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Home > CISI > Investment Operations Certificate (IOC) > UAE-Financial-Rules-and-Regulations

UAE-Financial-Rules-and-Regulations CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam Question and Answers

Question # 4

Where a client is a legal person, the customer due diligence obligations require verification of identity for any natural persons holding what minimum controlling ownership interest?

A.

3%

B.

10%

C.

25%

D.

51%

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Question # 5

The minimum paid-up capital requirement for ranking and advice firms is:

A.

none

B.

AED 5 million

C.

AED 30 million

D.

AED 50 million

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Question # 6

During a trading session, if an order is not fully executed, then:

A.

the order will be dealt with at the next trading session

B.

the transaction is executed at the price set on the other side of the transaction

C.

the remaining unexecuted volume is cancelled and a new order is placed, at the last executed price

D.

the remaining unexecuted volume stays on the trading system, at the last executed price

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Question # 7

If an existing company wants to offer shares after conversion into a public joint-stock company, it must have released audited financial statements for what minimum number of fiscal years prior to the request to offer shares?

A.

Two

B.

Three

C.

Four

D.

Five

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Question # 8

The effectiveness of a financial institution’s internal policies, controls and procedures to combat money laundering must be tested by:

A.

an independent audit function

B.

regular operational resilience exercises

C.

external consultants

D.

the audit committee

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Question # 9

The Depository Centre must periodically report to the Authority on shareholders who hold more than what threshold percentage of equity in the Centre’s capital?

A.

3%

B.

5%

C.

10%

D.

15%

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Question # 10

If the two evaluators for an in-kind share transfer produce different fair value figures, what figure must be used?

A.

The highest one

B.

The lowest one

C.

The average of the two amounts

D.

The one produced by the most experienced evaluator

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Question # 11

The role of the authorised agent of the exchange-traded fund (ETF) is to:

A.

announce the net value of the unit’s assets on a daily basis

B.

regularly announce the indicative value of the net value of assets

C.

update sell and buy orders

D.

ensure that the transfer of ownership of units is completed

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Question # 12

Where a local investment fund is established by an entity licensed to conduct family investment management, what minimum proportion of the units must be owned by family members?

A.

51%

B.

75%

C.

90%

D.

100%

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Question # 13

If the perpetrator of a money laundering crime is a repeat offender, what impact does this have on the minimum fine compared to a first offence?

A.

It is increased by 50%

B.

It is doubled

C.

It is tripled

D.

It is quadrupled

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Question # 14

The statement in a suitability report giving reasons for the recommendation must also indicate:

A.

why the next best product or service was disregarded

B.

the client’s ability to bear any risks and losses

C.

whether or not the client has accepted this guidance

D.

the extent to which the author is qualified to make this judgement

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Question # 15

Which of the following financial activities comes under the fifth category licence?

A.

Arrangement and advice

B.

Credit rating agencies

C.

Dealing in securities

D.

Dealing in investments

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Question # 16

Each licence applicant must submit a risk management guide that includes:

A.

development and implementation of policies and procedures

B.

the mechanisms required to enable the compliance officer to have access to sufficient resources

C.

the procedures and mechanisms required to enable the internal auditor to act independently

D.

the procedures and mechanisms that ensure that the responsible officer shall have access to all records

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Question # 17

Which of the following features of a previous order can be changed with the order remaining valid?

A.

Share category

B.

Market

C.

Order type

D.

Volume

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Question # 18

A public joint-stock company is automatically prevented by the regulations from executing a buyback transaction if it:

A.

is formally classed as an insurance company

B.

has been designated a company of State importance

C.

issued shares in a public offer in the last six months

D.

was incorporated in the last three years

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Question # 19

If an issuer provides its shareholders with bonus shares, then the CSD Department will deposit the bonus shares issued in the account and will register them as a whole, round number. What happens in the case that there are fractions of shares?

A.

These are also added to the shareholder's account

B.

They are totalled up and put in a suspense account

C.

The issuing company must sell them within 30 days

D.

The issuing company must sell them within 45 days

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Question # 20

A vote carried out by the board of the Authority resulted in a tie. What happens in these circumstances?

A.

The vote for the resolution is automatically carried

B.

The vote against the resolution is automatically carried

C.

The chairman or their deputy is granted the casting vote

D.

The decision is postponed until another vote can be taken

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Question # 21

A good-till-cancelled order on the DFM will remain available for execution unless it is cancelled by:

A.

the investor

B.

the broker

C.

the clearing member

D.

the market committee

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Question # 22

If a Special Purpose Acquisition Company fails to complete a business combination, measures to return the funds to investors must be taken within what maximum number of business days?

A.

10

B.

15

C.

20

D.

25

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Question # 23

The compliance regulation guide, submitted by an applicant for a license from the Authority, must set out procedures and mechanisms which will ensure that the compliance officer:

A.

is able to suspend operations in an emergency

B.

can appoint a deputy during an unplanned absence

C.

has access to sufficient resources

D.

can report confidentially to the regulator

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Question # 24

If a discrepancy comes to light when conducting an external reconciliation, what must the firm do?

A.

Immediately inform the regulator verbally and follow this up in writing

B.

Immediately suspend operations with the third party

C.

Investigate and correct it as soon as possible

D.

Close the client's account by close of business on the same day

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Question # 25

Which of the following is a sanction available to the Authority in the event of a violation of its provisions?

A.

Impose a financial fine of not more than AED 100,000

B.

Impose a financial fine of not less than AED 100,000

C.

Suspend the licensed body for a period of two years

D.

Suspend any financial activity practised during an investigation

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Question # 26

Under what circumstances, if any, is an introducer allowed to provide an investor with financial analysis?

A.

Only if the client proactively requests one

B.

Only if no recommendations are made

C.

Only if it is licensed to do so

D.

Under no circumstances

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Question # 27

Why would a transaction to purchase securities be declared null and void?

A.

It was the result of a rumour being spread

B.

The individual is a former employee

C.

The Authority has levied a penalty for delay of payment

D.

The investor has a conviction of an offence of dishonour

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Question # 28

Where self-fund founders intend to accept in-kind shares, the fund prospectus must state whether these shares:

A.

are to be valued subjectively

B.

may subsequently be disposed of

C.

will be held as capital assets of the fund

D.

are consistent with the fund’s investment strategy

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Question # 29

If an offering person arranges the issuance of crypto assets for which funds have been subscribed by investors, controls must be set up to avoid:

A.

subscriptions being taken at excessive levels from non-qualified investors

B.

subscriptions being taken at different threshold levels

C.

prices being determined at the discretion of the issuer

D.

prices being allowed to fluctuate during the opening offer period

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Question # 30

Which category of firm is required to provide accounts using a ‘Unified Centralised Back Office System’?

A.

Category 1 - Dealing in securities

B.

Category 2 - Dealing in investments

C.

Category 3 - Custody, clearing and recording

D.

Category 4 - Credit rating agencies

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