Spring Sale Special - Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: mxmas70

Home > Cisco > CyberOps Associate > 200-201

200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Question and Answers

Question # 4

A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack?

A.

malware author

B.

threat actor

C.

bug bounty hunter

D.

direct competitor

Full Access
Question # 5

Which tool is used by threat actors on a webpage to take advantage of the software vulnerabilities of a system to spread malware?

A.

script kiddie kit

B.

exploit kit

C.

vulnerability kit

D.

root kit

Full Access
Question # 6

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Full Access
Question # 7

Which evasion method is being used when TLS is observed between two endpoints?

A.

Obfuscation

B.

Encryption

C.

X.509 certificate authentication

D.

Traffic insertion

Full Access
Question # 8

An engineer needs to configure network systems to detect command and control communications by decrypting ingress and egress perimeter traffic and allowing network security devices to detect malicious outbound communications. Which technology should be used to accomplish the task?

A.

digital certificates

B.

static IP addresses

C.

signatures

D.

cipher suite

Full Access
Question # 9

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC engineer is analyzing Cuckoo Sandbox report for a file that has been identified as suspicious by the endpoint security system. What is the state of the file?

A.

The file was identified as PE32 executable with a high level of entropy to bypass AV via encryption.

B.

The file was detected as an executable binary file, but no suspicious activity was detected and it is false positive.

C.

The file was detected as executable and was marked by the SSDeep hashing algorithm as suspicious.

D.

The file identified as an executable binary for Microsoft Word with macros creating hidden process via PowerShell.

Full Access
Question # 10

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

A.

companyassets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

Full Access
Question # 11

The security team has detected an ongoing spam campaign targeting the organization. The team's approach is to push back the cyber kill chain and mitigate ongoing incidents. At which phase of the cyber kill chain should the security team mitigate this type of attack?

A.

actions

B.

delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

installation

Full Access
Question # 12

How is NetFlow different from traffic mirroring?

A.

NetFlow collects metadata and traffic mirroring clones data.

B.

Traffic mirroring impacts switch performance and NetFlow does not.

C.

Traffic mirroring costs less to operate than NetFlow.

D.

NetFlow generates more data than traffic mirroring.

Full Access
Question # 13

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

man-in-the-middle attack

C.

brute-force attack

D.

ARP spoofing attack

Full Access
Question # 14

Which type of attack is a blank email with the subject "price deduction" that contains a malicious attachment?

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

smishing

C.

phishing attack

D.

integrity violation

Full Access
Question # 15

Which statement describes indicators of attack?

A.

internal hosts communicate with countries outside of the business range.

B.

Phishing attempts on an organization are blocked by mall AV.

C.

Critical patches are missing.

D.

A malicious file is detected by the AV software.

Full Access
Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit.

What should be interpreted from this packet capture?

A.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using UDP protocol.

B.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using TCP protocol.

C.

192.168.122.100 is sending a packet from port 80 to port 50272 of IP address 81.179.179.69 using UDP protocol.

D.

81.179.179.69 is sending a packet from port 50272 to port 80 of IP address 192.168.122.100 using TCP UDP protocol.

Full Access
Question # 17

An analyst see that this security alert "Default-Botnet-Communication-Detection-By-Endpoint" has been raised from the IPS. The analyst checks and finds that an endpoint communicates to the C&C. How must an impact from this event be categorized?

A.

true positive

B.

true negative

C.

false positive

D.

false negative

Full Access
Question # 18

A security analyst reviews the firewall and observes the large number of frequent events. The analyst starts the packet capture with the Wireshark and identifies that TCP port reuse was detected incorrectly as a TCP split-handshake attack by the firewall. How must an impact from this event be categorized?

A.

false positive

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false negative

Full Access
Question # 19

In digital communications, which method is recommended for securely exchanging public keys between users T0n2262144790 and D4n4126220794?

A.

Hardware Security Module

B.

Automated Certificate Management Environment

C.

Pretty Good Privacy

D.

Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions

Full Access
Question # 20

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

Full Access
Question # 21

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

Full Access
Question # 22

Which security principle is violated by running all processes as root or administrator?

A.

principle of least privilege

B.

role-based access control

C.

separation of duties

D.

trusted computing base

Full Access
Question # 23

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Full Access
Question # 24

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

scope

Full Access
Question # 25

Which event is user interaction?

A.

gaining root access

B.

executing remote code

C.

reading and writing file permission

D.

opening a malicious file

Full Access
Question # 26

Which process represents the application-level allow list?

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

Full Access
Question # 27

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

A.

Vaporization

B.

Delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

Action on objectives

Full Access
Question # 28

What should a security analyst consider when comparing inline traffic interrogation with traffic tapping to determine which approach to use in the network?

A.

Tapping interrogation replicates signals to a separate port for analyzing traffic

B.

Tapping interrogations detect and block malicious traffic

C.

Inline interrogation enables viewing a copy of traffic to ensure traffic is in compliance with security policies

D.

Inline interrogation detects malicious traffic but does not block the traffic

Full Access
Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit. What occurred on this system based on this output?

A.

A user connected to the system using remote access VPN.

B.

A user created a new HTTP session using the SHA256 hashing algorithm.

C.

A user connected to the system after 450 attempts.

D.

A user connected to the system using SSH using source port 55796.

Full Access
Question # 30

What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?

A.

Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time

B.

Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

C.

Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior

D.

Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

Full Access
Question # 31

What is a description of "phishing" as a social engineering attack"?

A.

Someone without the proper authentication follows an authenticated employee into a restricted area The attacker might impersonate a delivery driver and wait outside a building to get things started

B.

A hacker masquerading as a trusted entity, dupes a victim into opening an email, instant message, or text message The recipient is then tricked into clicking a malicious link.

C.

The attacker focuses on creating a good pretext or a fabricated scenario that is used to try and steal victims' personal information

D.

Fake Social Security Administration personnel contact random individuals inform them that there has been a computer problem on their end and ask that those individuals confirm their Social Security Number, all for the purpose of committing identity theft.

Full Access
Question # 32

What is the difference between an attack vector and attack surface?

A.

An attack surface identifies vulnerabilities that require user input or validation; and an attack vector identifies vulnerabilities that are independent of user actions.

B.

An attack vector identifies components that can be exploited, and an attack surface identifies the potential path an attack can take to penetrate the network.

C.

An attack surface recognizes which network parts are vulnerable to an attack; and an attack vector identifies which attacks are possible with these vulnerabilities.

D.

An attack vector identifies the potential outcomes of an attack; and an attack surface launches an attack using several methods against the identified vulnerabilities.

Full Access
Question # 33

Refer to the exhibit.

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

A.

Z

B.

ID

C.

TC

D.

QR

Full Access
Question # 34

What is sliding window anomaly detection?

A.

Detect changes in operations and management processes.

B.

Identify uncommon patterns that do not fit usual behavior.

C.

Define response times for requests for owned applications.

D.

Apply lowest privilege/permission level to software

Full Access
Question # 35

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

Full Access
Question # 36

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

A.

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

Full Access
Question # 37

Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?

A.

identify the minimum resource required per employee.

B.

Assign the least network privileges to segment network permissions.

C.

Provide the minimum permissions needed to perform Job functions.

D.

Disable administrative accounts to avoid unauthorized changes.

Full Access
Question # 38

Which attack method intercepts traffic on a switched network?

A.

denial of service

B.

ARP cache poisoning

C.

DHCP snooping

D.

command and control

Full Access
Question # 39

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

Full Access
Question # 40

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Full Access
Question # 41

A company had a recent breach and lost confidential data to a competitor. An internal investigation found out that a new junior accounting specialist logged in to the accounting server with their user ID and stole confidential data. The junior accounting specialist denies the action and claims that the attempt was done by someone else. During court proceedings, the company presents logs and CCTV camera recordings that show the malicious insider in action. Which type of evidence has the company presented?

A.

indirect and corroborative

B.

direct and corroborative

C.

circumstantial and direct

D.

corroborative and substantive

Full Access
Question # 42

What is a difference between authorization and authentication from an access control perspective?

A.

Authorization defines the author of a specific resource and authentication gives access to the resource itself

B.

Authentication is when the system validates if the user is valid, and authorization enforces and provides resources assigned and required.

C.

Authentication is responsible for accounting access on system resources and the authorization process defines if a user is allowed to author the resource

D.

Authorization tracks if a certain user is authenticated within the system, and authentication is responsible for identifying the authorization method

Full Access
Question # 43

How is SQL injection prevented?

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

Full Access
Question # 44

What do host-based firewalls protect workstations from?

A.

zero-day vulnerabilities

B.

unwanted traffic

C.

malicious web scripts

D.

viruses

Full Access
Question # 45

An intruder attempted malicious activity and exchanged emails with a user and received corporate information, including email distribution lists. The intruder asked the user to engage with a link in an email. When the fink launched, it infected machines and the intruder was able to access the corporate network.

Which testing method did the intruder use?

A.

social engineering

B.

eavesdropping

C.

piggybacking

D.

tailgating

Full Access
Question # 46

What is obtained using NetFlow?

A.

session data

B.

application logs

C.

network downtime report

D.

full packet capture

Full Access
Question # 47

What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?

A.

crgrrgre

B.

np+e

C.

c(rgr)e

D.

ce

Full Access
Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit.

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

Full Access
Question # 49

An employee of a company receives an email with an attachment. They notice that this email is from a suspicious source, and they decide not to open the attached file. After further investigation, a security analyst concludes that this file is malware. To which category of the Cyber Kill Chain model does this event belong?

A.

Weaponization

B.

Installation

C.

Exploitation

D.

Delivery

Full Access
Question # 50

An organization is cooperating with several third-party companies. Data exchange is on an unsecured channel using port 80 Internal employees use the FTP service to upload and download sensitive data An engineer must ensure confidentiality while preserving the integrity of the communication. Which technology must the engineer implement in this scenario'?

A.

X.509 certificates

B.

RADIUS server

C.

CA server

D.

web application firewall

Full Access
Question # 51

According to CVSS, which condition is required for attack complexity metrics?

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

attackers altering any file

C.

complete loss of protection

D.

total loss of availability

Full Access
Question # 52

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

Full Access
Question # 53

What specific type of analysis is assigning values to the scenario to see expected outcomes?

A.

deterministic

B.

exploratory

C.

probabilistic

D.

descriptive

Full Access
Question # 54

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

A.

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.

The total incident escalations per week.

C.

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.

The total incident escalations per month.

Full Access
Question # 55

Which scenario describes a social engineering attack?

A.

Malicious insider trying to gather information on company security

B.

Text message pretending to be from a legitimate company with a malicious URL inside

C.

Suspicious file detected on a workstation

D.

Company with a recent data breach where confidential information was stolen

Full Access
Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Which frame numbers contain a file that is extractable via TCP stream within Wireshark?

A.

7,14, and 21

B.

7 and 21

C.

14,16,18, and 19

D.

7 to 21

Full Access
Question # 57

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

A.

Base64 encoding

B.

TLS encryption

C.

SHA-256 hashing

D.

ROT13 encryption

Full Access
Question # 58

Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker gained initial access to the company s network and ran an Nmap scan to advance with the lateral movement technique and to search the sensitive data Which two elements can an attacker identify from the scan? (Choose two.)

A.

workload and the configuration details

B.

user accounts and SID

C.

number of users and requests that the server is handling

D.

functionality and purpose of the server

E.

running services

Full Access
Question # 59

What is the difference between attack surface and vulnerability?

A.

An attack surface is a way of taking advantage of a system or resource, and a vulnerability is a specific technique utilized by the vulnerability.

B.

A vulnerability describes how software or a system is exposed to potential attacks, and an attack surface is an actual weakness that exposes the potential risk.

C.

A vulnerability is a way of taking advantage of a system or resource, and an attack surface is a specific technique utilized by the vulnerability.

D.

An attack surface describes how software or a system is exposed to potential attacks, and a vulnerability is an actual weakness that exposes the potential risk.

Full Access
Question # 60

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be interpreted from this packet capture?

A.

IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol

B.

IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

C.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.

D.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

Full Access
Question # 61

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

Full Access
Question # 62

What ate two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

split brain

B.

scanning

C.

phishing

D.

reflected

E.

direct

Full Access
Question # 63

Which SOC metric represents the time to stop the incident from causing further damage to systems or data?

A.

Mean Time to Acknowledge (MTTA)

B.

Mean Time to Detect (MTTR)

C.

Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)

D.

Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)

Full Access
Question # 64

Drag and drop the uses on the left onto the type of security system on the right.

Full Access
Question # 65

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag?

A.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag terminates spontaneous connections.

B.

The ACK flag confirms the received segment, and the RST flag terminates the connection.

C.

The RST flag approves the connection, and the ACK flag indicates that a packet needs to be resent

D.

The ACK flag marks the connection as reliable, and the RST flag indicates the failure within TCP Handshake

Full Access
Question # 66

What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-based detection?

A.

Signature-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while behavior-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

B.

Behavior-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while signature-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

C.

Behavior-based uses a known vulnerability database, while signature-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

D.

Signature-based uses a known vulnerability database, while behavior-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

Full Access
Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit.

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

Full Access
Question # 68

What is the impact of encapsulation on the network?

A.

Something significant is concealed from virtually separate networks.

B.

Logically separate functions in the network are abstracted from their underlying structures.

C.

Numerous local private addresses are mapped to a public one before the data is moved.

D.

Web requests are taken on behalf of users and the response is collected from the web.

Full Access
Question # 69

A security specialist is investigating an incident regarding a recent major breach in the organization. The accounting data from a 24-month period is affected due to a trojan detected in a department's critical server. A security analyst investigates the incident and discovers that an incident response team member who detected a trojan during regular AV scans had made an image of the server for evidence purposes. The security analyst made animage again to compare the hashes of the two images, and they appeared to differ and do not match. Which type of evidence is the security analyst dealing with?

A.

checksum violated image

B.

integrity violated image

C.

untampered image

D.

tampered image

Full Access
Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit. Which alert is identified from this packet?

A.

SYN flood

B.

SSDP amplification

C.

Fraggle attack

D.

TCP fragmentation attack

Full Access
Question # 71

Which technique obtains information about how the system works without knowing it's design details?

A.

DDOS attack

B.

reverse engineering

C.

DNS spoofing

D.

malware analysis

Full Access
Question # 72

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

A.

by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B.

by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server

C.

by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server

D.

by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

Full Access
Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

Full Access
Question # 74

Which type of data is used to detect anomalies in the network?

A.

statistical data

B.

alert data

C.

transaction data

D.

metadata

Full Access
Question # 75

A network engineer discovers that a foreign government hacked one of the defense contractors in their home country and stole intellectual property. What is the threat agent in this situation?

A.

the intellectual property that was stolen

B.

the defense contractor who stored the intellectual property

C.

the method used to conduct the attack

D.

the foreign government that conducted the attack

Full Access
Question # 76

What is threat hunting?

A.

Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.

B.

Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.

C.

Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.

D.

Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability

Full Access
Question # 77

Refer to the exhibit.

A SOC analyst received a message from SIEM about abnormal activity on the Windows server The analyst checked the Windows event log and saw numerous Audit Failures logs. What is occurring?

A.

Windows failed to audit the logs

B.

regular Windows log

C.

brute-force attack

D.

DoS attack

Full Access
Question # 78

Which action prevents buffer overflow attacks?

A.

variable randomization

B.

using web based applications

C.

input sanitization

D.

using a Linux operating system

Full Access
Question # 79

Drag and drop the access control models from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Full Access
Question # 80

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

A.

The mail client is communicating on port 465.

B.

The Seq and Ack numbers are altered

C.

Mail communication is not encrypted.

D.

The SMTP relay service is running.

Full Access
Question # 81

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

Full Access
Question # 82

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker scanned the server using Nmap. What did the attacker obtain from this scan?

A.

Identified a firewall device preventing the pert state from being returned.

B.

Identified open SMB ports on the server

C.

Gathered information on processes running on the server

D.

Gathered a list of Active Directory users

Full Access
Question # 83

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

Full Access
Question # 84

What is the key difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

A.

DAC is controlled by the OS, and MAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

B.

DAC is the most strict access control, and MAC is object-based access.

C.

MAC is controlled by the OS, and DAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

D.

MAC is the most strict access control, and DAC is object-based access.

Full Access
Question # 85

An organization's security team has detected network spikes coming from the internal network. An investigation has concluded that the spike in traffic was from intensive network scanning How should the analyst collect the traffic to isolate the suspicious host?

A.

by most active source IP

B.

by most used ports

C.

based on the protocols used

D.

based on the most used applications

Full Access
Question # 86

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

Full Access
Question # 87

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

separation of duties

D.

due diligence

Full Access
Question # 88

One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems. What does CIA mean in this context?

A.

confidentiality, identity, and authorization

B.

confidentiality, integrity, and authorization

C.

confidentiality, identity, and availability

D.

confidentiality, integrity, and availability

Full Access
Question # 89

What is a collection of compromised machines that attackers use to carry out a DDoS attack?

A.

subnet

B.

botnet

C.

VLAN

D.

command and control

Full Access
Question # 90

Which statement describes threat hunting?

A.

It is an activity by an entity to deliberately bring down critical internal servers.

B.

It is a prevention activity to detect signs of intrusion, compromise, data theft, abnormalities, or malicious activity.

C.

It includes any activity that might go after competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their systems.

D.

It is a vulnerability assessment conducted by cyber professionals.

Full Access
Question # 91

An engineer is working with the compliance teams to identify the data passing through the network. During analysis, the engineer informs the compliance team that external penmeter data flows contain records, writings, and artwork Internal segregated network flows contain the customer choices by gender, addresses, and product preferences by age. The engineer must identify protected data. Which two types of data must be identified'? (Choose two.)

A.

SOX

B.

PII

C.

PHI

D.

PCI

E.

copyright

Full Access
Question # 92

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?

A.

sequence numbers

B.

IP identifier

C.

5-tuple

D.

timestamps

Full Access
Question # 93

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

Full Access
Question # 94

Which statement describes patch management?

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

Full Access
Question # 95

Drag and drop the definitions from the left onto the phases on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

Full Access
Question # 96

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

Full Access
Question # 97

Which technology assures that the information transferred from point A to point B is unaltered and authentic?

A.

Subject Alternative Name

B.

Trust anchor

C.

Digital certificates

D.

EMV signatures

Full Access
Question # 98

Which risk approach eliminates activities posing a risk exposure?

A.

risk acknowledgment

B.

risk avoidance

C.

risk reduction

D.

risk retention

Full Access
Question # 99

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

Full Access
Question # 100

Which type of attack uses a botnet to reflect requests off of an NTP server to overwhelm a target?

A.

Display

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Distributed denial of service

D.

Denial of service

Full Access
Question # 101

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

Full Access
Question # 102

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

A.

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

Full Access
Question # 103

An employee reports that someone has logged into their system and made unapproved changes, files are out of order, and several documents have been placed in the recycle bin. The security specialist reviewed the system logs, found nothing suspicious, and was not able to determine what occurred. The software is up to date; there are no alerts from antivirus and no failed login attempts. What is causing the lack of data visibility needed to detect the attack?

A.

The threat actor used a dictionary-based password attack to obtain credentials.

B.

The threat actor gained access to the system by known credentials.

C.

The threat actor used the teardrop technique to confuse and crash login services.

D.

The threat actor used an unknown vulnerability of the operating system that went undetected.

Full Access
Question # 104

Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?

A.

time it takes to detect the incident

B.

time it takes to assess the risks of the incident

C.

probability of outage caused by the incident

D.

probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident

Full Access
Question # 105

What are two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

A.

split brain

B.

phishing

C.

direct

D.

reflected

E.

scanning

Full Access
Question # 106

Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

A.

decision making

B.

rapid response

C.

data mining

D.

due diligence

Full Access
Question # 107

Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?

A.

configuration

B.

vulnerability

C.

asset

D.

patch

Full Access
Question # 108

What is data encapsulation?

A.

Browsing history is erased automatically with every session.

B.

The protocol of the sending host adds additional data to the packet header.

C.

Data is encrypted backwards, which makes it unusable.

D.

Multiple hosts can be supported with only a few public IP addresses.

Full Access
Question # 109

How does TOR alter data content during transit?

A.

It spoofs the destination and source information protecting both sides.

B.

It encrypts content and destination information over multiple layers.

C.

It redirects destination traffic through multiple sources avoiding traceability.

D.

It traverses source traffic through multiple destinations before reaching the receiver

Full Access
Question # 110

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

A.

any potential danger to an asset

B.

the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment

C.

an exploitable weakness in a system or its design

D.

the individuals who perform an attack

Full Access
Question # 111

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?

A.

insert TCP subdissectors

B.

extract a file from a packet capture

C.

disable TCP streams

D.

unfragment TCP

Full Access
Question # 112

What should an engineer use to aid the trusted exchange of public keys between user tom0411976943 and dan1968754032?

A.

central key management server

B.

web of trust

C.

trusted certificate authorities

D.

registration authority data

Full Access
Question # 113

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

A.

transaction data

B.

statistical data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

Full Access
Question # 114

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

A.

A vulnerability is a sum of possible malicious entry points, and a risk represents the possibility of the unauthorized entry itself.

B.

A risk is a potential threat that an exploit applies to, and a vulnerability represents the threat itself

C.

A vulnerability represents a flaw in a security that can be exploited, and the risk is the potential damage it might cause.

D.

A risk is potential threat that adversaries use to infiltrate the network, and a vulnerability is an exploit

Full Access
Question # 115

What is a scareware attack?

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Full Access
Question # 116

Drag and drop the data sources from the left onto the corresponding data types on the right.

Full Access
Question # 117

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

Full Access
Question # 118

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

A.

evidence collection order

B.

data integrity

C.

data preservation

D.

volatile data collection

Full Access
Question # 119

A security team receives a ticket to investigate suspicious emails sent to company employees from known malicious domains. Further analysis shows that a targeted phishing attempt was successfully blocked by the company’s email antivirus. At which step of the Cyber Kill Chain did the security team mitigate this attack?

A.

Delivery

B.

Actions on Objectives

C.

Command and Control

D.

Weaponization

Full Access
Question # 120

A compliance analyst receives a complaint from a customer regarding personal data being unlawfully retained despite a deletion request. The company is based in Europe and must comply with GDPR. The only data collected is the email address 0524l9i75@gmail.com. How should the compliance analyst act?

A.

Do not delete the data — the email address is not considered PII

B.

Delete the data regardless of where the customer is from

C.

Delete the data if the customer is from the EU

D.

Notify the legal team about a data compliance breach

Full Access
Question # 121

An analyst performs traffic analysis to detect data exfiltration and identifies a high frequency of DNS requests in a small period of time Which technology makes this behavior feasible?

A.

access control list

B.

NAT

C.

tunneling

D.

encryption

Full Access
Question # 122

What is a difference between inline traffic interrogation and traffic mirroring?

A.

Inline inspection acts on the original traffic data flow

B.

Traffic mirroring passes live traffic to a tool for blocking

C.

Traffic mirroring inspects live traffic for analysis and mitigation

D.

Inline traffic copies packets for analysis and security

Full Access
Question # 123

An engineer received an alert affecting the degraded performance of a critical server. Analysis showed a heavy CPU and memory load. What is the next step the engineer should take to investigate this resource usage?

A.

Run "ps -d" to decrease the priority state of high load processes to avoid resource exhaustion.

B.

Run "ps -u" to find out who executed additional processes that caused a high load on a server.

C.

Run "ps -ef" to understand which processes are taking a high amount of resources.

D.

Run "ps -m" to capture the existing state of daemons and map required processes to find the gap.

Full Access
Question # 124

What is the difference between a threat and an exploit?

A.

A threat is a result of utilizing flow in a system, and an exploit is a result of gaining control over the system.

B.

A threat is a potential attack on an asset and an exploit takes advantage of the vulnerability of the asset

C.

An exploit is an attack vector, and a threat is a potential path the attack must go through.

D.

An exploit is an attack path, and a threat represents a potential vulnerability

Full Access
Question # 125

A forensic investigator is analyzing a recent breach case. An external USB drive was discovered to be connected and transmitting the data outside of the organization, and the owner of the USB drive could not be identified. Video surveillance shows six people during a two-month period had close contact with the affected asset. How must this type of evidence be categorized?

A.

Indirect evidence

B.

Direct evidence

C.

Corroborative evidence

D.

Best evidence

Full Access
Question # 126

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the message indicate?

A.

an access attempt was made from the Mosaic web browser

B.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

C.

a successful access attempt was made to retrieve the root of the website

D.

a denied access attempt was made to retrieve the password file

Full Access
Question # 127

What is an advantage of symmetric over asymmetric encryption?

A.

A key is generated on demand according to data type.

B.

A one-time encryption key is generated for data transmission

C.

It is suited for transmitting large amounts of data.

D.

It is a faster encryption mechanism for sessions

Full Access
Question # 128

What is the functionality of an IDS'?

A.

device or software that detects and blocks suspicious files

B.

endpoint protection software that prevents viruses and malware

C.

forensic tool used to perform an in-depth analysis and debugging

D.

software or device which monitors and identifies malicious network activity

Full Access
Question # 129

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

Full Access
Question # 130

What is a difference between SOAR and SIEM?

A.

SOAR platforms are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SIEM applications are not

B.

SIEM applications are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SOAR platforms are not

C.

SOAR receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SIEM

D.

SIEM receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SOAR

Full Access
Question # 131

What is a Heartbleed vulnerability?

A.

information disclosure

B.

buffer overflow

C.

denial of service

D.

command injection

Full Access
Question # 132

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

A.

sandbox

B.

application allow list

C.

application block list

D.

host-based firewall

Full Access
Question # 133

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

A.

post-incident activity

B.

detection and analysis

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

Full Access
Question # 134

During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract information from the collected data?

A.

investigation

B.

examination

C.

reporting

D.

collection

Full Access
Question # 135

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

A.

incorrect TCP handshake

B.

incorrect UDP handshake

C.

incorrect OSI configuration

D.

incorrect snaplen configuration

Full Access
Question # 136

What is a difference between rule-based and role-based access control mechanisms?

A.

Rule-based are simple and easy to execute, and role-based are well-defined.

B.

Role-based are an appropriate choice in geographically diverse workgroups, and rule-based are for simply structured workgroups.

C.

Rule-based are less granular, and role-based have time constraints.

D.

Role-based are efficient in small workgroups, and rule-based are preferred in time-defined workgroups.

Full Access
Question # 137

How does a certificate authority impact security?

A.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

B.

It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

D.

It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.

Full Access
Question # 138

What causes events on a Windows system to show Event Code 4625 in the log messages?

A.

The system detected an XSS attack

B.

Someone is trying a brute force attack on the network

C.

Another device is gaining root access to the system

D.

A privileged user successfully logged into the system

Full Access
Question # 139

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

A.

SQL injection

B.

cross-site scripting

C.

cross-site request forgery

D.

command injection

Full Access
Question # 140

An analyst received a ticket about degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed disabled antivirus software and could not determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

A.

Detection

B.

Analysis

C.

Eradication

D.

Recovery

Full Access
Question # 141

When an event is investigated, which type of data provides the investigate capability to determine if data exfiltration has occurred?

A.

full packet capture

B.

NetFlow data

C.

session data

D.

firewall logs

Full Access
Question # 142

Which two measures are used by the defense-m-depth strategy? (Choose two)

A.

Bridge the single connection into multiple.

B.

Divide the network into parts

C.

Split packets into pieces.

D.

Reduce the load on network devices.

E.

Implement the patch management process

Full Access