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ZTCA Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Question and Answers

Question # 4

Risk within the Zero Trust Exchange is a dynamic value calculated to:

A.

Be hashed, truncated, and stored in an obfuscated manner.

B.

Give visibility of risky activity and allow enterprises to set acceptable thresholds of risk.

C.

Provide access to the network.

D.

Reduce processing load by enabling low-risk traffic to bypass less critical inspections.

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Question # 5

By definition, Zero Trust connections are:

A.

Independent of any network for control or trust.

B.

Highly dependent on the network type, including whether that network is IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Based purely on a network appliance, constrained by how much CPU may be available.

D.

Hairpinned through service chaining by an SD-WAN appliance.

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Question # 6

Connections approved by the Zero Trust Exchange must then enable permanent network-level access for at least 30 days.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 7

How is policy enforcement in Zero Trust done?

A.

As a binary decision of allow or block.

B.

Without trust, for example Zero Trust.

C.

Conditionally, in that an allow or a block will have additional controls assigned, for example Allow and isolate, or Block and Deceive.

D.

At the network level, by source IP.

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Question # 8

The only way to deploy inspection is to inspect all traffic. Technically speaking, at an architectural level, there is no way to have exceptions, such as for certain websites or for certain types of applications.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 9

Why should an enterprise categorize applications as part of its secure digital transformation to a Zero Trust architecture?

A.

To build structured naming conventions for applications, for example Country:City:Location:Function.

B.

So that these can be stored in a CMDB (Configuration Management Database) system, which can be used as a policy enforcement plane for application traffic.

C.

To differentiate destination applications from each other, thus enabling the deployment of granular control from valid initiator to valid destination application.

D.

To know which ACLs to set on their firewall.

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Question # 10

Data center applications are moving to:

A.

The branch.

B.

Castle and moat type architectures.

C.

The DMZ.

D.

The cloud.

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Question # 11

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

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Question # 12

As a connection goes through, the Zero Trust Exchange:

A.

Initiates the three sections of a Zero Trust architecture (Verify, Control, Enforce), which once completed, will allow the Zero Trust Exchange and the application to complete the transaction.

B.

Sits as a ruggedized, hardened appliance in the data center of the enterprise, where the enterprise must establish private links to major peering hubs.

C.

Acts as the opposite of a reverse proxy, inspecting every single packet that goes out, but strictly without the ability to provide controls such as firewalling, intrusion prevention system (IPS), or data loss prevention (DLP).

D.

Forwards packets as a passthrough cloud security firewall.

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Question # 13

Assessing risk is:

A.

A non-recurring process to determine how to treat requests from a specific initiator for the next 30 days.

B.

Universal control across the entire enterprise. Once assessed, risk applies to all traffic from that enterprise.

C.

An ongoing process to verify publicly known bad actor IP addresses.

D.

An assessment of all things related to the current connection, previous context, and considered on an ongoing basis for future requests, thus allowing for unique and dynamic changes in the consideration of risk.

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Question # 14

Enterprises can deliver full security controls inline, without needing to decrypt traffic.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 15

Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.

A.

True

B.

False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.

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Question # 16

The first step of verifying identity is the “who.” And “who” is not just who is the user, but also, in addition:

A.

The destination, who can also be a user.

B.

The device, and understanding what levels of access that device has.

C.

The type of bare-metal server that the packets traverse on their way to the destination.

D.

The IaaS destination that the user is connecting to.

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Question # 17

Content stored within a SaaS/PaaS/IaaS location can be:

A.

100% trusted, as cloud providers make sure content is safe before it is uploaded.

B.

Considered risky until inspected, either through inline SSL/TLS controls or through assessing the files “at rest” using an out-of-band assessment.

C.

Partially trusted depending on whether you maintain a proper audit log for access.

D.

Should never be trusted.

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Question # 18

A Zero Trust network can be:

A.

Located anywhere.

B.

Built on IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Built using VPN concentrators.

D.

Located anywhere and built on IPv4 or IPv6.

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Question # 19

Identity is a binary decision, not to be revisited. Once a decision is made about who, what, and where, that is final for at least 48 hours.

A.

True

B.

False

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Question # 20

If an enterprise is protecting its services at a network level, such as using firewalls, what happens to that protection when a user leaves the network? (Select 2)

A.

The initiator will not have access to the service.

B.

Network access is maintained via TCP keepalive messages.

C.

Users will continue to be able to access services via the internet.

D.

A path from initiator to the network must be put in place, for example VPN.

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Question # 21

What is a security limitation of traditional firewall/VPN products?

A.

Their IP addresses are published on the internet.

B.

SSL-encrypted VPN traffic bypasses security inspection.

C.

They cannot be scaled to handle increased load.

D.

They rely on easily tampered-with endpoint software.

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Question # 22

What types of attributes can be used to assess whether access is risky? (Select 2)

A.

The endpoint operating system of the initiator.

B.

An analysis of device posture to examine attributes such as domain joined status, a certificate, whether the device has AV/EDR installed, and whether the device is running disk encryption.

C.

Leveraging APIs available on the Layer 3 devices on the network to scan for malicious services or hosts in the environment.

D.

Seeing patterns in user behavior around things such as blocked malware downloads and blocked access to phishing sites.

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