Weekend Sale - Limited Time 70% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: mxmas70

Home > Zscaler > Digital Transformation Administrator > ZDTA

ZDTA Zscaler Digital Transformation Administrator Question and Answers

Question # 4

What is the primary function of the on-premises VM in the EDM process?

A.

To local analyze cloud transactions for potential PII exfiltration.

B.

To replicate sensitive data across all organizational servers.

C.

To automate the indexing process by creating hashes for structured data elements.

D.

To store sensitive data securely and prevent unauthorized data access.

Full Access
Question # 5

Which of the following are types of device posture?

A.

Detect Crowdstrike, Crowdstrike ZTA score, First name

B.

Certificate Trust, File Path, Full Disk Encryption

C.

Domain Joined, Process Check, Deception Check

D.

Unauthorized Modification, OS Version, License Key

Full Access
Question # 6

Which of the following methods can be used to notify an end-user of a potential DLP violation in Zscaler’s Workflow Automation solution?

A.

Notifications in MS Teams / Slack

B.

SMS text message.

C.

Automated phone call.

D Twitter post with custom hashtan

Full Access
Question # 7

What enables zero trust to be properly implemented and enforced between an originator and the destination application?

A.

Trusted network criteria designate the locations of originators which can be trusted.

B.

Access is granted without sharing the network between the originator and the destination application.

C.

Cloud firewall policies ensure that only authenticated users are allowed access to destination applications.

D.

Connectivity between the originator and the destination application is over IPSec tunnels.

Full Access
Question # 8

When configuring a ZDX custom application and choosing Type: 'Network' and completing the configuration by defining the necessary probe(s), which performance metrics will an administrator NOT get for users after enabling the application?

A.

Server Response Time

B.

ZDX Score

C.

Client Gateway IP Address

D.

Disk I/O

Full Access
Question # 9

Which list of protocols is supported by Zscaler for Privileged Remote Access?

A.

RDP, VNC and SSH

B.

RDP, SSH and DHCP

C.

SSH, DNS and DHCP

D.

RDP, DNS and VNC

Full Access
Question # 10

When configuring Zscaler Private Access, what is the function of the Server Group?

A.

Maps FQDNs to IP Addresses

B.

Maps Applications to FQDNs

C.

Maps App Connector Groups to Application Segments

D.

Maps Applications to Application Groups

Full Access
Question # 11

What happens after the Zscaler Client Connector receives a valid SAML response from the Identity Provider (IdP)?

A.

The Zscaler Client Connector Portal authenticates the user directly.

B.

There is no need for further actions as the SAML is valid, access is granted immediately.

C.

The SAML response is sent back to the user’s device for local validation.

D.

Zscaler Internet Access validates the SAML response and returns an authentication token.

Full Access
Question # 12

What is the default policy configuration setting for checking for Viruses?

A.

Allow

B.

Block

C.

Unwanted Applications

D.

Malware Protection

Full Access
Question # 13

Fundamental capabilities needed by other services within the Zscaler Zero Trust Exchange are provided by which of these?

A.

Access Control Services

B.

Digital Experience Monitoring

C.

Cyber Security Services

D.

Platform Services

Full Access
Question # 14

What does Advanced Threat Protection defend users from?

A.

Vulnerable JavaScripts

B.

Large iFrames

C.

Malicious active content

D.

Command injection attacks

Full Access
Question # 15

Which of the following DLP Notification methods can be used to forward a copy of the data that triggered the DLP policy to the auditor?

A.

Email Notification Template

B.

NSS Log Forwarding to SIEM

C.

SMS Text Message via PagerDuty

D.

Zscaler Client Connector pop-up message

Full Access
Question # 16

How does a Zscaler administrator troubleshoot a certificate pinned application?

A.

They could look at SSL logs for a failed client handshake.

B.

They could reboot the endpoint device.

C.

They could inspect the ZIA Web Policy.

D.

They could look into the SaaS application analytics tab.

Full Access
Question # 17

Which of the following statements most accurately describes Zero Trust Connections?

A.

They require that SSH inspection be enabled.

B.

They are dependent on a fixed / static network environment.

C.

They are independent of any network for control or trust.

D.

They require IPV6.

Full Access
Question # 18

Which of the following is an unsupported tunnel type?

A.

Generic Routing and Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

HTTP Connect Tunnels

C.

Proprietary Microtunnels

D.

Secure Socket Tunneling Protocol (SSTP)

Full Access
Question # 19

What is the immediate outcome or effect when the Zscaler Office 365 One Click Rule is enabled?

A.

All traffic undergoes mandatory SSL inspection.

B.

Office 365 traffic is exempted from SSL inspection and other web policies.

C.

Non-Office 365 traffic is blocked.

D.

All Office 365 drive traffic is blocked.

Full Access
Question # 20

When filtering user access to certain web destinations what can be a better option, URL or Cloud Application filtering Policies?

A.

Cloud Application policies provide better access control.

B.

URL filtering policies provide better access control.

C.

Wherever possible URL policies are recommended.

D.

Both provide the same filtering capabilities.

Full Access
Question # 21

For a deployment using both ZIA and ZPA set of services, what is the best authentication solution?

A.

Use forms Authentication in ZPA and SAML in ZIA

B.

Use forms Authentication in ZIA and SAML in ZPA

C.

Configure Authentication using SAML on both ZIA and ZPA

D.

Use forms Authentication for both ZIA and ZPA

Full Access
Question # 22

What is the ZIA feature that ensures certain SaaS applications cannot be accessed from an unmanaged device?

A.

Tenant Restriction

B.

Identity Proxy

C.

Out-of-band Application Access

D.

SaaS Application Access

Full Access
Question # 23

Which of the following components is installed on an endpoint to connect users to the Zero Trust Exchange regardless of their location - home, work, while traveling, etc.?

A.

Client connector

B.

Private Service Edge

C.

IPSec/GRE Tunnel

D.

App Connector

Full Access
Question # 24

What is a ZIA Sublocation?

A.

The section of a corporate Location used to separate traffic, like traffic from employees from guest traffic

B.

The section of a corporate Location that sends traffic to a Subcloud

C.

Every one of the sections in a Corporate Location that use overlapping IP addresses

D.

A way to separate generic traffic from that coming from Client Connector

Full Access
Question # 25

The security exceptions allow list for Advanced Threat Protection apply to which of the following Policies?

A.

Sandbox

B.

URL Filtering

C.

File Type Control

D.

IPS Control

Full Access
Question # 26

Which filtering policy blocked access to the Network Application?

A.

Sandbox

B.

Browser Control

C.

Firewall Filtering

D.

DLP

Full Access
Question # 27

Which of the following is a feature of ITDR (Identity Threat Detection and Response)?

A.

Prevents Patient Zero Infections

B.

Reduces identity related risks

C.

Prevents connections to Embargoed Countries

D.

Blocks malicious traffic by dropping packets

Full Access
Question # 28

Within ZPA, the mapping relationship between Connector Groups and Server Groups can best be defined as which of the following?

A.

Server Groups are configured for Dynamic Server Discovery so that mapped Connector Groups can then DNS resolve individual application Segment Groups.

B.

Connector Groups are configured for Dynamic Server Discovery so that mapped Server Groups can DNS resolve and advertise the applications.

C.

Connector Groups are configured for Dynamic Server Discovery so that ZPA can steer traffic through the appropriate Server Group.

D.

Server Groups are configured for Dynamic Server Discovery so that mapped Connector Groups can DNS resolve and make health checks toward the application.

Full Access
Question # 29

Which Advanced Threats policy can be configured to protect users against a credential attack?

A.

Configure Advanced Cloud Sandbox policies.

B.

Block Suspected phishing sites.

C.

Enable Watering Hole detection.

D.

Block Windows executable files from uncategorized websites.

Full Access
Question # 30

How do Access Policies relate to the Application Segments and Application Segment Groups?

A.

When a condition is met, an Access Policy can either allow or block access to Application Segments OR Application Segment Groups.

B.

When a condition is met, an Access Policy can allow access to Application Segments Groups and block access to Application Segment.

C.

When a condition is met. an Access Policy can either allow or block access to Application Segments and Application Segment Groups.

D.

When a condition is met, an Access Policy can allow access to Application Segments and block access to Application Segment Groups.

Full Access
Question # 31

When configuring an inline Data Loss Prevention policy with content inspection, which of the following are used to detect data, allow or block transactions, and notify your organization's auditor when a user's transaction triggers a DLP rule?

A.

Hosted PAC Files

B.

Index Tool

C.

DLP engines

D.

VPN Credentials

Full Access
Question # 32

Which of the following is unrelated to the properties of 'Trusted Networks'?

A.

DNS Server

B.

Default Gateway

C.

Org ID

D.

Network Range

Full Access
Question # 33

Can Notifications, based on Alert Rules, be sent with methods other than email?

A.

Email is the only method for notifications as that is universally applicable and no other way of sending them makes sense.

B.

In addition to email, text messages can be sent directly to one cell phone to alert the CISO who is then coordinating the work on the incident.

C.

Leading ITSM systems can be connected to the Zero Trust Exchange using a NSS server, which will then connect to ITSM tools and forwards the alert.

D.

In addition to email, notifications, based on Alert Rules, can be shared with leading ITSM or UCAAS tools over Webhooks.

Full Access
Question # 34

Which SaaS platform is supported by Zscaler's SaaS Security Posture Management (SSPM)?

A.

Amazon S3

B.

Webex Teams

C.

Dropbox

D.

Google Workspace

Full Access
Question # 35

An administrator would like users to be able to use the corporate instance of a SaaS application. Which of the following allows an administrator to make that distinction?

A.

Out-of-band CASB

B.

Cloud application control

C.

URL filtering with SSL inspection

D.

Endpoint DLP

Full Access
Question # 36

Which Zscaler feature detects whether an intruder is accessing your internal resources?

A.

SandBox

B.

SSL Decryption Bypass

C.

Browser Isolation

D.

Deception

Full Access
Question # 37

If you're migrating from an on-premises proxy, you will already have a proxy setting configured within the browser or within the system. With Tunnel Mode, the best practice is to configure what type of proxy configuration?

A.

Execute a GPO update to retrieve the proxy settings from AD.

B.

Enforce no Proxy Configuration.

C.

Use Web Proxy Auto Discovery (WPAD) to auto-configure the proxy.

D.

Use an automatic configuration script (forwarding PAC file).

Full Access