A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?
Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A.
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D?
Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?
• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters
• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by "R1" and "SW1" within the JSON output?
A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch AccSw2 has just been added to the network along with PC2. All VLANs have been implemented on AccSw2. How must the ports on AccSw2 be configured to establish Layer 2 connectivity between PC1 and PC2?
To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?
An engineer is configuring SSH version 2 exclusively on the R1 router. What is the minimum configuration required to permit remote management using the cryptographic protocol?
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Drag and drop the AAA lerms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Which part of the HTTP request is used in REST API basic authentication to carry credentials?
A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2. Which command meets the requirements?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows TCP ports 20 and 21 through the firewall?
Refer to the exhibit.
A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:
• accommodates current configured VLANs
• expands the range to include VLAN 20
• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs
Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 must be implemented on R1 to the ISP The uplink between R1 and the ISP must be configured with a manual assignment, and the LAN interface must be self-provisioned Both connections must use the applicable IPv6 networks Which two configurations must be applied to R1? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.
A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?
What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP
What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a subnet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
Refer to the exhibit.
Rooter R1 is added to the network and configured with tie 10 0 0 64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets However traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not access. Which command when executed on R1 defines a tunic route to reach the R3 LAN?
A)
B)
C)
Refer to the exhibit.
PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. Users at a branch office are experiencing application performance issues, poor VoIP audio quality, and slow downloads. What is the cause of the issues?
Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?
Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:
• The first subnet must support 24 hosts
• The second subnet must support 472 hosts
• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block
Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be issued to enable a floating static default route on router A?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Which value is the unique identifier that an access point uses to establish and maintain wireless connectivity to wireless network devices?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?
Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wireless network running WPA3-Personal mode?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Refer to the exhibit.
How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?
Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?
Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?
Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
Which switch port configuration must be configured when connected to an AP running in FlexConnect mode, and the WLANs use flex local switching?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?
Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?
Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate, register, and accept terms before accessing the internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the metric for the route to the 192.168.10.33 host?
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP address of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:
Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.
Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.
Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the correct next hop for router R1 to reach IP addresses 192.168.2.86 and 10.20.1.50?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users will be using a preconfigured secret key and SSID and must have a secured key hashing algorithm configured. The AAA server must not be used for the user authentication method. Which action completes the task?
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)
Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must document all Wi-Fi services on a new wireless LAN controller. The Wi-Fi SSID "Office_WLan" has Layer 2 Security. What is determined by this configuration?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6
O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16
R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23
Refer to the exhibit. Which tasks must be performed on the Download File tab to install new software using TCP port 22?)
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.
Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that in ASCll format?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
Refer to the exhibit.
Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right
Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?
Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Refer to the exhibit.
When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Drag and drop the functions of DHCP from the left onto any of the positions on the right Not all functions are used
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
Refer to the exhibit.
What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)