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200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

A.

external storage

B.

hardware resources

C.

network interfaces

D.

backplane network

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Question # 5

Refer to the exhibit.

What is missing from this output for it to be executed?

A.

double quotes C " ) around the " Cisco Devices " string

B.

curly brace ()) at the end

C.

exclamation point (!) at the beginning of each line

D.

square bracket ([) at the beginning

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Question # 6

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Question # 7

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

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Question # 8

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

A.

source MAC addresss and aging time

B.

destination MAC addresss and flush time

C.

source MAC addresss and source port

D.

destination MAC addresss and destination port

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Question # 9

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

A.

to enable the number of MAC addressses learned on the port to l

B.

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

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Question # 10

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Question # 11

A network engineer is implementing a corporate SSID for WPA3-Personal security with a PSK. Which encryption cipher must be configured?

A.

GCMP256

B.

GCMP128

C.

CCMP256

D.

CCMP128

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Question # 12

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

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Question # 13

Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient ' s domain?

A.

MX record

B.

TXT record

C.

A record

D.

SRV record

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Question # 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A.

GigabitEthernet0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/1

C.

Null0

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Question # 15

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination addresss of 10.10.10.147?

A.

Serial 0/0

B.

FastEthernet 0/2

C.

FastEthernet 0/0

D.

FastEthernet 0/1

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Question # 16

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configuration

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

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Question # 17

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

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Question # 18

Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being Implemented within the enterprise. The command Ipv6 unlcast-routing is configure. Interlace GlgO/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block Which command accomplishes this task?

A.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64

B.

ipv6 addresss autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64

C.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 addresss 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::/64 link-local

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Question # 19

Which header must be included in a REST request from an application that requires JSDN-formatted content?

A.

Content-Type: application/json

B.

Accept-Encoding: application/json

C.

Accept: application/json

D.

Accept-Language: application/json

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Question # 20

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

A.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

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Question # 21

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

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Question # 22

An administrator must use the password complexity not manufacturer-name command to prevent users from adding “cisco” as a password. Which command must be issued before this command?

A.

Password complexity enable

B.

confreg 0x2142

C.

Login authentication my-auth-list

D.

service password-encryption

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Question # 23

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168.16.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Question # 24

What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?

A.

Facilities communication between the controller and the applications

B.

Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware

C.

allows application developers to interact with the network

D.

integrates a controller with other automation and orchestration tools.

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Question # 25

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Question # 26

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

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Question # 27

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wirelesss network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wirelesss network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Question # 28

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Question # 29

When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?

A.

DHCP relay agent

B.

DHCP server

C.

DHCPDISCOVER

D.

DHCPOFFER

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Question # 30

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

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Question # 31

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router for user access via SSH. The service-password encryption command has been issued. The configuration must meet these requirements:

• Create the username as CCUser.

• Create the password as NA!2Scc.

• Encrypt the user password.

What must be configured to meet the requirements?

A.

username CCUser privies 10 password NA!2Scc

B.

username CCUser password NA!2Scc enable password level 5 NA!2$cc

C.

username CCUser secret NA!2Scc

D.

username CCUser privilege 15 password NA!2Scc enable secret 0 NA!2$cc

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Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all links are of equal speed?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Question # 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Question # 34

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

A.

Integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

B.

Serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addressses

D.

Correlates user activity with network events

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Question # 35

Which combination of methods satisfies the minimum security requirements when a new multifactor authentication solution is deployed?

A.

password of 8 to 15 characters and personal 12-diglt PIN

B.

authorized USB dongle and mobile phone

C.

fingerprint scanning and facial recognition

D.

complex password and time-based one-time password

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Question # 36

Which AP mode wirelesssly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

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Question # 37

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

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Question # 38

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Question # 39

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

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Question # 40

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must replicate the AccessSw1 NTP configuration on a new switch. The engineer could not access privileged mode on AccessSw1 to view its configuration.

Which command must be applied to the new switch to replicate the configuration?

A.

ntp master

B.

ntp master 3

C.

ntp server 2001:db8:12::1

D.

ntp server 127.127.1.1

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Question # 41

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

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Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 43

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Question # 44

What is a benefit of VRRP?

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents lloops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

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Question # 45

Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?

A.

enforcing routing policies

B.

marking interesting traffic for data polices

C.

attaching users to the edge of the network

D.

applying security policies

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Question # 46

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

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Question # 47

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

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Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured. R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configured on R2 to be elected as the DR in the network?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 49

What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?

A.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter

B.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter

C.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter

D.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter

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Question # 50

An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?

A.

logging trap 5

B.

logging trap 2

C.

logging trap 4

D.

logging trap 3

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Question # 51

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

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Question # 52

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

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Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit.

How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 54

What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)

A.

acts as a central point for association and authentication servers

B.

selects the best route between networks on a WAN

C.

moves packets within a VLAN

D.

moves packets between different VLANs

E.

makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet

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Question # 55

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

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Question # 56

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Question # 57

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Question # 58

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A.

The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame

B.

The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

C.

The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

D.

The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table

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Question # 59

Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?

A.

PortFast

B.

BPDU guard

C.

UplinkFast

D.

BackboneFast

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Question # 60

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

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Question # 61

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

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Question # 62

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

A.

172.9.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Question # 63

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)

A.

OSPF area

B.

OSPF MD5 authentication key

C.

IPv6 address

D.

OSPF process ID

E.

OSPF stub flag

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Question # 64

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Question # 65

What is a DHCP client?

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

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Question # 66

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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Question # 67

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

A.

outside global

B.

outside local

C.

inside global

D.

inside local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Question # 68

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

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Question # 69

Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?

A.

on the router closest to the server

B.

on the router closest to the client

C.

on every router along the path

D.

on the switch trunk interface

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Question # 70

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Question # 71

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Question # 72

When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)

A.

ASCII

B.

base64

C.

binary

D.

decimal

E.

hexadecimal

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Question # 73

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

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Question # 74

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Question # 75

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

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Question # 76

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

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Question # 77

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

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Question # 78

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

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Question # 79

What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?

A.

it enables BPDU messages

B.

It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time

C.

It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded

D.

It immediately enables the port in the listening state

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Question # 80

What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?

A.

connects each switch to every other switch in the network

B.

enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection

C.

provides high throughput access for 1000 or more users

D.

includes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy

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Question # 81

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)

A.

relay agent information

B.

database agent

C.

address pool

D.

smart-relay

E.

manual bindings

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Question # 82

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributed management functions

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

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Question # 83

Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?

A.

a list of the available IP addresses in a pool

B.

a list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names

C.

usernames and passwords for the end users in a domain

D.

a list of statically assigned MAC addresses

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Question # 84

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

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Question # 85

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

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Question # 86

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 87

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Full Access
Question # 88

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Full Access
Question # 89

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Full Access
Question # 90

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

Full Access
Question # 91

Drag and drop the elements of a security program from the left onto the corresponding descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Full Access
Question # 93

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

Full Access
Question # 94

Drag and drop each characteristic of device-management technologies from the left onto the deployment type on the right.

Full Access
Question # 95

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 96

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

Full Access
Question # 97

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 98

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Full Access
Question # 99

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

Full Access
Question # 100

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

A.

All ARIP packets are dropped by the switch

B.

Egress traffic is passed only if the destination is a DHCP server.

C.

All ingress and egress traffic is dropped because the interface is untrusted

D.

The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.

Full Access
Question # 101

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Full Access
Question # 102

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 103

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Full Access
Question # 104

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Full Access
Question # 105

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Full Access
Question # 106

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Full Access
Question # 107

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

Full Access
Question # 108

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A.

one

B.

four

C.

seven

D.

nine

Full Access
Question # 109

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

Full Access
Question # 110

To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?

A.

user training

B.

user awareness

C.

vulnerability verification

D.

physical access control

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 112

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

Full Access
Question # 113

Which two server types support domain name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >

A.

ESX host

B.

resolver

C.

web

D.

file transfer

E.

authentication

Full Access
Question # 114

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Full Access
Question # 115

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

Full Access
Question # 116

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Full Access
Question # 117

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by “R1” and “SW1” within the JSON output?

object

value

A.

key

B.

array

Full Access
Question # 118

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

Full Access
Question # 119

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

Full Access
Question # 120

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Full Access
Question # 121

What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port?

A.

All four pairs of the cable are used

B.

It detects the device is a powered device

C.

The default level is used for the access point

D.

Power policing is enabled at the same time

Full Access
Question # 122

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

Full Access
Question # 123

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Full Access
Question # 124

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assigns IP addressing to the current VLAN with three PCs. The configuration must also account for the expansion of 30 additional VLANS using the same Class C subnet for subnetting and host count. Which command set fulfills the request while reserving address space for the expected growth?

A.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.252

B.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.248

C.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.0

D.

Switch(config)#interface vlan 10Switch(config-if)#ip address 192.168.0.1 255.255.255.128

Full Access
Question # 125

Which command implies the use of SNMPv3?

A.

snmp-server host

B.

snmp-server community

C.

snmp-server enable traps

D.

snmp-server user

Full Access
Question # 126

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

Full Access
Question # 127

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 128

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBIC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules?

A.

LC to SC

B.

SC t ST

C.

SC to SC

D.

LC to LC

Full Access
Question # 129

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 130

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Full Access
Question # 131

What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address?

A.

ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

B.

2004:31c:73d9:683e:255::

C.

fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e::

D.

fe80:4433:034:0dd::2

Full Access
Question # 132

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 133

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network

Full Access
Question # 134

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Full Access
Question # 135

Refer the exhibit.

What is the cause of poor performance on router R19?

A.

excessive collisions

B.

speed and duplex mismatch

C.

port oversubscription

D.

excessive CRC errors

Full Access
Question # 136

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

A.

200 seconds

B.

300 seconds

C.

600 seconds

D.

900 seconds

Full Access
Question # 137

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Full Access
Question # 138

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 139

Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.

Full Access
Question # 140

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

Full Access
Question # 141

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 142

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

Full Access
Question # 143

When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?

A.

broadcast to all ports on the switch

B.

flooded to all ports except the origination port

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

inspected and dropped by the switch

Full Access
Question # 144

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Full Access
Question # 145

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

Full Access
Question # 146

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

A.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1

B.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89

C.

ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171

D.

ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255

Full Access
Question # 147

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 148

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.10.3

C.

10.10.10.4

D.

10.10.10.2

Full Access
Question # 149

Drag and drop the DNS commands from the left onto their effects on the right.

Full Access
Question # 150

What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center?

A.

data center network policy control

B.

console server that permits secure access to all network devices

C.

IP address pool distribution scheduler

D.

software-defined controller for automation of devices and services

Full Access
Question # 151

Which type of IPv4 address type helps to conserve the globally unique address classes?

A.

multicast

B.

private

C.

loopback

D.

public

Full Access
Question # 152

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

Full Access
Question # 153

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Full Access
Question # 154

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

Full Access
Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

Full Access
Question # 156

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

A.

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Full Access
Question # 157

Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.

Full Access
Question # 158

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

Full Access
Question # 159

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 160

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 161

Which WPA mode uses PSK authentication?

A.

Local

B.

Client

C.

Enterprise

D.

Personal

Full Access
Question # 162

Which encryption method is used by WPA3?

A.

PSK

B.

TKIP

C.

SAE

D.

AES

Full Access
Question # 163

SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configuredd in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.)

A.

Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic.

B.

Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.

C.

Enable Media Session Snooping on re WLAN.

D.

Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interface of the WLC.

E.

configure two different QoS rotes tor data and voice traffic.

Full Access
Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit.

User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IIP address 192.168.0.10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?

A.

The default gateway for site B is configured incorrectly

B.

The lack of a default route prevents delivery of the traffic

C.

The traffic is blocked by an implicit deny in an ACL on router2

D.

The traffic to 192.168.0.10 requires a static route to be configured in router 1.

Full Access
Question # 165

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 166

Drag and drop the characteristics of northbound APIs from the left onto any position on the right. Not all characteristics are used.

Full Access
Question # 167

What is the advantage of separating the control plane from the data plane within an SDN network?

A.

decreases overall network complexity

B.

limits data queries to the control plane

C.

reduces cost

D.

offloads the creation of virtual machines to the data plane

Full Access
Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

A.

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

B.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

C.

It discards the packets.

D.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.

Full Access
Question # 169

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Full Access
Question # 170

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Full Access
Question # 171

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Full Access
Question # 172

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

Full Access
Question # 173

Refer to the exhibit.

The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

Full Access
Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Full Access
Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 176

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure pre-shared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wirelesss network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

A.

Select the 802.1 x option for Auth Key Management.

B.

Select the WPA Policy option.

C.

Select the PSK option for Auth Key Management.

D.

Select the AES option for Auth Key Management.

E.

Select the AES (CCMP128) option for WPA2/WPA3 Encryption.

Full Access
Question # 177

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Full Access
Question # 178

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

Full Access
Question # 179

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

Full Access
Question # 180

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Full Access
Question # 181

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Full Access
Question # 182

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

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Question # 183

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

A.

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.

It drops the frame.

D.

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

Full Access
Question # 184

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

Full Access
Question # 185

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled state after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

Full Access
Question # 186

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1,6, and 11

C.

channels 1,5, and 11

D.

channels 1,6, and 10

Full Access
Question # 187

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Full Access
Question # 188

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

Full Access
Question # 189

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernet0/1 on router R4?

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

Full Access
Question # 190

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Full Access
Question # 191

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address?

A.

00-00-0C-07-AD-89

B.

00-00-5E-00-01-0a

C.

00-07-C0-70-AB-01

D.

00-C6-41-93-90-91

Full Access
Question # 192

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Full Access
Question # 193

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

Full Access
Question # 194

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

Full Access
Question # 195

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?

A.

propagates VLAN information between switches

B.

listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding

C.

provides DDoS mitigation

D.

rate-limits certain traffic

Full Access
Question # 196

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 197

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Full Access
Question # 198

Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?

A.

The frame has zero destination MAC addresses.

B.

The source MAC address of the frame is unknown

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses of the frame are the same

D.

The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.

Full Access
Question # 199

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

Full Access
Question # 200

Refer to the exhibit.

The administrator must configure a floating static default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3

B.

ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1

D.

ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2

Full Access
Question # 201

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Full Access
Question # 202

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165.200.225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 203

What is the purpose of an SSID?

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access points

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

Full Access
Question # 204

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

Full Access
Question # 205

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

A.

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

B.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

C.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

D.

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

Full Access
Question # 206

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Full Access
Question # 207

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 208

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Full Access
Question # 209

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

Full Access
Question # 210

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 211

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

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Question # 212

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

A.

192.168.10/24

B.

192.168.3.0/24

C.

192.168.2.0/24

D.

172.16 1.0/24

Full Access
Question # 213

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172.1.1.1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

Full Access
Question # 214

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 215

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

Full Access
Question # 216

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

A.

It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B.

It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C.

It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D.

It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Full Access
Question # 217

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

Full Access
Question # 218

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

Full Access
Question # 219

When is the PUT method used within HTTP?

A.

when a nonidempotent operation is needed

B.

to update a DNS server

C.

to display a web site

D.

when a read-only operation is required

Full Access
Question # 220

Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A.

a single destination addresss

B.

the source 10.0.1.100

C.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

D.

the 10.0.0.0 network

Full Access
Question # 221

Why choose Cisco DNA Center for automated lifecycle management?

A.

To perform upgrades without service interruption

B.

To provide fast and accurate deployment of patches and updates

C.

To allow SSH access to all nodes in the network.

D.

To provide software redundancy in the network.

Full Access
Question # 222

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Full Access
Question # 223

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 224

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?

A.

1

B.

24

C.

192.168.10.2

D.

0

Full Access
Question # 225

What are two capabilities provided by VRRP within a LAN network? (Choose two.)

A.

dynamic routing updates

B.

bandwidth optimization

C.

granular QoS

D.

load sharing

E.

redundancy

Full Access
Question # 226

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP addressss for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 froin the border router?

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Full Access
Question # 227

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport

Full Access
Question # 228

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addressses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addressses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Full Access
Question # 229

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

Full Access
Question # 230

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects, keys and JSDN list values are present?

A.

three objects, two keys, and three JSDN list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSDN Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSDN list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSDN list values

Full Access
Question # 231

What is the role of syslog level 7 in network device health monitoring?

A.

It provides information about error conditions visible on the network device.

B.

It shares normal operational messages froin the network equipment.

C.

It sends outputs from various debug commands on the device.

D.

It warns about emergency conditions on the network appliance.

Full Access
Question # 232

What describes a northbound REST API for SDN?

A.

application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests

B.

network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods

C.

network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes

D.

application-facing interface for GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

Full Access
Question # 233

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.

A spine switch is added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C.

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

Full Access
Question # 234

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?

A.

255.255.224.0

B.

255.255.255.0

C.

255.255.255.192

D.

255.255.255.252

Full Access
Question # 235

What describes the functionality of southbound APIs?

A.

They use HTTP messages to communicate.

B.

They enable communication between the controller and the network device.

C.

They convey information from the controller to the SDN applications.

D.

They communicate with the management plane.

Full Access
Question # 236

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.)

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::2 5

C.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 5

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

Full Access
Question # 237

What is the main capability of multifactor authentication?

A.

Identifying permissions for end users using three authentication factors

B.

Authenticating and authorizing end users using two authentication factors

C.

Confirming end-user identity using two or more authentication factors

D.

Verifying end-user access permissions using two authentication factors

Full Access
Question # 238

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

Full Access
Question # 239

Which advantage does machine learning offer for network security?

A.

It improves real-time threat detection

B.

It enforces password complexity requirements

C.

It manages firewall rule sets

D.

It controls VPN access permissions

Full Access
Question # 240

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Full Access
Question # 241

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R2 are configured with RIP as the dynamic routing protocol. A network engineer must configure R1 with a floating static route to serve as a backup route to network 192.168.23.0. Which command must the engineer configure on R1?

A.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.13.3 121

B.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 100

C.

ip route 192.168.23.0 265.255.255.0 192.168.13.3 121

D.

ip route 192.168.23.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.13.3

Full Access
Question # 242

What does traffic shaping do?

A.

It modifies the QoS attributes of a packet

B.

It queues excess traffic

C.

It organizes traffic into classes.

D.

It sets QoS attributes within a packet.

Full Access
Question # 243

What is a function of Layer 3 switches?

A.

They route traffic between devices in different VLANs.

B.

They forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addressses.

C.

They move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresssses.

D.

They transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively.

Full Access
Question # 244

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addressses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Full Access
Question # 245

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addresssing?

A.

alleviates the shortage of IPv4 addressses

B.

reduces the forwarding table on network routers

C.

enables secure connectivity over the internet

D.

used as the NAT outside global IP addressss

Full Access
Question # 246

What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

A.

Automated systems may have difficulty expanding network changes at scale.

B.

Network automation typically is limited to the configuration and management of virtual devices within a network.

C.

Network automation typically increases enterprise management operating costs.

D.

Manual changes frequently lead to configuration errors and inconsistencies.

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Question # 247

What are two lacts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)

A.

It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables.

B.

It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture.

C.

It provides greater throughput options.

D.

It carries signals for longer distances.

E.

It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices.

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Question # 248

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

bad NIC

C.

high throughput

D.

broadcast storm

Full Access
Question # 249

What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?

A.

To identify a resource on a target server.

B.

To transport data or payload to a remote resource.

C.

To specify the way in which a remote resource is modified.

D.

To respond with the data content encoding for a request.

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Question # 250

Refer to the exhibit. Which functionalities will this SSID have while being used by wirelesss clients?

A.

decreases network security against offline dictionary attacks and encourages easy access to the network

B.

increases network security against offline dictionary attacks and discourages time-consuming brute force attacks

C.

increases network security against man in the middle attacks and discourages denial of service attacks

D.

decreases network security against air sniffing attacks and discourages the use of complex passwords

Full Access
Question # 251

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

A.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

B.

Configure high availability and redundancy tor the access points.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to It.

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Question # 252

What is a characteristic of an SSID in wirelesss networks?

A.

provides protection against spyware

B.

eliminates network piggybacking

C.

associates a name to a wirelesss network

D.

allows easy file sharing between endpoints

Full Access
Question # 253

Refer to the exhibit.

Network services must be enabled on interface Gil/0734. Which configuration meets the needs for this implementation?

A)

B)

C)

D)

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Full Access
Question # 254

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?

A.

It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.

B.

It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization

C.

It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration

D.

It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode

Full Access
Question # 255

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D.

ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 256

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 257

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Question # 258

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?

A.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces

B.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

C.

Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical

D.

Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

Full Access
Question # 259

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

Full Access
Question # 260

What are network endpoints?

A.

act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network

B.

a threat to the network if they are compromised

C.

support inter-VLAN connectivity

D.

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

Full Access
Question # 261

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Full Access
Question # 262

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Full Access
Question # 263

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Full Access
Question # 264

What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closer? (Choose two.)

A.

enable the PortFast feature on ports

B.

implement port-based authentication

C.

configure static ARP entries

D.

configure ports to a fixed speed

E.

shut down unused ports

Full Access
Question # 265

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Full Access
Question # 266

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Full Access
Question # 267

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Full Access
Question # 268

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?

A.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link

B.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen

D.

The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen

Full Access
Question # 269

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

Full Access
Question # 270

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Full Access
Question # 271

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable ping router R3 Fa0/1.

Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Full Access
Question # 272

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

Full Access
Question # 273

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

Full Access
Question # 274

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

Full Access
Question # 275

What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?

A.

It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.

B.

It provides detailed activity logging for the 10 devices and users on the network.

C.

It summarizes the operational status of each wireless device on the network.

D.

It summarizes daily and weekly CPU usage for servers and workstations in the network.

Full Access
Question # 276

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

Full Access
Question # 277

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

Full Access
Question # 278

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

Full Access
Question # 279

What is the function of a server?

A.

It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.

B.

It provides shared applications to end users.

C.

It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.

D.

It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Full Access
Question # 280

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Full Access
Question # 281

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

Full Access
Question # 282

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Full Access
Question # 283

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 284

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Full Access
Question # 285

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)

A.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN.

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

D.

The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

Full Access
Question # 286

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Full Access
Question # 287

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

Full Access
Question # 288

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Full Access
Question # 289

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Full Access
Question # 290

An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)

A.

configure the helto and dead timers to match on both sides

B.

configure the same process ID for the router OSPF process

C.

configure the same router ID on both routing processes

D.

Configure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.

E.

configure both interfaces with the same area ID

Full Access
Question # 291

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Full Access
Question # 292

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

Full Access
Question # 293

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

Full Access
Question # 294

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Full Access
Question # 295

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

Full Access
Question # 296

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Full Access
Question # 297

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Full Access
Question # 298

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Full Access
Question # 299

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Full Access
Question # 300

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the comeback timer to 10

Full Access
Question # 301

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

Full Access
Question # 302

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Full Access
Question # 303

Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?

A.

in the MAC address table

B.

in the CAM table

C.

in the binding database

D.

in the frame forwarding database

Full Access
Question # 304

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

A.

They prevent (loops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Full Access
Question # 305

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

Full Access
Question # 306

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

Full Access
Question # 307

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

Full Access
Question # 308

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

Full Access
Question # 309

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Full Access
Question # 310

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Full Access