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156-315.81 Check Point Certified Security Expert R81 Question and Answers

Question # 4

What processes does CPM control?

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

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Question # 5

Can multiple administrators connect to a Security Management Server at the same time?

A.

No, only one can be connected

B.

Yes, all administrators can modify a network object at the same time

C.

Yes, every administrator has their own username, and works in a session that is independent of other administrators.

D.

Yes, but only one has the right to write.

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Question # 6

What is the port used for SmartConsole to connect to the Security Management Server?

A.

CPMI port 18191/TCP

B.

CPM port/TCP port 19009

C.

SIC port 18191/TCP

D.

https port 4434/TCP

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Question # 7

You need to see which hotfixes are installed on your gateway, which command would you use?

A.

cpinfo –h all

B.

cpinfo –o hotfix

C.

cpinfo –l hotfix

D.

cpinfo –y all

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Question # 8

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

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Question # 9

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

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Question # 10

What is the most recommended way to install patches and hotfixes?

A.

CPUSE Check Point Update Service Engine

B.

rpm -Uv

C.

Software Update Service

D.

UnixinstallScript

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Question # 11

As an administrator, you may be required to add the company logo to reports. To do this, you would save the logo as a PNG file with the name ‘cover-company-logo.png’ and then copy that image file to which directory on the SmartEvent server?

A.

SFWDIR/smartevent/conf

B.

$RTDIR/smartevent/conf

C.

$RTDIR/smartview/conf

D.

$FWDIR/smartview/conf

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Question # 12

Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

A.

Admin and Default

B.

Expert and Clish

C.

Control and Monitor

D.

Admin and Monitor

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Question # 13

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

A.

Monitor

B.

CLI.sh

C.

Read-only

D.

Bash

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Question # 14

What is Dynamic Balancing?

A.

It is a ClusterXL feature that switches an HA cluster into an LS cluster if required to maximize throughput

B.

It is a feature that uses a daemon to balance the required number of firewall instances and SNDs based on the current load

C.

It is a new feature that is capable of dynamically reserve the amount of Hash kernel memory to reflect the resource usage necessary for maximizing the session rate.

D.

It is a CoreXL feature that assigns the SND to network interfaces to balance the RX Cache of the interfaces

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Question # 15

What command is used to manually failover a Multi-Version Cluster during the upgrade?

A.

clusterXL_admin down in Expert Mode

B.

clusterXL_admin down in Clish

C.

set cluster member state down in Clish

D.

set cluster down in Expert Mode

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Question # 16

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

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Question # 17

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

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Question # 18

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

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Question # 19

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

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Question # 20

When simulating a problem on ClusterXL cluster with cphaprob –d STOP -s problem -t 0 register, to initiate a failover on an active cluster member, what command allows you remove the problematic state?

A.

cphaprob –d STOP unregister

B.

cphaprob STOP unregister

C.

cphaprob unregister STOP

D.

cphaprob –d unregister STOP

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Question # 21

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

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Question # 22

How would you deploy TE250X Check Point appliance just for email traffic and in-line mode without a Check Point Security Gateway?

A.

Install appliance TE250X on SpanPort on LAN switch in MTA mode.

B.

Install appliance TE250X in standalone mode and setup MTA.

C.

You can utilize only Check Point Cloud Services for this scenario.

D.

It is not possible, always Check Point SGW is needed to forward emails to SandBlast appliance.

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Question # 23

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

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Question # 24

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

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Question # 25

How often does Threat Emulation download packages by default?

A.

Once a week

B.

Once an hour

C.

Twice per day

D.

Once per day

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Question # 26

The following command is used to verify the CPUSE version:

A.

HostName:0>show installer status build

B.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status

C.

[Expert@HostName:0]#show installer status build

D.

HostName:0>show installer build

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Question # 27

Which process is available on any management product and on products that require direct GUI access, such as SmartEvent and provides GUI client communications, database manipulation, policy compilation and Management HA synchronization?

A.

cpwd

B.

fwd

C.

cpd

D.

fwm

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Question # 28

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

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Question # 29

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

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Question # 30

Where do you create and modify the Mobile Access policy in R81?

A.

SmartConsole

B.

SmartMonitor

C.

SmartEndpoint

D.

SmartDashboard

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Question # 31

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

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Question # 32

Which command can you use to enable or disable multi-queue per interface?

A.

cpmq set

B.

Cpmqueue set

C.

Cpmq config

D.

St cpmq enable

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Question # 33

Which directory below contains log files?

A.

/opt/CPSmartlog-R81/log

B.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/log

C.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/fw1/log

D.

/opt/CPsuite-R81/log

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Question # 34

Which view is NOT a valid CPVIEW view?

A.

IDA

B.

RAD

C.

PDP

D.

VPN

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Question # 35

Which of the following authentication methods ARE NOT used for Mobile Access?

A.

RADIUS server

B.

Username and password (internal, LDAP)

C.

SecurID

D.

TACACS+

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Question # 36

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

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Question # 37

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

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Question # 38

What is the difference between an event and a log?

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

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Question # 39

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

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Question # 40

How can SmartView application accessed?

A.

http:// /smartview

B.

http:// :4434/smartview/

C.

https:// /smartview/

D.

https:// :4434/smartview/

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Question # 41

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

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Question # 42

When requiring certificates for mobile devices, make sure the authentication method is set to one of the following, Username and Password, RADIUS or ________.

A.

SecureID

B.

SecurID

C.

Complexity

D.

TacAcs

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Question # 43

How many images are included with Check Point TE appliance in Recommended Mode?

A.

2(OS) images

B.

images are chosen by administrator during installation

C.

as many as licensed for

D.

the newest image

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Question # 44

Check Pont Central Deployment Tool (CDT) communicates with the Security Gateway / Cluster Members over Check Point SIC _______ .

A.

TCP Port 18190

B.

TCP Port 18209

C.

TCP Port 19009

D.

TCP Port 18191

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Question # 45

Which statement is NOT TRUE about Delta synchronization?

A.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8161

B.

Using UDP Multicast or Broadcast on port 8116

C.

Quicker than Full sync

D.

Transfers changes in the Kernel tables between cluster members.

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Question # 46

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

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Question # 47

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

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Question # 48

On R81.10 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

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Question # 49

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

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Question # 50

Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

A.

Detects and blocks malware by correlating multiple detection engines before users are affected.

B.

Configure rules to limit the available network bandwidth for specified users or groups.

C.

Use UserCheck to help users understand that certain websites are against the company’s security policy.

D.

Make rules to allow or block applications and Internet sites for individual applications, categories, and risk levels.

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Question # 51

Which command will allow you to see the interface status?

A.

cphaprob interface

B.

cphaprob –I interface

C.

cphaprob –a if

D.

cphaprob stat

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Question # 52

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

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Question # 53

The Security Gateway is installed on GAIA R81. The default port for the Web User Interface is ______ .

A.

TCP 18211

B.

TCP 257

C.

TCP 4433

D.

TCP 443

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Question # 54

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

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Question # 55

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Question # 56

Which command is used to set the CCP protocol to Multicast?

A.

cphaprob set_ccp multicast

B.

cphaconf set_ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf set_ccp no_broadcast

D.

cphaprob set_ccp no_broadcast

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Question # 57

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

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Question # 58

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network objects that restricts all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

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Question # 59

What has to be taken into consideration when configuring Management HA?

A.

The Database revisions will not be synchronized between the management servers

B.

SmartConsole must be closed prior to synchronized changes in the objects database

C.

If you wanted to use Full Connectivity Upgrade, you must change the Implied Rules to allow FW1_cpredundant to pass before the Firewall Control Connections.

D.

For Management Server synchronization, only External Virtual Switches are supported. So, if you wanted to employ Virtual Routers instead, you have to reconsider your design.

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Question # 60

Your manager asked you to check the status of SecureXL, and its enabled templates and features. What command will you use to provide such information to manager?

A.

fw accel stat

B.

fwaccel stat

C.

fw acces stats

D.

fwaccel stats

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Question # 61

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

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Question # 62

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

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Question # 63

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

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Question # 64

Which packet info is ignored with Session Rate Acceleration?

A.

source port ranges

B.

source ip

C.

source port

D.

same info from Packet Acceleration is used

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Question # 65

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

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Question # 66

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

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Question # 67

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

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Question # 68

Which Correction mechanisms are available with ClusterXL under R81.10?

A.

Correction Mechanisms are only available of Maestro Hyperscale Orchestrators

B.

Pre-Correction and SDF (Sticky Decision Function)

C.

SDF (Sticky Decision Function) and Flush and ACK

D.

Dispatcher (Early Correction) and Firewall (Late Correction)

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Question # 69

You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

A.

Right click Accept in the rule, select “More”, and then check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

B.

On the firewall object, Legacy Authentication screen, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

C.

In the Captive Portal screen of Global Properties, check ‘Enable Identity Captive Portal’.

D.

On the Security Management Server object, check the box ‘Identity Logging’.

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Question # 70

What should the admin do in case the Primary Management Server is temporary down?

A.

Use the VIP in SmartConsole you always reach the active Management Server.

B.

The Secondary will take over automatically Change the IP in SmartConsole to logon to the private IP of the Secondary Management Server.

C.

Run the 'promote_util' to activate the Secondary Management server

D.

Logon with SmartConsole to the Secondary Management Server and choose "Make Active' under Actions in the HA Management Menu

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Question # 71

What is required for a certificate-based VPN tunnel between two gateways with separate management systems?

A.

Mutually Trusted Certificate Authorities

B.

Shared User Certificates

C.

Shared Secret Passwords

D.

Unique Passwords

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Question # 72

Which SmartEvent component is responsible to collect the logs from different Log Servers?

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

SmartEvent Database

C.

SmartEvent Collector

D.

SmartEvent Correlation Unit

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Question # 73

While using the Gaia CLI. what is the correct command to publish changes to the management server?

A.

json publish

B.

mgmt publish

C.

mgmt_cli commit

D.

commit

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Question # 74

How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R81? As with all questions, select the BEST answer.

A.

By using IPSEC

B.

By using SIC

C.

By using ICA

D.

By using 3DES

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Question # 75

Which upgrade method you should use upgrading from R80.40 to R81.10 to avoid any downtime?

A.

Zero Downtime Upgrade (ZDU)

B.

Connectivity Upgrade (CU)

C.

Minimal Effort Upgrade (ME)

D.

Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade (MVC)

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Question # 76

Bob is going to prepare the import of the exported R81.10 management database. Now he wants to verify that the installed tools on the new target security management machine are able to handle the R81.10 release. Which of the following Check Point command is true?

A.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R77.30

B.

$CPDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.10

C.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_installed_tools -v R81.10

D.

$FWDIR/scripts/migrate_server print_uninstalled_tools -v R81.10

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Question # 77

What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

A.

Command and Control traffic from hosts that have been identified as infected

B.

Command and Control traffic to servers with reputation for hosting malware

C.

Network traffic that is directed to unknown or malicious servers

D.

Network traffic to hosts that have been identified as infected

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Question # 78

What could NOT be a reason for synchronization issues in a Management HA environment?

A.

Accidentally, you have configured unique IP addresses per Management Server which invalidates the CA Certificate

B.

There is a network connectivity failure between the servers

C.

Servers are in Collision Mode. Two servers, both in active state cannot be synchronized either automatically or manually.

D.

The products installed on the servers do not match: one device is a Standalone Server while the other is only a Security Management server

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Question # 79

Return oriented programming (ROP) exploits are detected by which security blade?

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

Check Point Anti-Virus / Threat Emulation

C.

Application control

D.

Intrusion Prevention Software

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Question # 80

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

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Question # 81

What is UserCheck?

A.

Messaging tool used to verify a user’s credentials.

B.

Communication tool used to inform a user about a website or application they are trying to access.

C.

Administrator tool used to monitor users on their network.

D.

Communication tool used to notify an administrator when a new user is created.

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Question # 82

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 83

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

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Question # 84

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

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Question # 85

Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?

A.

Identity Awareness

B.

Data Loss Prevention

C.

URL Filtering

D.

Application Control

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Question # 86

Office mode means that:

A.

SecurID client assigns a routable MAC address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

B.

Users authenticate with an Internet browser and use secure HTTPS connection.

C.

Local ISP (Internet service Provider) assigns a non-routable IP address to the remote user.

D.

Allows a security gateway to assign a remote client an IP address. After the user authenticates for a tunnel, the VPN gateway assigns a routable IP address to the remote client.

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Question # 87

What will be the effect of running the following command on the Security Management Server?

A.

Remove the installed Security Policy.

B.

Remove the local ACL lists.

C.

No effect.

D.

Reset SIC on all gateways.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is NOT an alert option?

A.

SNMP

B.

High alert

C.

Mail

D.

User defined alert

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Question # 89

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

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Question # 90

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

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Question # 91

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

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Question # 92

To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command should you run on all cluster members?

A.

fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled

B.

fw ctl get int vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1

C.

cphaprob-a if

D.

fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value 1

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Question # 93

Which of the following commands shows the status of processes?

A.

cpwd_admin -l

B.

cpwd -l

C.

cpwd admin_list

D.

cpwd_admin list

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Question # 94

What is the order of NAT priorities?

A.

Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT

B.

IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT

C.

Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT

D.

Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

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Question # 95

Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace both offer secured connection for remote users who are using their mobile devices. However, there are differences between the two.

Which of the following statements correctly identify each product's capabilities?

A.

Workspace supports ios operating system, Android, and WP8, whereas Connect supports ios operating system and Android only

B.

For compliance/host checking, Workspace offers the MDM cooperative enforcement, whereas Connect offers both jailbreak/root detection and MDM cooperative enforcement.

C.

For credential protection, Connect uses One-time Password login support and has no SSO support, whereas Workspace offers both One-Time Password and certain SSO login support.

D.

Workspace can support any application, whereas Connect has a limited number of application types which it will support.

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Question # 96

SmartEvent provides a convenient way to run common command line executables that can assist in investigating events. Right-clicking the IP address, source or destination, in an event provides a list of default and customized commands. They appear only on cells that refer to IP addresses because the IP address of the active cell is used as the destination of the command when run. The default commands are:

A.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and route

B.

ping, nslookup, Telnet, and route

C.

ping, whois, nslookup, and Telnet

D.

ping, traceroute, netstat, and nslookup

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Question # 97

With SecureXL enabled, accelerated packets will pass through the following:

A.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, OS IP Stack, and the Acceleration Device

B.

Network Interface Card, Check Point Firewall Kernal, and the Acceleration Device

C.

Network Interface Card and the Acceleration Device

D.

Network Interface Card, OSI Network Layer, and the Acceleration Device

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Question # 98

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

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Question # 99

Vanessa is a Firewall administrator. She wants to test a backup of her company’s production Firewall cluster Dallas_GW. She has a lab environment that is identical to her production environment. She decided to restore production backup via SmartConsole in lab environment.

Which details she need to fill in System Restore window before she can click OK button and test the backup?

A.

Server, SCP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, Member

B.

Server, TFTP, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

C.

Server, Protocol, Username, Password, Path, Comment, All Members

D.

Server, Protocol, username Password, Path, Comment, Member

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Question # 100

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

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Question # 101

Which file gives you a list of all security servers in use, including port number?

A.

$FWDIR/conf/conf.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/servers.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/conf/serversd.conf

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Question # 102

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

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Question # 103

Which path below is available only when CoreXL is enabled?

A.

Slow path

B.

Firewall path

C.

Medium path

D.

Accelerated path

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Question # 104

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

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Question # 105

Which Check Point feature enables application scanning and the detection?

A.

Application Dictionary

B.

AppWiki

C.

Application Library

D.

CPApp

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Question # 106

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

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Question # 107

Vanessa is firewall administrator in her company. Her company is using Check Point firewall on a central and several remote locations which are managed centrally by R77.30 Security Management Server. On central location is installed R77.30 Gateway on Open server. Remote locations are using Check Point UTM-1570 series appliances with R75.30 and some of them are using a UTM-1-Edge-X or Edge-W with latest available firmware. She is in process of migrating to R81.

What can cause Vanessa unnecessary problems, if she didn’t check all requirements for migration to R81?

A.

Missing an installed R77.20 Add-on on Security Management Server

B.

Unsupported firmware on UTM-1 Edge-W appliance

C.

Unsupported version on UTM-1 570 series appliance

D.

Unsupported appliances on remote locations

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Question # 108

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

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Question # 109

Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ________ .

A.

User Directory

B.

Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication

C.

Captive Portal

D.

UserCheck

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Question # 110

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

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Question # 111

What command would show the API server status?

A.

cpm status

B.

api restart

C.

api status

D.

show api status

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Question # 112

When SecureXL is enabled, all packets should be accelerated, except packets that match the following conditions:

A.

All UDP packets

B.

All IPv6 Traffic

C.

All packets that match a rule whose source or destination is the Outside Corporate Network

D.

CIFS packets

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Question # 113

Tom has connected to the R81 Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward.

What will happen to the changes already made?

A.

Tom’s changes will have been stored on the Management when he reconnects and he will not lose any of his work.

B.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, and access the Management cache store on that computer, which is only accessible after a reboot.

C.

Tom’s changes will be lost since he lost connectivity and he will have to start again.

D.

Tom will have to reboot his SmartConsole computer, clear to cache, and restore changes.

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Question # 114

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

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Question # 115

If you needed the Multicast MAC address of a cluster, what command would you run?

A.

cphaprob –a if

B.

cphaconf ccp multicast

C.

cphaconf debug data

D.

cphaprob igmp

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Question # 116

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Question # 117

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

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Question # 118

What is true about the IPS-Blade?

A.

In R81, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy

B.

In R81, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict

C.

In R81, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”

D.

In R81, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same

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Question # 119

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

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Question # 120

Check Point Management (cpm) is the main management process in that it provides the architecture for a consolidates management console. CPM allows the GUI client and management server to communicate via web services using ___________.

A.

TCP port 19009

B.

TCP Port 18190

C.

TCP Port 18191

D.

TCP Port 18209

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Question # 121

What are the different command sources that allow you to communicate with the API server?

A.

SmartView Monitor, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

B.

SmartConsole GUI Console, mgmt_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

C.

SmartConsole GUI Console, API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

D.

API_cli Tool, Gaia CLI, Web Services

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Question # 122

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

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Question # 123

Aaron is a Syber Security Engineer working for Global Law Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances running GAiA R81.X The Network Security Developer Team is having an issue testing the API with a newly deployed R81.X Security Management Server Aaron wants to confirm API services are working properly. What should he do first?

A.

Aaron should check API Server status with "fwm api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "fwm api start".

B.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpapi status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpapi start"

C.

Aaron should check API Server status with "api status" from Expert mode If services are stopped, he should start them with "api start"

D.

Aaron should check API Server status with "cpm api status" from Expert mode. If services are stopped, he should start them with "cpi api start".

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Question # 124

SmartConsole R81 x requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent.

A.

19009, 19090 & 443

B.

19009, 19004 & 18190

C.

18190 & 443

D.

19009, 18190 & 443

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Question # 125

What are the two high availability modes?

A.

Load Sharing and Legacy

B.

Traditional and New

C.

Active and Standby

D.

New and Legacy

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Question # 126

By default, the R81 web API uses which content-type in its response?

A.

Java Script

B.

XML

C.

Text

D.

JSON

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Question # 127

What is the correct order of the default “fw monitor” inspection points?

A.

i, o, l, O

B.

i, l, o, O

C.

1, 2, 3, 4

D.

l, i, O, o

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Question # 128

How can you see historical data with cpview?

A.

cpview -f

B.

cpview -e

C.

cpview -t

D.

cpview -d

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Question # 129

What API command below creates a new host object with the name "My Host" and IP address of "192 168 0 10"?

A.

set host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0.10"

B.

new host name "My Host" ip-address "192 168.0.10"

C.

create host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168 0.10"

D.

mgmt.cli -m add host name "My Host" ip-address "192.168.0 10"

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Question # 130

Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

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Question # 131

Which command lists firewall chain?

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

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Question # 132

What is the recommended way to have a redundant Sync connection between the cluster nodes?

A.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Connect both Sync interfaces

without using a switch.

B.

Use a group of bonded interfaces. In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define a Virtual IP for the Sync

interface.

C.

In the SmartConsole / Gateways & Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management and define two Sync interfaces per node. Use two different Switches to

connect both Sync interfaces.

D.

Use a group of bonded interfaces connected to different switches. Define a dedicated sync interface, only one interface per node using the SmartConsole / Gateways &

Servers -> select Cluster Properties / Network Management.

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Question # 133

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

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Question # 134

The admin lost access to the Gaia Web Management Interface but he was able to connect via ssh. How can you check if the web service is enabled, running and which port is used?

A.

In expert mode run #netstat -tulnp | grep httpd to see if httpd is up and to get the port number. In dish run >show web daemon-enable to see if the web daemon is enabled.

B.

In dish run >show web ssl-port to see if the web daemon is enabled and which port is in use. In expert mode run #netstat -anp | grep httpd to see if the httpd is up

C.

In dish run >show web ssl-port to see if the web daemon is enabled and which port is in use. In expert mode run #netstat -anp | grep httpd2 to see if the httpd2 is up

D.

In expert mode run #netstat -tulnp | grep httpd2 to see if httpd2 is up and to get the port number. In dish run >show web daemon-enable to see if the web daemon is enabled.

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Question # 135

Sieve is a Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Bank with a large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances Steve's manager. Diana asks him to provide firewall connection table details from one of the firewalls for which he is responsible. Which of these commands may impact performance briefly and should not be used during heavy traffic times of day?

A.

fw tab -t connections -s

B.

fw tab -t connections

C.

fw tab -t connections -c

D.

fw tab -t connections -f

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Question # 136

What is the command switch to specify the Gaia API context?

A.

You have to specify it in the YAML file api.yml which is located underneath the /etc. directory of the security management server

B.

You have to change to the zsh-Shell which defaults to the Gaia API context.

C.

No need to specify a context, since it defaults to the Gaia API context.

D.

mgmt_cli --context gaia_api

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Question # 137

An administrator is creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN between his corporate office and branch office. Both offices are protected by Check Point Security Gateway managed by the same Security Management Server. While configuring the VPN community to specify the pre-shared secret the administrator found that the check box to enable pre-shared secret and cannot be enabled.

Why does it not allow him to specify the pre-shared secret?

A.

IPsec VPN blade should be enabled on both Security Gateway.

B.

Pre-shared can only be used while creating a VPN between a third party vendor and Check Point Security Gateway.

C.

Certificate based Authentication is the only authentication method available between two Security Gateway managed by the same SMS.

D.

The Security Gateways are pre-R75.40.

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Question # 138

Which statement is WRONG regarding the usage of the Central Deployment in SmartConsole?

A.

You can install Hotfixes with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

B.

You can install Jumbo Hotfix accumulators with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole.

C.

Only be installed Hotfixes can with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole

D.

You can upgrade your cluster without user intervention with the Central Deployment in SmartConsole from R80.40 to R81.10.

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Question # 139

What is the recommended configuration when the customer requires SmartLog indexing for 14 days and SmartEvent to keep events for 180 days?

A.

Use Multi-Domain Management Server.

B.

Choose different setting for log storage and SmartEvent db

C.

Install Management and SmartEvent on different machines.

D.

it is not possible.

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Question # 140

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

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Question # 141

What are the minimum open server hardware requirements for a Security Management Server/Standalone in R81?

A.

2 CPU cores, 4GB of RAM and 15GB of disk space

B.

8 CPU cores, 16GB of RAM and 500 GB of disk space

C.

4 CPU cores, 8GB of RAM and 500GB of disk space

D.

8 CPU cores, 32GB of RAM and 1 TB of disk space

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Question # 142

You need to change the MAC-address on eth2 interface of the gateway. What is the correct way to change MAC-address in Check Point Gaia?

A.

In CLISH run: set interface eth2 mac-addr 11:11:11:11:11:11

B.

In expert-mode run ifconfig eth1 hw 11:11:11:11 11 11

C.

In CLISH run set interface eth2 hw-addr 11 11 11:11:11 11

D.

In expert-mode run: ethtool -4 eth2 mac 11 11:11:11:11:11

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Question # 143

What is the main objective when using Application Control?

A.

To filter out specific content.

B.

To assist the firewall blade with handling traffic.

C.

To see what users are doing.

D.

Ensure security and privacy of information.

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Question # 144

When performing a minimal effort upgrade, what will happen to the network traffic?

A.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be dropped, causing network downtime

B.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled normally

C.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled by the standby gateway

D.

All connections that were initiated before the upgrade will be handled by the active gateway

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Question # 145

Which of the following is a task of the CPD process?

A.

Invoke and monitor critical processes and attempts to restart them if they fail

B.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

C.

Log forwarding

D.

Responsible for processing most traffic on a security gateway

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Question # 146

There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational.

When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

A.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

B.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

C.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

D.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

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Question # 147

What are types of Check Point APIs available currently as part of R81.10 code?

A.

Security Gateway API Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

B.

Management API, Threat Prevention API, Identity Awareness Web Services API and OPSEC SDK API

C.

OSE API, OPSEC SDK API, Threat Extraction API and Policy Editor API

D.

CPMI API, Management API, Threat Prevention API and Identity Awareness Web Services API

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Question # 148

Using Web Services to access the API, which Header Name-Value had to be in the HTTP Post request after the login?

A.

X-chkp-sid Session Unique Identifier

B.

API-Key

C.

user-uid

D.

uuid Universally Unique Identifier

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Question # 149

John is using Management HA. Which Security Management Server should he use for making changes?

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active SmartConsole

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Log Server

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Question # 150

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

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Question # 151

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

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Question # 152

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

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Question # 153

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

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Question # 154

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

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Question # 155

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

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Question # 156

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

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Question # 157

Fill in the blank: The R81 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows then as prioritized security events.

A.

SmartMonitor

B.

SmartView Web Application

C.

SmartReporter

D.

SmartTracker

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Question # 158

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

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Question # 159

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

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Question # 160

Which command shows the current connections distributed by CoreXL FW instances?

A.

fw ctl multik stat

B.

fw ctl affinity -l

C.

fw ctl instances -v

D.

fw ctl iflist

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Question # 161

Which Check Point software blades could be enforced under Threat Prevention profile using Check Point R81.10 SmartConsole application?

A.

IPS, Anti-Bot, URL Filtering, Application Control, Threat Emulation.

B.

Firewall, IPS, Threat Emulation, Application Control.

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation, Threat Extraction.

D.

Firewall, IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation.

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Question # 162

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

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Question # 163

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

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Question # 164

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

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Question # 165

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

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Question # 166

Which configuration file contains the structure of the Security Server showing the port numbers, corresponding protocol name, and status?

A.

$FWDIR/database/fwauthd.conf

B.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauth.conf

C.

$FWDIR/conf/fwauthd.conf

D.

$FWDIR/state/fwauthd.conf

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Question # 167

Using Threat Emulation technologies, what is the best way to block .exe and .bat file types?

A.

enable DLP and select.exe and .bat file type

B.

enable .exe & .bat protection in IPS Policy

C.

create FW rule for particular protocol

D.

tecli advanced attributes set prohibited_file_types exe.bat

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Question # 168

What is a best practice before starting to troubleshoot using the “fw monitor” tool?

A.

Run the command: fw monitor debug on

B.

Clear the connections table

C.

Disable CoreXL

D.

Disable SecureXL

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Question # 169

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

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Question # 170

What is the benefit of “tw monitor” over “tcpdump”?

A.

“fw monitor” reveals Layer 2 information, while “tcpdump” acts at Layer 3.

B.

“fw monitor” is also available for 64-Bit operating systems.

C.

With “fw monitor”, you can see the inspection points, which cannot be seen in “tcpdump”

D.

“fw monitor” can be used from the CLI of the Management Server to collect information from multiple gateways.

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Question # 171

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

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Question # 172

How do Capsule Connect and Capsule Workspace differ?

A.

Capsule Connect provides a Layer3 VPN. Capsule Workspace provides a Desktop with usable applications.

B.

Capsule Workspace can provide access to any application.

C.

Capsule Connect provides Business data isolation.

D.

Capsule Connect does not require an installed application at client.

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Question # 173

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.10 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

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Question # 174

When setting up an externally managed log server, what is one item that will not be configured on the R81 Security Management Server?

A.

IP

B.

SIC

C.

NAT

D.

FQDN

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