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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Question and Answers

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

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Question # 5

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

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Question # 6

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Question # 7

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

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Question # 8

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

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Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)

A.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

B.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to FTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

C.

Set the File Type to Code, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the file server.

D.

Set the File Type to Configuration, set the Transfer Mode to SFTP, and specify the IP address of the WLC.

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Question # 10

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

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Question # 11

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

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Question # 12

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

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Question # 13

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

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Question # 15

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

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Question # 16

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

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Question # 17

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

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Question # 18

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

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Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

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Question # 20

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

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Question # 21

What is the main purpose of SSH management access?

A.

To support DES 56-bit and 3DES (168-bit) ciphers

B.

To enable secured access to the inbound management interface

C.

To validate management access with username and domain name only

D.

To allow passwords protected with HTTPS encryption to be sent

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Question # 22

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

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Question # 23

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

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Question # 24

How does automation affect network management processes?

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

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Question # 25

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

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Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

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Question # 27

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addresses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP address

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Question # 28

What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

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Question # 29

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

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Question # 30

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

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Question # 31

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

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Question # 32

What differentiates the TCP and UDP protocols?

A.

TCP tracks segments being transmitted or received by assigning segment numbers, and UDP adjusts data flow according to network conditions.

B.

TCP establishes a connection with the device on the other end before transferring, and UDP transfers without establishing a connection.

C.

TCP sends data at a constant rate with error checking on upper protocol layers, and UDP provides error-checking and sequencing.

D.

TCP immediately transmits data without waiting for a handshake, and UDP awaits a response from the receiver before sending additional data.

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Question # 33

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSON-formatted content?

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

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Question # 34

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

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Question # 35

Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

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Question # 36

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

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Question # 37

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

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Question # 38

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Question # 39

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

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Question # 40

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

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Question # 41

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

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Question # 42

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?

A.

port-to-multipoint

B.

broadcast

C.

point-to-point

D.

nonbroadcast

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Question # 43

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

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Question # 44

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Question # 45

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Question # 46

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

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Question # 47

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

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Question # 48

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

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Question # 49

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Question # 50

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 51

Refer to the exhibit.

The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?

A.

The interface is not participating in OSPF

B.

A point-to-point network type is configured

C.

The default Hello and Dead timers are in use

D.

There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

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Question # 52

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Question # 54

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Question # 55

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

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Question # 56

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Question # 57

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

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Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 59

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Question # 60

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

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Question # 61

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

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Question # 62

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

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Question # 63

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

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Question # 64

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Question # 65

Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

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Question # 66

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Question # 67

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

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Question # 68

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

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Question # 69

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Question # 70

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?

A.

DTP

B.

FTP

C.

SMTP

D.

TFTP

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Question # 71

What Is a syslog facility?

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Question # 72

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

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Question # 73

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Question # 74

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

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Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

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Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

A.

modify hello interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

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Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

A.

metric

B.

cost

C.

longest prefix

D.

administrative distance

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Question # 78

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

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Question # 79

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Question # 80

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Question # 81

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Question # 82

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

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Question # 83

Which function does an SNMP agent perform?

A.

it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

B.

it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.

C.

it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

D.

it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server

Full Access
Question # 84

What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

Java

C.

REST

D.

XML

Full Access
Question # 85

What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Full Access
Question # 86

Refer to the exhibit.

To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 87

A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?

A.

collision

B.

CRC

C.

runt

D.

late collision

Full Access
Question # 88

A WLC sends alarms about a rogue AP, and the network administrator verifies that the alarms are caused by a legitimate autonomous AP.

A.

Place the AP into manual containment.

B.

Remove the AP from WLC management.

C.

Manually remove the AP from Pending state.

D.

Set the AP Class Type to Friendly.

Full Access
Question # 89

With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?

A.

Accept-Encoding: gzip. deflate

B.

Accept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8

C.

Content-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8

D.

Accept: application/json

Full Access
Question # 90

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Full Access
Question # 91

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

Full Access
Question # 93

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

Full Access
Question # 94

Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

A.

encryption and decryption for VPN link processing

B.

building route tables and updating the forwarding table

C.

changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

D.

encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame

Full Access
Question # 95

Which CRUD operation corresponds to me HTTP GET method?

A.

delete

B.

create

C.

update

D.

read

Full Access
Question # 96

Which advantage does machine learning offer for network security?

A.

It improves real-time threat detection.

B.

It manages firewall rule sets.

C.

It enforces password complexity requirements.

D.

It controls VPN access permissions.

Full Access
Question # 97

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configurator

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

Full Access
Question # 98

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable "box by box" configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

Full Access
Question # 99

Which event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

A.

An ICMP connection has been built

B.

A certificate has expired

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A TCP connection has been torn down

Full Access
Question # 100

Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.)

A.

REMOVE

B.

REDIRECT

C.

OPOST

D.

GET

E.

UPOP

Full Access
Question # 101

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to change default settings on SW1 to allow remote access and has entered the following in the configuration mode:

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15

SW1(config-line)#password Labtest32!

Which set of commands are needed to allow only SSH access and hide passwords in the running configuration?

A.

SW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#aaa new-model

B.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1(config-line)#transport input sshSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1(config-line)#login localSW1(config-line)#exitSW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

Full Access
Question # 102

A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 103

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

Full Access
Question # 104

What is the function of a controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

forwarding packets

C.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

D.

setting packet-handling policies

Full Access
Question # 105

What are two functions of DHCP servers? (Choose two.)

A.

prevent users from assigning their own IP addresses to hosts

B.

assign dynamic IP configurations to hosts in a network

C.

support centralized IP management

D.

issue DHCPDISCOVER messages when added to the network

E.

respond to client DHCPOFFER requests by issuing an IP address

Full Access
Question # 106

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

Full Access
Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks from the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.

Full Access
Question # 108

Drag and drop the IPv6 address description from the left onto the IPv6 address types on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 109

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

Full Access
Question # 110

Refer to the exhibit.

A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:

• accommodates current configured VLANs

• expands the range to include VLAN 20

• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs

Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 111

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 112

Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

Full Access
Question # 113

What is a function of a southbound API?

A.

Automate configuration changes between a server and a switching fabric.

B.

Use orchestration to provision a virtual server configuration from a web server.

C.

Manage flow control between an SDN controller and a switching fabric.

D.

Facilitate the information exchange between an SDN controller and application.

Full Access
Question # 114

A DHCP pool has been created with the name NOCC. The pool is using 192.168.20.0/24 and must use the next to last usable IP address as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. What is the next step in the process?

A.

default-router192.168.20.253

B.

network 192.168.20.254 255.255.255.0 secondary

C.

ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.20.253

D.

next-server 192.168.20.254

Full Access
Question # 115

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

Full Access
Question # 116

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Full Access
Question # 117

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

A.

Password complexity enable

B.

confreg 0x2142

C.

Login authentication my-auth-list

D.

service password-encryption

Full Access
Question # 118

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 119

What are two reasons to implement DHCP in a network? (Choose two.)

A.

reduce administration time in managing IP address ranges for clients

B.

control the length of time an IP address is used by a network device

C.

manually control and configure IP addresses on network devices

D.

dynamic control over the best path to reach an IP address

E.

access a website by name instead of by IP address

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 121

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit.

Which format matches the Modified EUI-64 IPv6 interface address for the network 2001:db8::/64?

A.

2001 :db8::5000:0004:5678:0090/64

B.

2001 :db8:4425:5400:77ft:fe07:/64

C.

2001 :db8::5000:00ff:fe04 0000/64

D.

2001 :db8::5200:00ff:fe04:0000/64

Full Access
Question # 123

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?

A.

One-Click

B.

Hotspot

C.

Enhanced Bluetooth

D.

Whole Home

Full Access
Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the issue with the interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1?

A.

Port security

B.

High throughput

C.

Cable disconnect

D.

duplex mismatch

Full Access
Question # 125

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

Full Access
Question # 126

What is a characteristic of RSA?

A.

It uses preshared keys for encryption

B.

It requires both sides to have identical keys

C.

It is a private-key encryption algorithm

D.

It is a public-key cryptosystem

Full Access
Question # 127

Drag and drop the HTTP methods used with REST-Based APIs from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 128

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources from the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

Full Access
Question # 129

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

Full Access
Question # 130

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two.)

A.

It uses Telnet to report system issues

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

D.

It moves the control plane to a central point

E.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

Full Access
Question # 131

Refer to the exhibit. Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management

B.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gik-randomize State to disable

C.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required

D.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management

Full Access
Question # 132

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

Full Access
Question # 133

Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 134

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

Full Access
Question # 135

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Full Access
Question # 136

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?

A.

STP

B.

port security

C.

wrong cable type

D.

shutdown command

Full Access
Question # 138

How does frame switching function on a switch?

A.

forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

B.

modifies frames that contain a known source VLAN

C.

inspects and drops frames from unknown destinations

D.

forwards known destinations to the destination port

Full Access
Question # 139

What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

A.

They use HTTP messages to communicate.

B.

They enable communication between the controller and the network device.

C.

They convey information from the controller to the SDN applications.

D.

They communicate with the management plane.

Full Access
Question # 140

Which solution is appropriate when mitigating password attacks where the attacker was able to sniff the clear-text password of the system administrator?

A.

next-generation firewall to keep stateful packet inspection

B.

multifactor authentication using two separate authentication sources

C.

ACL to restrict incoming Telnet sessions "admin" accounts

D.

IPS with a block list of known attack vectors

Full Access
Question # 141

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Full Access
Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 143

Which is a fact related to FTP?

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

Full Access
Question # 144

Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

HTTP

D.

STP

Full Access
Question # 145

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the learned prefixes from the left onto the subnet masks on the right

Full Access
Question # 146

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuring on switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 147

What is a characteristics of a collapsed-core network topology?

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

Full Access
Question # 148

Which IPsec encryption mode is appropriate when the destination of a packet differs from the security termination point?

A.

tunnel

B.

transport

C.

aggressive

D.

main

Full Access
Question # 149

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

Full Access
Question # 150

Refer to the exhibit.

SW_1 and SW_12 represent two companies that are merging. They use separate network vendors. The VLANs on both Sides have been migrated to share IP subnets. Which command sequence must be issued on both sides to join the two companies and pass all VLANs between the companies?

A.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

B.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan allswitchport dot1q ethertype 0800

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan allswitchport trunk native vlan 7

D.

switchport dynamic autoswitchport nonegotiate

Full Access
Question # 151

What is the purpose of classifying network traffic in QoS?

A.

services traffic according to its class

B.

identifies the type of traffic that will receive a particular treatment

C.

writes the class identifier of a packet to a dedicated field in the packet header

D.

configures traffic-matching rules on network devices

Full Access
Question # 152

Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)

A.

Only authentication records the duration of a user's connection.

B.

Only authentication supports user-activity audits.

C.

Only authentication provides supporting information for billing users.

D.

Only authentication challenges users for their credentials and returns a response.

E.

Only authentication validates "who you are."

Full Access
Question # 153

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode desirableno shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

Full Access
Question # 154

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

A.

config network secureweb enable

B.

config certificate generate web admin

C.

config network webmode enable

D.

config network telnet enable

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of JSON data is represented?

A.

string

B.

array

C.

number

D.

object

Full Access
Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 157

The address block 192.168.32.0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks. The engineer must meet these requirements:

Create 8 new subnets

Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet.

A Layer 3 interface is used.

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A.

no switchport  ip address 192.168.32.30 255.255.255.224

B.

no switchport mode trunk  ip address 192.168.32.97 255.255.255.224

C.

no switchport mode access  ip address 192.168.32.62 255.255.255.240

D.

switchport  ip address 192.168.32.65 255.255.255.240

Full Access
Question # 158

Refer to the exhibit. The My_WLAN wireless LAN was configured with WPA2 Layer 2 PSK security. Which additional configuration must the administrator perform to allow users to connect to this WKAN on a different subnet called Data?

A.

Enable Broadcast SSID and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

B.

Enable Status and select data from the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

C.

Enable Status and set the NAS-ID to data.

D.

Enable Status and enable Broadcast SSID.

Full Access
Question # 159

What does traffic shaping do?

A.

It modifies the QoS attributes of a packet

B.

It queues excess traffic

C.

It organizes traffic into classes.

D.

It sets QoS attributes within a packet.

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

In which structure does the word "warning" directly reside?

A.

array

B.

object

C.

Boolean

D.

string

Full Access
Question # 161

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

Full Access
Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Full Access
Question # 163

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

Full Access
Question # 164

What are network endpoints?

A.

act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network

B.

a threat to the network if they are compromised

C.

support inter-VLAN connectivity

D.

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Full Access
Question # 165

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Full Access
Question # 166

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

Full Access
Question # 167

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

A.

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0no cdp run

Full Access
Question # 168

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 169

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

B.

TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol

C.

TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

D.

TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

Full Access
Question # 170

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

Full Access
Question # 171

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

A.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement to the begining of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Full Access
Question # 172

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

Full Access
Question # 173

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

Full Access
Question # 174

Refer to the Exhibit.

After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. which error must be corrected?

A.

There is a native VLAN mismatch

B.

Access mode is configured on the switch ports.

C.

The PCs are m the incorrect VLAN

D.

All VLANs are not enabled on the trunk

Full Access
Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

Full Access
Question # 176

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Full Access
Question # 177

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Full Access
Question # 178

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Full Access
Question # 179

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

Full Access
Question # 180

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

Full Access
Question # 181

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A.

TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.

B.

UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits

C.

UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol

D.

TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery

Full Access
Question # 182

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 183

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

Full Access
Question # 185

What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?

A.

data plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

management plane

Full Access
Question # 186

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?

A.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.

B.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.

C.

It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25

D.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2

Full Access
Question # 187

Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?

A.

wireless access point

B.

firewall

C.

wireless LAN controller

D.

router

Full Access
Question # 188

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Full Access
Question # 189

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Full Access
Question # 190

Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?

A.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685

B.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary

C.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440

D.

Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0

Full Access
Question # 191

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 192

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Full Access
Question # 193

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

A.

read

B.

create

C.

replace

D.

update

Full Access
Question # 194

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server visualization

Full Access
Question # 195

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

Full Access
Question # 196

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

Full Access
Question # 197

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

Full Access
Question # 198

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Full Access
Question # 199

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

Full Access
Question # 200

What does physical access control regulate?

A.

access to spec fie networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access to computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Full Access
Question # 201

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

Full Access
Question # 202

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

Full Access
Question # 203

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

Full Access
Question # 204

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Full Access
Question # 205

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Full Access
Question # 206

An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0::700:3:4F:572B

C.

ipv6 address 2001:Odb8::7:3:4F:572B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::700:3:400F:572B

Full Access
Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

Full Access
Question # 208

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 209

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Full Access
Question # 210

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

Full Access
Question # 211

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

Full Access
Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

Full Access
Question # 213

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

Full Access
Question # 214

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

Full Access
Question # 215

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

Full Access
Question # 216

What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?

A.

TCP transmits data at a higher rate and ensures packet delivery. UDP retransmits lost data to ensure applications receive the data on the remote end.

B.

UDP sets up a connection between both devices before transmitting data. TCP uses the three-way handshake to transmit data with a reliable connection.

C.

UDP is used for multicast and broadcast communication. TCP is used for unicast communication and transmits data at a higher rate with error checking.

D.

TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.

Full Access
Question # 217

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 218

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

Full Access
Question # 219

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?

A.

It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

B.

It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.

C.

It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.

D.

It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

Full Access
Question # 220

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

Full Access
Question # 221

Refer to the exhibit.

which path is used by the router for internet traffic ?

A.

209.165.200.0/27

B.

10.10.10.0/28

C.

0.0.0.0/0

D.

10.10.13.0/24

Full Access
Question # 222

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

Full Access
Question # 223

Which option about JSON is true?

A.

uses predefined tags or angle brackets () to delimit markup text

B.

used to describe structured data that includes arrays

C.

used for storing information

D.

similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML

Full Access
Question # 224

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A.

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

Full Access
Question # 225

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Full Access
Question # 226

In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

Full Access
Question # 227

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Full Access
Question # 228

Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?

A.

TKIP with RC4

B.

RC4

C.

AES-128

D.

AES-256

Full Access
Question # 229

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 230

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

Full Access
Question # 231

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)

A.

The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses

B.

The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses

C.

The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them

D.

The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

E.

The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

Full Access
Question # 232

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

lp route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

Full Access
Question # 233

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Full Access
Question # 234

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Full Access
Question # 235

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Full Access
Question # 236

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

Full Access
Question # 237

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

Full Access
Question # 238

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Full Access
Question # 239

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 240

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

Full Access
Question # 241

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

Full Access
Question # 242

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Full Access
Question # 243

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

Full Access
Question # 244

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Full Access
Question # 245

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

Full Access
Question # 246

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

Full Access
Question # 247

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 248

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Full Access
Question # 249

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 250

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Full Access
Question # 251

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 252

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

Full Access
Question # 253

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Full Access
Question # 254

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

Full Access
Question # 255

Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

multifactor authentication

C.

attribute-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

Full Access
Question # 256

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Full Access
Question # 257

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?

A.

10.0.0.2

B.

110

C.

30

D.

2

Full Access
Question # 258

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 259

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Full Access
Question # 260

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Full Access
Question # 261

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 262

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Full Access
Question # 263

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Full Access
Question # 264

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Full Access
Question # 265

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 266

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Full Access
Question # 267

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Full Access
Question # 268

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Full Access
Question # 269

What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)

A.

It uses a single router to route traffic between sites.

B.

It leverages a dedicated connection.

C.

It connects remote networks through a single line.

D.

t delivers redundancy between the central office and branch offices.

E.

It provides direct connections between each router in the topology.

Full Access
Question # 270

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Full Access
Question # 271

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 272

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Full Access
Question # 273

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

Full Access
Question # 274

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Full Access
Question # 275

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

Full Access
Question # 276

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

Full Access
Question # 277

How does MAC learning function?

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Full Access
Question # 278

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Full Access
Question # 279

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Full Access
Question # 280

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 281

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

Full Access
Question # 282

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

Full Access
Question # 283

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 284

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Full Access
Question # 285

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 286

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 287

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Full Access
Question # 288

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 289

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Full Access
Question # 290

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

Full Access
Question # 291

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

Full Access
Question # 292

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Full Access
Question # 293

What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

A.

to increase security and encrypt management frames

B.

to provide link redundancy and load balancing

C.

to allow for stateful and link-state failover

D.

to enable connected switch ports to failover and use different VLANs

Full Access
Question # 294

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Full Access
Question # 295

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 296

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 297

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 298

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Full Access
Question # 299

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Full Access
Question # 300

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

Full Access
Question # 301

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Full Access
Question # 302

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Full Access
Question # 303

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 304

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 305

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Full Access
Question # 306

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Full Access
Question # 307

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Full Access
Question # 308

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Full Access
Question # 309

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

Full Access
Question # 310

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

Full Access
Question # 311

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 312

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 313

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

Full Access
Question # 314

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

Full Access
Question # 315

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 316

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 317

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 318

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

Full Access
Question # 319

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

Full Access
Question # 320

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 321

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Full Access
Question # 322

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

Full Access
Question # 323

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 324

Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?

A.

To provide network redundancy in the case of a router failure

B.

To use an open standard protocol that is configured on Cisco and third-party routers

C.

To allow hosts in a network to use the same default gateway virtual IP when load-balancing traffic

D.

To allow clients to be configured with multiple default gateway IPs

Full Access
Question # 325

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 326

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Question # 327

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Question # 328

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

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Question # 329

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Question # 330

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Question # 331

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

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Question # 332

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Question # 333

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

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Question # 334

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

A.

Internet Group Management Protocol

B.

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C.

Cisco Discovery Protocol

D.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

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Question # 335

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Question # 336

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

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Question # 337

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Question # 338

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

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Question # 339

How does MAC learning function?

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC address in the address table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

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Question # 340

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

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Question # 341

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

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Question # 342

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

A.

Asset identification

B.

User training

C.

Physical access control

D.

Vulnerability control

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Question # 343

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

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Question # 344

Refer to the exhibit.

Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?

A.

Enable AutoConfig iPSK.

B.

SetCCMP128(AES).

C.

Configure PSK Format HEX with key string.

D.

Configure PSK-SHA2.

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Question # 345

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

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