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

Full Access
Question # 123

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 124

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 125

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 126

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 127

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234

ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148

ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722

ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002

ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155

ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 128

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 129

Which protocol uses the SSL?

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Full Access
Question # 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Full Access
Question # 131

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Full Access
Question # 132

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Full Access
Question # 133

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Full Access
Question # 134

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 136

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Full Access
Question # 137

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Full Access
Question # 139

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Full Access
Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 141

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1

channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

Full Access
Question # 143

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 144

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Full Access
Question # 145

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 146

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 147

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Full Access
Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 149

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

Full Access
Question # 150

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 151

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

Full Access
Question # 152

A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?

A.

Clock timezone

B.

Clock summer-time-recurring

C.

Clock summer-time date

D.

Clock set

Full Access
Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 154

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 155

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

A.

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them

D.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

E.

The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Full Access
Question # 156

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Full Access
Question # 157

Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

Full Access
Question # 158

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Full Access
Question # 159

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 161

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Question # 163

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Question # 164

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

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Question # 165

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Question # 166

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 167

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Question # 168

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Question # 169

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Question # 170

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Question # 171

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Question # 172

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config>#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

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Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Question # 175

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

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Question # 176

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Question # 177

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Question # 178

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Question # 179

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Question # 180

What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

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Question # 181

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

Full Access
Question # 182

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

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Question # 183

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

Full Access
Question # 184

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Question # 185

What is a benefit of VRRP?

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents loops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

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Question # 186

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

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Question # 187

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Question # 188

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Question # 189

Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used

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Question # 190

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 191

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

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Question # 192

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Full Access
Question # 193

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

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Question # 194

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

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Question # 195

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Full Access
Question # 196

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Question # 197

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

Full Access
Question # 198

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Full Access
Question # 199

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 200

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Full Access
Question # 201

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Full Access
Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 203

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Full Access
Question # 204

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

Full Access
Question # 205

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Full Access
Question # 206

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

Full Access
Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command provides this output?

A.

show ip route

B.

show ip interface

C.

show interface

D.

show cdp neighbor

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Question # 208

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Full Access
Question # 209

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

Full Access
Question # 210

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

Full Access
Question # 211

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

Full Access
Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0'1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 213

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Full Access
Question # 214

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Full Access
Question # 215

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?

A.

TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.

B.

TCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.

C.

TCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.

D.

TCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.

Full Access
Question # 216

Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software-defined architecture?

A.

control layer and the infrastructure layer

B.

application layer and the infrastructure layer

C.

control layer and the application layer

D.

application layer and the management layer

Full Access
Question # 217

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

Full Access
Question # 218

How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?

A.

wireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network

B.

a cable connected to a physical switch on the network

C.

a virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network

D.

a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network

Full Access
Question # 219

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Full Access
Question # 220

What is the benefit of using FHRP?

A.

reduced management overhead on network routers

B.

balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

higher degree of availability

D.

reduced ARP traffic on the network

Full Access
Question # 221

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable

What is the result of this configuration?

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an error disables state

C.

The link is becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

Full Access
Question # 222

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Full Access
Question # 223

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?

A.

10.0.1.3

B.

10.0.1.50

C.

10.0.1.4

D.

Loopback D

Full Access
Question # 224

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 225

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

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Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

Full Access
Question # 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 228

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access