SY0-701 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2025 Question and Answers

Hashing is the process of converting plaintext passwords into a fixed-length, irreversible string using a mathematical algorithm (hash function). This makes each password unique based on its content, and even a small change in the password will produce a different hash. The primary purpose is to ensure that the actual passwords are not stored directly and cannot be easily recovered from the hash, even if the hash is compromised.

Social engineering is the practice of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, often by impersonating someone else or creating a sense of urgency or trust. The suspicious caller in this scenario was trying to use social engineering to trick the user into giving away credit card information by pretending to be the CFO and asking for a payment. The user recognized this as a potential scam and reported it to the IT help desk. The other topics are not relevant to this situation. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 19 1

Validating the code signature is the best way to verify software authenticity, as it ensures that the software has not been tampered with and that it comes from a verified source. Code signatures are digital signatures applied by the software vendor, and validating them confirms the software's integrity and origin.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites, banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one. The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]

A false positive is an alert that incorrectly identifies benign activity as malicious. Over time, if an alerting system generates too many false positives, security teams are likely to ignore these alerts, resulting in "alert fatigue." This increases the risk of missing genuine threats.

True positives and true negatives are accurate and should be acted upon.

False negatives are more dangerous because they fail to identify real threats, but they are not "ignored" since they do not trigger alerts​​.

Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability, scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud infrastructure. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 3491

 Analysis is the incident response activity that describes the process of understanding the source of an incident. Analysis involves collecting and examining evidence, identifying the root cause, determining the scope and impact, and assessing the threat actor’s motives and capabilities. Analysis helps the incident response team to formulate an appropriate response strategy, as well as to prevent or mitigate future incidents. Analysis is usually performed after detection and before containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 223. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.2, page 13.

Static analysis is the process of examining a file without executing it to identify known malicious signatures, suspicious patterns, strings, embedded resources, or code fragments. When a security engineer needs to quickly extract a signature from a known malicious file, static analysis is the most efficient approach. This method allows analysts to inspect binary code, metadata, file headers, and hashes such as MD5/SHA-256.

According to Security+ SY0-701, static analysis is ideal for identifying:

Malware signatures

Embedded malicious payloads

Hash values for detection

Known indicators of compromise (IOCs)

Sandboxing (B) is used to observe behavior by executing the malware, which takes longer and is unnecessary when the malware is already known. Network traffic analysis (C) is used to observe communications, not generate file signatures. Package monitoring (D) refers to monitoring OS-level changes and system calls, which is a dynamic method.

Static analysis aligns with the requirement for quick identification, making option A the correct choice.

PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.

If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.

The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls andrecommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself. C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance. D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]

Smishing is a type of phishing attack that uses text messages or common messaging apps to trick victims into clicking on malicious links or providing personal information. The scenario in the question describes a smishing attack that uses pretexting, which is a form of social engineering that involves impersonating someone else to gain trust or access. The unknown number claims to be the company’s CEO and asks the employee to purchase gift cards, which is a common scam tactic. Vishing is a similar type of attack that uses phone calls or voicemails, while phishing is a broader term that covers any email-based attack. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 771; Smishing vs. Phishing: Understanding the Differences2

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A responsibility matrix, often referred to in cloud computing as the Shared Responsibility Model, defines the exact roles, duties, and expectations between a cloud service provider (CSP) and the customer. This includes who is responsible for configuration, maintenance, patching, logging, updates, identity management, network security, and data protection.

According to the SY0-701 exam objectives, cloud models such as SaaS, PaaS, and IaaS all divide responsibilities differently. The responsibility matrix clarifies these boundaries so that neither party assumes the other is handling a critical security task. Misunderstandings in these areas can create dangerous security gaps, such as unpatched virtual machines, misconfigured storage buckets, or weak access controls.

A Service-Level Agreement (A) focuses on uptime, performance, and service expectations—not shared security roles. A Memorandum of Understanding (C) describes high-level cooperation between organizations, while an NDA (D) protects confidential information.

The responsibility matrix is emphasized under Security Program Management, specifically in managing third-party relationships and cloud provider governance, ensuring both parties understand their obligations and reducing the risk of misconfigurations or operational vulnerabilities.

Typosquatting is a social engineering and cybersquatting technique in which attackers register domain names similar to legitimate ones, hoping users will make a typographical error and visit their malicious website instead.

Endpoint management software is a tool that allows security engineers to monitor and control the configuration, security, and performance of workstations and servers from a central console. Endpoint management software can help detect and prevent unauthorized changes and software installations, enforce policies and compliance, and provide reports and alerts on the status of the endpoints. The other options are not as effective or comprehensive as endpoint management software for this purpose. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 137 1

Infrastructure as Code (IaC)enables automated provisioning and configuration of infrastructure, making environmentsrepeatable, consistent, and scalable. The ability tobetter manage and replicate configurations (B)ensures that security settings are not missed and reduces misconfigurations.

According to theCompTIA Security+ SY0-701exam objectives underDomain 4.1 (Explain the security implications of different architecture models),IaCprovides the ability to"automatically enforce security controls"and manageconsistent configuration states, reducing human error.

A security awareness program is a set of activities and initiatives that aim to educate and inform the users and employees of an organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices. A security awareness program can help to reduce the human factor in security risks, such as social engineering, phishing, malware, data breaches, and insider threats. A security awareness program should include various elements of communication, such as newsletters, posters, videos, webinars, quizzes, games, simulations, and feedback mechanisms, to deliver the security messages and reinforce the security culture. One of the most likely elements of communication to be included in a security awareness program is reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities, as this can help to raise the awareness of the users and employees about the common types of cyberattacks and how to respond to them. Reporting phishing attempts or other suspicious activities can also help to alert the security team and enable them to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of the attacks. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.

The other options are not as likely to be included as elements of communication in a security awareness program, because they are either technical or operational tasks that are not directly related to the security awareness of the users and employees. Detecting insider threats using anomalous behavior recognition is a technical task that involves using security tools or systems to monitor and analyze the activities and behaviors of the users and employees and identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate malicious or unauthorized actions. This task is usually performed by the security team or the security operations center, and it does not require the communication or participation of the users and employees. Verifying information when modifying wire transfer data is an operational task that involves using verification methods, such as phone calls, emails, or digital signatures, to confirm the authenticity and accuracy of the information related to wire transfers, such as the account number, the amount, or the recipient. This task is usually performed by the financial or accounting department, and it does not involve the security awareness of the users and employees. Performing social engineering as part of third-party penetration testing is a technical task that involves using deception or manipulation techniques, such as phishing, vishing, or impersonation, to test the security posture and the vulnerability of the users and employees to social engineering attacks. This task is usuallyperformed by external security professionals or consultants, and it does not require the communication or consent of the users and employees. Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Security Awareness and Training – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 5.2, video at 0:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 263.

Containment (C)is thefirst critical stepduring a security incident tostop the spreadof the attack. This could include isolating affected systems, disabling accounts, or blocking malicious traffic.

According to theIncident Response Lifecycle, the order is typically:Identification → Containment → Eradication → Recovery → Lessons Learned.

 An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that govern how users can access and use a corporate network or the internet. The AUP helps companies minimize their exposure to cyber security threats and limit other risks. The AUP also serves as a notice to users about what they are not allowed to do and protects the company against misuse of their network. Users usually have to acknowledge that they understand and agree to the rules before accessing the network1.

An AUP best represents a preventive security control type, because it aims to deter or stop potential security incidents from occurring in the first place. A preventive control is proactive and anticipates possible threats and vulnerabilities, and implements measures to prevent themfrom exploiting or harming the system or the data. A preventive control can be physical, technical, or administrative in nature2.

Some examples of preventive controls are:

Locks, fences, or guards that prevent unauthorized physical access to a facility or a device

Firewalls, antivirus software, or encryption that prevent unauthorized logical access to a network or a system

Policies, procedures, or training that prevent unauthorized or inappropriate actions or behaviors by users or employees

An AUP is an example of an administrative preventive control, because it defines the policies and procedures that users must follow to ensure the security and proper use of the network and the IT resources. An AUP can prevent users from engaging in activities that could compromise the security, performance, or availability of the network or the system, such as:

Downloading or installing unauthorized or malicious software

Accessing or sharing sensitive or confidential information without authorization or encryption

Using the network or the system for personal, illegal, or unethical purposes

Bypassing or disabling security controls or mechanisms

Connecting unsecured or unapproved devices to the network

By enforcing an AUP, a company can prevent or reduce the likelihood of security breaches, data loss, legal liability, or reputational damage caused by user actions or inactions3.

References = 1: How to Create an Acceptable Use Policy - CoreTech, 2: [Security Control Types: Preventive, Detective, Corrective, and Compensating], 3: Why You Need A Corporate Acceptable Use Policy - CompTIA

Availability is the ability of a system or service to be accessible and usable when needed. For a web application that allows individuals to digitally report health emergencies, availability is the most important consideration during development, because any downtime or delay could have serious consequences for the health and safety of the users. The web application should be designed to handle high traffic, prevent denial-of-service attacks, and have backup and recovery plans in case of failures2.

LDAP authentication on the printer (C)would require users toauthenticate before printing, enablingsecure print release. This ensures that documents arenot printed until the authorized user is physically present, which directly addresses the issue of missing confidential documents.

As perCompTIA Security+ SY0-701, Domain 3.1 (Access management), integratingauthentication mechanisms like LDAPimproves physical and document security in shared environments.

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If MFA is in place yet attackers still breach the system, the compromise most likely resulted from social engineering, specifically pretexting. Pretexting occurs when an attacker fabricates a convincing scenario (a “pretext”) to trick the victim into revealing authentication information, such as OTP codes, MFA prompts, or login details. Even strong MFA cannot prevent an attack when a human is tricked into voluntarily providing the code.

Smishing (A) involves fraudulent SMS messages, but no messaging is mentioned in the scenario. Typosquatting (B) involves deceptive URLs that appear similar to legitimate sites and is unrelated to MFA compromise. Espionage (C) refers to stealing sensitive or national-security-related information, not bypassing MFA protections.

Security+ SY0-701 details pretexting under Social Engineering Attacks, emphasizing that MFA does not fully mitigate human manipulation. Attackers frequently impersonate IT staff, vendors, or automated systems to convince victims to “verify” or “confirm” credentials. This perfectly matches a breach where MFA was present but still circumvented through deception.

AMaster Service Agreement (MSA)establishesthe general terms and conditionsfor ongoing business engagements. This allows companies toreuse the same termsacross multiple contracts, revisiting them periodically for updates.

NDA (B)protects confidential information but does not define service terms.

MOU (C)is a non-binding agreement, often used for partnerships, not formal service contracts.

SLA (D)focuses onservice performance expectations, not overall contract terms.

The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures​​.

A reflected denial of service (RDoS) attack is a type of DDoS attack that uses spoofed source IP addresses to send requests to a third-party server, which then sends responses to the victim server. The attacker exploits the difference in size between the request and the response, which can amplify the amount of traffic sent to the victim server. The attacker also hides their identity by using the victim’s IP address as the source. A RDoS attack can target DNS servers by sending forged DNS queries that generate large DNS responses. This can flood the network interface of the DNS server and prevent it from serving legitimate requests from end users. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215-216 1

Side loading is the process of installing applications from unofficial sources, often bypassing standard app stores. This increases the risk of installing malicious software, such as a rootkit, which is a type of malware designed to provide persistent privileged access while hiding its presence.

Tuning is the activity of adjusting the configuration or parameters of a security tool or system to optimize its performance and reduce false positives or false negatives. Tuning can help to filter out the normal or benign activity that is detected by the security tool or system, and focus on the malicious or anomalous activity that requires further investigation or response. Tuning can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the security operations center by reducing the workload and alert fatigue of the analysts. Tuning is different from aggregating, which is the activity of collecting and combining data from multiple sources or sensors to provide a comprehensive view of the security posture. Tuning is also different from quarantining, which is the activity of isolating a potentially infected or compromised device or system from the rest of the network to prevent further damage or spread. Tuning is also different from archiving, which is the activity of storing and preserving historical data or records for future reference or compliance. The act of ignoring detected activity in the future that is deemed normal by the security operations center is an example of tuning, as it involves modifying the settings or rules of the security tool or system to exclude the activity from the detection scope. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options. References = Security Alerting and Monitoring Concepts and Tools – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701: 4.3, video at 7:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 191.

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Tokenization is the most effective method for protecting sensitive data at rest within a database. Tokenization replaces sensitive information—such as credit card numbers, SSNs, or personal identifiers—with meaningless surrogate values (tokens). The actual data is stored securely in a separate token vault, reducing exposure if the primary database is compromised.

Hashing (A) is one-way and protects integrity, not usability, making it inappropriate for data that must later be retrieved. Masking (B) hides data from users but does not secure stored data in the database. Obfuscation (D) makes data harder to understand but is reversible and not intended for strong security.

Security+ SY0-701 identifies tokenization as a key control for data-at-rest protection, especially in regulated industries like finance and healthcare. It prevents attackers from accessing real data even if the database is breached, significantly reducing risk and compliance impact. This aligns with the exam’s emphasis on confidentiality and data protection strategies in stored environments.

A self-signed certificate is generated internally without involving an external Certificate Authority (CA). In a self-signed certificate, the certificate issuer and certificate subject are the same entity. Security+ SY0-701 explains that organizations frequently use self-signed certificates for internal systems, lab environments, or testing scenarios where external trust chains are unnecessary.

A digital signature (A) is a cryptographic function, not a certificate. Asymmetric keys (B) are used in public-key cryptography but do not constitute a certificate by themselves. Symmetric keys (D) are encryption tools, not certificates.

Therefore, the example of a certificate generated internally is C: Self-signed.

A Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a formal document between a service provider and a client that defines the expected level of service, including what resources will be provided and the agreed-upon time frames. It typically includes metrics to evaluate performance, uptime guarantees, and response times.

MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) and MOA (Memorandum of Agreement) are less formal and may not specify the exact level of service.

BPA (Business Partners Agreement) focuses more on the long-term relationship between partners​​.

Detailed Explanation:A version control tool, such as Git, tracks changes made to code, maintains history, and allows developers to manage and revert to earlier versions when needed. This ensures accountability and control over modifications. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Version Control and Documentation"​​.

Detailed Explanation:

Time-of-day restrictions limit access to corporate systems based on predefined schedules. This ensures employees can only access resources during their assigned work hours. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Access Control Models"​​.

Port security is the best mitigation technique for preventing an attacker from flooding the MAC address table of network switches. Port security can limit the number of MAC addresses learned on a port, preventing an attacker from overwhelming the switch's MAC table (a form of MAC flooding attack). When the allowed number of MAC addresses is exceeded, port security can block additional devices or trigger alerts.

Load balancer distributes network traffic but does not address MAC flooding attacks.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) detects and prevents attacks but isn't specifically designed for MAC flooding mitigation.

NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) offers advanced traffic inspection but is not directly involved in MAC table security​​​.

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) systems are typically configured to protect sensitive data such as Personally Identifiable Information (PII) within an organization. DLP tools enforce policies that monitor, detect, and block the unauthorized transmission of sensitive data. By leveraging the organization’s existing labeling and classification system, DLP solutions can identify and protect data based on its classification, ensuring that PII is appropriately secured according to organizational policies.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and DLP​.

Effective change management requires structured planning, testing, review, approval, deployment, and rollback capabilities. According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-701, one of the most critical components of change management is having a backout plan, which allows the organization to safely revert changes if the update or patch causes issues, operational disruption, or security instability. A proper backout plan reduces downtime, maintains system availability, and protects against unexpected failures.

Approving a change after deployment (A) violates standard change management protocols. Approval must occur before live implementation. Using a spreadsheet (C) is not considered an effective or secure change management mechanism. Automatic bypassing of change controls (D) is dangerous, even for security patches, because changes must be tested to avoid service outages or unintended vulnerabilities.

Therefore, the best description of effective change management is B: Having a backout plan when a patch fails.

A partially known environment is a type of penetration test where the tester has some information about the target, such as the IP address, the operating system, or the device type. This can help the tester focus on specific vulnerabilities and reduce the scope of the test. A partially known environment is also called a gray box test1.

A tabletop exercise simulates incident scenarios to test and validate the effectiveness of an organization's Incident Response Plan (IRP), identifying gaps and areas needing updates. It promotes team readiness without disrupting operations.

Addressing audit findings (A), collecting remediation times (B), and calculating ROI (D) are separate activities and not the primary purpose of tabletop exercises.

This practice is an integral part of Security Operations and Incident Response training in SY0-701【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A watering-hole attack is a type of cyberattack that targets groups of users by infecting websites that they commonly visit. The attackers exploit vulnerabilities to deliver a malicious payload to the organization’s network. The attack aims to infect users’ computers and gain access to a connected corporate network. The attackers target websites known to be popular among members of a particular organization or demographic. The attack differs from phishing and spear-phishing attacks, which typically attempt to steal data or install malware onto users’ devices1

In this scenario, the compromised industry blog is the watering hole that the attackers used to spread malware across the company’s network. The attackers likely chose this blog because they knew that the employees of the company were interested in its content and visited it frequently. The attackers may have injected malicious code into the blog or redirected the visitors to a spoofed website that hosted the malware. The malware then infected the employees’ computers and propagated to the network.

References1: Watering Hole Attacks: Stages, Examples, Risk Factors & Defense …

Once an incident is detected, the next step is containment, which involves limiting the scope and impact of the incident to prevent further damage. Containment can be temporary or long-term, isolating affected systems or networks.

Detection (B) is the initial identification phase before containment. Eradication (C) follows containment and involves removing the root cause. Recovery (D) is the final step to restore normal operations.

This workflow is fundamental in the Incident Response lifecycle detailed in Security Operations in SY0-701【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A cryptographic vulnerability refers to weaknesses caused by the use of outdated or insecure cryptographic algorithms, protocols, or keys. These vulnerabilities make it easier for attackers to compromise encrypted data or communications. Use of deprecated ciphers or insufficient key lengths are typical examples.

Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection​.

An Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) defines what users are permitted and prohibited from doing on an organization's systems, including website access. Accessing unauthorized sites is a common violation of the AUP.

Detailed Explanation:COPE (Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled) devices allow companies to manage and harden company-owned devices while still enabling limited personal use, reducing security risks while maintaining compatibility with corporate resources. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Mobile Device Deployment Models"​​.

A false positive is a result that indicates a vulnerability or a problem when there is none. In this case, the vulnerability scanning report shows that the telnet service on port 23 is open and uses an insecure network protocol. However, the security analyst performs a test using nmap and a script that checks for telnet encryption support. The result shows that the telnet server supports encryption, which means that the data transmitted between the client and the server can be protected from eavesdropping. Therefore, the reported vulnerability is a false positive and does not reflect the actual security posture of the server. The security analyst should verify the encryption settings of the telnet server and client and ensure that they are configured properly3. References: 3: Telnet Protocol - Can You Encrypt Telnet?

Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to injectcommands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.

Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 - Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 - 9:08; Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2, 0:00 - 2:00.

A honeytoken is a form of deception technology in which a fake asset (such as credentials, files, or database records) is planted in a system or network to detect unauthorized access or malicious activity. The fake password stored in a hidden spreadsheet, with monitoring for access, is a classic example of a honeytoken. It is not an interactive system (like a honeypot or honeynet) but rather a marker or tripwire intended to alert the security team to suspicious behavior. This method helps identify attackers and their methods early in the intrusion process.

Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is a security protocol used to encrypt and authenticate the streaming of audio and video over IP networks. It ensures that the video streams from the IP cameras are both encrypted to prevent unauthorized access and authenticated to verify the integrity of the stream, making it the ideal choice for securing video surveillance.

Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.

ACertificate Revocation List (CRL)is adigitally signed list maintained by a Certificate Authority (CA)that containsrevoked or expired certificates. This prevents clients from trustingcompromised or outdated certificates.

TPM (A)is a hardware security module, unrelated to certificate revocation.

PKI (C)is the overall system managing digital certificates, but it does not store revocation lists.

CSR (D)is a request to obtain a certificate, not to revoke one.

Encryption is the standard method for protecting data in transit, ensuring that intercepted communications cannot be read without the appropriate decryption key.

Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is a key metric used to estimate the average time required to repair a failed component or system and restore it to operational status. In this case, the administrator would rely on MTTR to estimate how long it will take to fix the critical server’s failed drive and get it back online.

Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF) measures the expected operational lifespan between failures, so it does not provide an estimate of repair time.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO) refers to the maximum allowable downtime for a system or service before unacceptable impact occurs, which is a planning metric rather than an actual repair time measure.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time and relates to backup frequency rather than repair duration.

Therefore, MTTR is the appropriate metric to estimate the time to fix a failed drive. This concept is detailed in the Resilience and Physical Security chapter within the Security Operations domain of the SY0-701 exam【6:Chapter 9†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Host isolation ensures that a device cannot communicate with other systems on the network. Isolation is typically applied through EDR/XDR tools, quarantine mechanisms, or endpoint firewalls. Security+ SY0-701 identifies host isolation as a containment technique used when:

A device is suspected of compromise

Lateral movement must be prevented

Sensitive systems must be protected

A system must be completely cut off except for administrative access

Isolation enforces an immediate block on all inbound and outbound communications, effectively making the device inaccessible to any network-based resource.

Disablement of unused services (A) reduces attack surface but does not isolate the device.

A WAF (B) protects web applications, not device access.

A network IDS (D) only monitors traffic and does not block access.

Thus, C: Host isolation is the correct answer.

The correct answer is C. Password, authentication token, thumbprint. This combination of authentication factors satisfies the manager’s goal of implementing multifactor authentication that uses something you know, something you have, and something you are.

Something you know is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s knowledge of a secret or personal information, such as a password, a PIN, or a security question. A password is a common example of something you know that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you have is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s possession of a physical object or device, such as a smart card, a token, or a smartphone. An authentication token is a common example of something you have that can be used to generate a one-time password (OTP) or a code that can be used to access a VPN12

Something you are is a type of authentication factor that relies on the user’s biometric characteristics, such as a fingerprint, a face, or an iris. A thumbprint is a common example of something you are that can be used to scan and verify the user’s identity to access a VPN12

The administrator is using a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tool, which is designed to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data. By fingerprinting specific files, DLP ensures that these files cannot be emailed or sent outside the organization without triggering an alert or blocking the action. This is a key feature of DLP systems, which prevent data exfiltration and ensure data security compliance.

SNMP traps are used for network management and monitoring, not data protection.

SCAP (Security Content Automation Protocol) is a set of standards for automating vulnerability management and policy compliance, unrelated to file monitoring.

IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) blocks network-based attacks but does not handle file fingerprinting​​​.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)defines themaximum acceptable downtimebefore business operationsmust be restored. It helps organizations set expectations for recovery speed and prioritize system restoration accordingly.

A (likelihood of an incident and cost)relates to risk assessment, not RTO.

B (roles and responsibilities)falls underincident response planning, not RTO.

C (state of restored systems)is covered byRecovery Point Objective (RPO), not RTO.

An engineer should recommend the decommissioning of a network device when the device poses a security risk or a compliance violation to the enterprise environment. A device that cannot meet the encryption standards or receive authorized updates is vulnerable to attacks and breaches, and may expose sensitive data or compromise network integrity. Therefore, such a device should be removed from the network and replaced with a more secure and updated one.

References

CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2, page 671

CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 2, Question 16, page 512

A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. A DRP typically includes the following elements:

A risk assessment that identifies the potential threats and impacts to the organization’s critical assets and processes.

A business impact analysis that prioritizes the recovery of the most essential functions and data.

A recovery strategy that defines the roles and responsibilities of the recovery team, the resources and tools needed, and the steps to follow to restore the system.

A testing and maintenance plan that ensures the DRP is updated and validated regularly. A DRP is required for an organization to properly manage its restore process in the event of system failure, as it provides a clear and structured framework for recovering from a disaster and minimizing the downtime and data loss. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325.

One of the primary advantages of SIEM tools is their ability to correlate events across multiple hosts and devices to identify patterns that may indicate coordinated attacks or advanced threats. Reviewing logs for correlations helps detect complex incidents that might be missed when looking at individual systems.

Checking password resets (A) and monitoring DDoS (B) are possible but less common primary reasons. Assessing privacy breach scope (C) is usually done post-incident, not typically during initial SIEM log reviews.

Log correlation capabilities are a core SIEM feature described in Security Operations【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Detailed Explanation:Behavioral analytics tools monitor user actions and detect anomalies that may indicate insider threats, such as unauthorized access or unusual data exfiltration activities. These tools establish baselines for normal behavior and flag deviations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Behavioral Analytics and Monitoring"​​.

For extended power failures, the best safeguard is a generator. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that generators are designed to provide long-term, sustained power, unlike UPS systems, which only supply temporary emergency power.

Generators ensure that critical operations—including data centers, communication systems, and security infrastructure—stay online for hours or days, depending on fuel capacity. This matches the requirement for mitigating “extended” outages.

UPS units (C) protect against short-term outages and provide time for graceful shutdown or generator startup, but cannot support prolonged power consumption. Batteries (B) provide the least protection and run out quickly. Off-site backups (A) do not maintain operational continuity; they simply preserve data.

Disaster recovery and business continuity planning in SY0-701 highlights generators as essential components for maintaining availability, a core principle of the CIA triad. Generators prevent downtime, maintain productivity, and keep essential systems functioning throughout prolonged outages, making D the best answer.

An evil twin attack involves setting up a fraudulent Wi-Fi access point that mimics a legitimate one to intercept network traffic or steal credentials. This attack exploits insecure wireless networks and is focused on network infrastructure.

Impersonation, watering hole, and pretexting are social engineering or web-based attacks, not primarily network attacks.

The evil twin attack is a well-known wireless threat discussed under Threats and Vulnerabilities in SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, andantivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.

The log entries show repeated attempts to access directories using patterns such as ../, which is a common directory traversal attack technique. Directory traversal (or path traversal) aims to access files and directories outside the web server's root directory by manipulating file paths. The ../ sequence is used to move up one directory level, which attackers exploit to try and retrieve sensitive files.

Testing the security of a building's alarm system falls under physical penetration testing. According to Security+ SY0-701, physical penetration tests evaluate the effectiveness of physical security controls such as locks, alarms, cameras, sensors, badge readers, and access control points. These tests simulate real-world attempts to bypass or disable physical protections.

Defensive testing (B) refers to defensive security operations, not pen testing scope. Integrated testing (C) relates to combined system evaluations but is not a standard pen testing category. Continuous testing (D) refers to ongoing automated tests, not physical alarm evaluation.

Thus, the correct answer is A: Physical.

Jailbreaking is the process of removing restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on a smartphone, allowing the user to install unauthorized software and features not available through official app stores. This action typically voids the warranty and can introduce security risks by bypassing built-in protections.

SOU (Statement of Understanding) is not related to modifying devices.

Cross-site scripting is a web-based attack technique, unrelated to smartphone software.

Side loading refers to installing apps from unofficial sources but without necessarily removing built-in restrictions like jailbreaking does​​.

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

Detailed Explanation:Rules of engagement specify the agreed-upon boundaries, scope, and procedures for a penetration test to ensure compliance and avoid disruption to the environment. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Penetration Testing Procedures"​​.

A firewall ACL (access control list) is a set of rules that determines which traffic is allowed or denied by the firewall. The rules are processed in order, from top to bottom, until a match is found. The syntax of a firewall ACL rule is:

Access list

To limit outbound DNS traffic originating from the internal network, the firewall ACL should allow only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send DNS requests to any destination on port 53, and deny all other outbound traffic on port 53. The correct firewall ACL is:

Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25/32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53

The first rule permits outbound traffic from the source address 10.50.10.25/32 (a single host) to any destination address (0.0.0.0/0) on port 53 (DNS). The second rule denies all other outbound traffic on port 532.

The employee notices that the links in the email do not correspond to the company's official URLs, indicating that this is likely a social engineering attack. Social engineering involves manipulating individuals into divulging confidential information or performing actions that may compromise security. Phishing emails, like the one described, often contain fraudulent links to trick the recipient into providing sensitive information or downloading malware.

Business email refers to business email compromise (BEC), which typically involves impersonating a high-level executive to defraud the company.

Unsecured network is unrelated to the email content.

Default credentials do not apply here, as the issue is with suspicious links, not login credentials​​.

Zero-day vulnerabilities are unknown flaws in software, making them harder to patch, especially when using open-source libraries without dedicated support teams.

=================

A watering hole attack occurs when attackers compromise a website that is frequently visited by targeted users—in this case, the payment processing site used by employees. The compromised site then delivers malicious payloads to visitors, such as downloading malicious applications without user consent.

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) attacks inject malicious scripts into web pages but typically do not cause automatic application downloads leading to restarts. Typosquatting (C) involves malicious websites mimicking legitimate ones via misspelled URLs. Buffer overflow (D) is an attack targeting software memory but doesn’t typically involve website compromise and automatic downloads.

This attack type is detailed in the Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

The described scenario is CYOD (Choose Your Own Device). In a CYOD model, employees may choose from a list of company-approved devices. These devices are vetted for compatibility, security, and organizational standards while still providing some flexibility to employees.

The SY0-701 exam differentiates CYOD from other mobile deployment models:

COPE (D) – Company-Owned, Personally Enabled: devices are company-owned and fully managed, but employees can use them personally.

MDM (A) – Mobile Device Management: a tool, not a deployment model, used for managing configurations and security on devices.

PED (C) – Portable Electronic Device: a generic category, not a deployment strategy.

CYOD strikes a balance between employee preference and maintaining a secure, standardized environment. It reduces risk associated with BYOD while avoiding the rigidity of COPE. CYOD also supports consistent patching, support, and security enforcement because all devices meet the organization’s baseline criteria.

This aligns with the Security Architecture section of SY0-701, where the exam stresses secure device deployment strategies and maintaining uniform controls over endpoint assets.

Deploying a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solution allows for efficient log aggregation, correlation, and analysis across an organization’s infrastructure, providing real-time security insights.References: Security+ SY0-701 Course Content​, Security+ SY0-601 Book​.

Environmental variables store configuration settings, paths, and other system-related information that applications and processes use. If an attacker gains access to these variables, they could manipulate them to alter application behavior, gain unauthorized access, or escalate privileges.For example, an attacker could modify the PATH variable to execute malicious programs instead of legitimate ones. This can significantlyincrease the scope and impact of an exploited vulnerability, making it a major security concern.

= A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target system. A jump server can provide an added layer of security by preventing unauthorized access to internal company resources. A user can connect to the jump server using a secure protocol, such as SSH, and then access the target system from the jump server. This way, the target system is isolated from the external network and only accessible through the jump server. A jump server can also enforce security policies, such as authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing, on the user’s connection. A jump server is also known as a bastion host or a jump box. References = CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts. CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 3: Network Architecture and Design, page 101. Other Network Appliances – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Video 3:03. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam SY0-701 Practice Test 1, Question 2.

Applying the latest OS updates, patches, and endpoint definitions is the most effective way to prevent known exploits, which are attacks leveraging previously discovered vulnerabilities for which fixes are available.

An Access Control List (ACL) is a technical mechanism used to explicitly define permissions for files, folders, or other resources. ACLs specify which users or system processes are granted access to objects and what operations are allowed on given objects. This allows the administrator to centrally and granularly manage file permissions for a group or team.

Detailed Explanation:An unskilled attacker, often referred to as a script kiddie, is likely to engage in website defacement. This type of attack typically requires minimal expertise and is often conducted for notoriety. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Threats, Section: "Threat Actors and Motivations"​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:

Operations security (OPSEC) focuses on identifying and protecting sensitive information to prevent unauthorized disclosure. In this scenario, the HR employee failed to safeguard confidential company information, leading to its exposure on social media.

Training in OPSEC would reinforce the need to maintain security best practices, such as locking screens when away from a device and ensuring that sensitive data is not exposed in unsecured locations.

Hybrid work environmentpolicies relate to managing remote and in-office work but do not specifically cover security risks like unauthorized data exposure.

Data loss prevention (DLP)deals with technology-based solutions to prevent unauthorized data transfers but does not address physical security practices.

Social engineeringrefers to deceptive tactics used by attackers to manipulate individuals, which is not applicable to this situation.

The HR employee should reviewoperations securitypolicies to prevent similar incidents in the future.

A group policy object (GPO) is a mechanism for applying configuration settings to computers and users in an Active Directory domain. By pushing a GPO update, the systems administrator can quickly and uniformly enforce the new password policy across all systems in the domain. Deploying PowerShell scripts, enabling PAP, and updating EDR profiles are not the most efficient or effective ways to change the password policy within an enterprise environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 115; Password Policy - Windows Security

The misuse of personally identifiable information (PII) is often mitigated through employee training on privacy legislation and company compliance. Training on privacy legislation educates employees about legal requirements and consequences related to handling PII, such as GDPR or HIPAA. Company compliance training reinforces internal policies and procedures regarding data handling, acceptable use, and the repercussions of violations.

While social engineering and phishing training are important for security awareness, they address external threats rather than insider misuse of data. Risk management is a broader discipline focused on assessing and mitigating organizational risks but does not directly prevent employee misuse through training. Remote work training focuses on secure practices for working outside corporate environments, which is not the core issue here.

This approach aligns with Security Program Management and Oversight principles emphasizing compliance and privacy training to reduce insider threats【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A bastion host is a hardened system placed at a network boundary to absorb attacks and limit exposure. When deployed to mitigate risks from zero-day vulnerabilities, it acts as a compensating control. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 defines compensating controls as alternative safeguards used when primary controls are insufficient or unavailable—such as when no patch exists for a zero-day.

Detective controls (B) identify issues but do not reduce exposure. Operational controls (C) refer to procedural or human-driven processes. Physical controls (D) secure physical environments (e.g., locks, cameras).

Because a bastion host compensates for the lack of a patch, the correct answer is A: Compensating.

Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.

The other options are not the best ways to address the company’s concern:

Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.

Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to optimize the utilization,efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially if the servers are located in the same room or building4.

Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the availability or continuity of the network services.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.

Encryption is a reversible process that transforms cleartext data into ciphertext to protect confidentiality. It uses cryptographic keys to both encrypt and decrypt data, ensuring that only authorized parties can access the original data.

Hashing, on the other hand, is a one-way function that converts data into a fixed-length hash value or checksum. Hashing is primarily used to verify data integrity by detecting changes, since any modification in the input will produce a different hash output. Unlike encryption, hashing cannot be reversed to obtain the original data.

While encryption can protect data both at rest and in transit, hashing does not protect data confidentiality but supports integrity verification. Public-key exchange is a cryptographic mechanism within asymmetric encryption but is unrelated to hashing key usage.

This distinction is thoroughly explained in the Cryptography chapter of the SY0-701 syllabus【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Ransomware-as-a-service is a type of cybercrime where hackers sell or rent ransomware tools or services to other criminals who use them to launch attacks and extort money from victims. This is a typical example of organized crime, which is a group of criminals who work together to conduct illegal activities for profit. Organized crime is different from other types of threat actors, such as insider threats, hacktivists, or nation-states, who may have different motives, methods, or targets. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17 1

The company should request a certification from the vendor that confirms the storage array has been disposed of securely and in compliance with the company’s policies and standards. A certification provides evidence that the vendor has followed the proper procedures and methods to destroy the classified data and prevent unauthorized access or recovery. A certification may also include details such as the date, time, location, and method of disposal, as well as the names and signatures of the personnel involved. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 1441

AnAPI (B)or Application Programming Interface is the best option when you want toautomate data exchangebetween systems. APIs provide structured, secure, and efficient ways for systems to communicate and are widely used in automation and orchestration tasks.

SOAR (A)is used for broader security orchestration and may use APIs under the hood but is more complex.

SFTP (C)is for manual/automated file transfers.

RDP (D)is for remote desktop access, not data automation.

This is referenced inDomain 1.5: Explain the importance of automation and orchestration in cybersecurityunder“Application programming interfaces (APIs).”

Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol used for secure command-line access to remote systems, while Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) is an extension of SSH used specifically for securely transferring files. Both SSH and SFTP ensure that data is encrypted during transmission, protecting it from interception or tampering.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure Protocols and Encryption​.

Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code analysis, code review, and code signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2

 Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.

The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:

Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.

Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis4.

Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.

References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.

Detailed Explanation:

Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Data Masking and Tokenization"​​.

CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a framework that provides a standardized way to assess and communicate the severity and risk of vulnerabilities. CVSS uses a set of metrics and formulas to calculate a numerical score ranging from 0 to 10, where higher scores indicate higher criticality. CVSS can help organizations prioritize remediation efforts and compare vulnerabilities across different systems and vendors. The other options are not used to measure the criticality of a vulnerability, but rather to identify, classify, or report them. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 39

Code repositories are a common source of unintentional corporate credential leakage, especially in cloud environments. Developers may accidentally commit and push sensitive information, such as API keys, passwords, and other credentials, to public or poorly secured repositories. These credentials can then be accessed by unauthorized users, leading to security breaches. Ensuring that repositories are properly secured and that sensitive data is never committed is critical for protecting against this type of leakage.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threats and Vulnerability Management​.

Purchasing insurance is a classic example of risk transfer, where financial risk associated with potential losses is shifted to a third party (the insurer). This strategy does not eliminate the risk but moves the financial burden.

Mitigation (A) reduces risk impact or likelihood through controls, acceptance (B) involves acknowledging the risk without action, and avoidance (C) eliminates the risk by not engaging in the activity.

Risk transfer is a fundamental concept taught in the Risk Management domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 17†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Failure to comply with right-to-be-forgotten (data privacy) regulations can lead to significant fines imposed by regulatory authorities like GDPR enforcers. Such laws require companies to delete personal data upon user request.

Data breaches (B) are security incidents; revenue loss (C) and blackmail (D) may occur indirectly but fines are the direct legal consequence.

Regulatory compliance and consequences are critical topics in Security Program Management【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple resources or services across different domains or organizations. Federation relies on a trusted third party that stores the user’s credentials and provides them to the requested resources or services without exposing them. Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create passwords that meet certain criteria, such as length, character types, and uniqueness. Password complexity can help prevent brute-force attacks, password guessing, and credential stuffing by making passwords harder to crack or guess. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308-309 and 312-313 1

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a company to host desktop environments on a centralized server. Offshore teams can access these virtual desktops remotely, ensuring that sensitive data stays within the company’s infrastructure without the need to provide physical devices to the team. This solution is ideal for maintaining data security while enabling remote work, as all data processing occurs on the company's secure servers.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: VDI is discussed as a method for securely managing remote access to company resources without compromising data security​​.

Salting is a technique used to enhance the security of hashed passwords by adding a unique, random value (salt) to each password before hashing it. This prevents attackers from easily decrypting passwords using rainbow tables, which are precomputed tables for reversing cryptographic hash functions. Since each password has a unique salt, the same password will produce different hash values, making rainbow table attacks ineffective.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Hashing Techniques​.

Detailed Explanation:Firewall logs provide details of all network traffic, including connections to and from IoT devices. They are typically the first source of evidence for identifying the time of an exploit. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Log Analysis for Incident Response"​​.

 An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.

The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a servicelevel agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities, and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).

Classification is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and handling requirements to data, which informs its lifecycle management, retention, and disposal methods. In regulated industries such as banking, proper data classification ensures that data subject to legal or regulatory requirements is destroyed according to those requirements at the end of its retention period. This directly guides how the data should be handled and disposed of.

Secure Access Service Edge (SASE) is the technology best suited for preventing remote users from accessing malicious URLs. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 framework, SASE integrates cloud-native security capabilities such as DNS filtering, secure web gateways, CASB, and URL categorization, all delivered inline. This means every URL request from a remote user is checked in real time for reputation, content, and category before access is granted.

This solution is specifically designed for remote workforces because security enforcement happens in the cloud, regardless of user location—eliminating reliance on on-premise proxies or VPN routing. SASE also enables consistent policy application and real-time enforcement across distributed networks.

A VPN (A) only encrypts traffic; it does not perform URL reputation checks. IDS (C) detects malicious activity but does not block URL access. SD-WAN (D) optimizes WAN routing but is not focused on content filtering or URL reputation.

Therefore, SASE is the correct and most effective solution for inline URL inspection and preventing remote users from reaching malicious sites.

The first step in responding to a cybersecurity incident, particularly when malware is detected, is to contain the impacted hosts. This action prevents the spread of malware to other parts of the network, limiting the potential damage while further investigation and remediation actions are planned.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly on incident response procedures and the importance of containment in managing security incidents​​.

When a legacy device is no longer receiving updates or patches, it is considered to be at the end of life (EOL). This means the manufacturer has ceased support for the device, and it will no longer receive updates, security patches, or technical assistance. EOL devices pose security risks and are often decommissioned or replaced.

End of support may seem similar but typically refers to the cessation of technical support, whereas EOL means the device is fully retired.

End of business and End of testing do not apply in this context​​.

A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data, as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network Security, page 441-442 1

Detailed Explanation:Standard operating procedures (SOPs) outline the steps to be followed to maintain a secure baseline, such as testing and deploying patches while minimizing risk to the system. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Patch Management and Baseline Compliance"​​.

Detailed Explanation:A Memorandum of Agreement (MOA) outlines terms of cooperation, including restrictions on sharing intellectual property. A breach indicates the terms of the agreement were violated, compromising confidentiality or usage terms. Reference: CompTIASecurity+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Third-Party Risk Management"​​.

The security analyst is creating a "secure configuration guide," which is a set of instructions or guidelines used to configure devices securely before deployment. This guide ensures that thedevices are set up according to best practices to minimize vulnerabilities and protect against potential security threats.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on System Hardening and Secure Configuration​.

The most appropriate method is to use aGroup Policy Object (GPO) with time-of-day restrictions (A). This is a native capability in Windows environments that allows administrators to controlwhen users are allowed to log into domain-joined systems.

This aligns withDomain 3.1: Given a scenario, apply identity and access management (IAM) concepts, especially under“Access controls (e.g., time-based restrictions, GPOs, least privilege).”

Encryption is a method of transforming data in a way that makes it unreadable without a secret key necessary to decrypt the data back into plaintext. Encryption is one of the most common and effective ways to protect data at rest, as it prevents unauthorized access, modification, or theft of the data. Encryption can be applied to different types of data at rest, such as block storage, object storage, databases, archives, and so on. Hashing, tokenization, and segmentation are not methods of rendering data at rest unreadable, but rather of protecting data in other ways. Hashing is a one-way function that generates a fixed-length output, called a hash or digest, from an input, such that the input cannot be recovered from the output. Hashing is used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but not to encrypt it. Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive substitutes, called tokens, that have no meaning or value on their own. Tokenization is used to reduce the exposure and compliance scope of sensitive data, but not to encrypt it. Segmentation is a technique that divides a network or a system into smaller, isolated units, called segments, that have different levels of access and security. Segmentation is used to limit the attack surface and contain the impact of a breach, but not to encrypt data at rest. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, pages 77-781; Protecting data at rest - Security Pillar3

 Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices. References = Secure Data Destruction – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.

A serverless framework is a cloud-based application-hosting solution that meets the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A serverless framework is a type of cloud computing service that allows developers to run applications without managing or provisioning any servers. The cloud provider handles the server-side infrastructure, such as scaling, load balancing, security, and maintenance, and charges the developer only for the resources consumed by the application. A serverless framework enables developers to focus on the application logic and functionality, and reduces the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of serverless frameworks are AWS Lambda, Azure Functions, and Google Cloud Functions.

A type 1 hypervisor, SD-WAN, and SDN are not cloud-based application-hosting solutions that meet the requirements of low-cost and cloud-based. A type 1 hypervisor is a software layer that runs directly on the hardware and creates multiple virtual machines that can run different operating systems and applications. A type 1 hypervisor is not a cloud-based service, but a virtualization technology that can be used to create private or hybrid clouds. A type 1 hypervisor also requires the developer to manage and provision the servers and the virtual machines, which can increase the operational costs and complexity of hosting applications. Some examples of type 1 hypervisors are VMware ESXi, Microsoft Hyper-V, and Citrix XenServer.

SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network) is a network architecture that uses software to dynamically route traffic across multiple WAN connections, such as broadband, LTE, or MPLS. SD-WAN is not a cloud-based service, but a network optimization technology that can improve the performance, reliability, and security of WAN connections. SD-WAN can be used to connect remote sites or users to cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SD-WAN vendors are Cisco, VMware, and Fortinet.

SDN (Software-Defined Networking) is a network architecture that decouples the control plane from the data plane, and uses a centralized controller to programmatically manage and configure the network devices and traffic flows. SDN is not a cloud-based service, but a network automation technology that can enhance the scalability, flexibility, and efficiency of the network. SDN can be used to create virtual networks or network functions that can support cloud-based applications, but it does not host the applications itself. Some examples of SDN vendors are OpenFlow, OpenDaylight, and OpenStack.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 264-265; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 3.1 - Cloud and Virtualization, 7:40 - 10:00; [Serverless Framework]; [Type 1 Hypervisor]; [SD-WAN]; [SDN].

Changing the default password for the local administrator account on a VPN appliance is a basic security measure that would have most likely prevented the unexpected login to the remote management interface. Default passwords are often easy to guess or publicly available, and attackers can use them to gain unauthorized access to devices and systems. Changing the default password to a strong and unique one reduces the risk of brute-force attacks and credential theft. Using least privilege, assigning individual user IDs, and reviewing logs more frequently are also good security practices, but they are not as effective as changing the default password in preventing the unexpected login. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 116; Local Admin Accounts - Security Risks and Best Practices (Part 1)

The document described in the question is a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP). A DRP outlines the process and procedures for restoring critical systems and operations after a major disruption or outage. It includes the order in which systems should be brought back online to ensure minimal impact on business operations, prioritizing the most critical systems to recover first.

Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12

An SLA (Service-Level Agreement) defines the expected performance, availability, uptime, response times, and responsibilities between a provider and a client. The requirement in the scenario—“97% uptime”—is a classic example of an SLA metric. Security+ SY0-701 emphasizes that SLAs outline measurable service expectations so the client can assess compliance and performance.

A BPA (A) outlines business partnership terms, not performance uptime. An MOU (B) documents mutual understanding but is not legally binding and does not include uptime metrics. An NDA (C) protects confidentiality, not availability or service guarantees.

Thus, the correct answer is D: SLA.

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses text messages (SMS) to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Smishing messages often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as banks, government agencies, or service providers, and use urgent or threatening language to persuade the recipients to take action12. In this scenario, the text message that claims to be from the payroll department is an example of smishing.

Impersonation is a type of social engineering technique that involves pretending to be someone else, such as an authority figure, a trusted person, or a colleague, to gain the trust or cooperation of the target. Impersonation can be done through various channels, such as phone calls, emails, text messages, or in-person visits, and can be used to obtain information, access, or money from the victim34. In this scenario, the text message that pretends to be from the payroll department is an example of impersonation.

A. Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domain names that are similar to popular or well-known websites, but with intentional spelling errors or different extensions. Typosquatting aims to exploit the common mistakes that users make when typingweb addresses, and redirect them to malicious or fraudulent sites that may steal their information, install malware, or display ads56. Typosquatting is not related to text messages or credential verification.

B. Phishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses fraudulent emails to trick recipients into revealing sensitive information, clicking malicious links, or downloading malware. Phishing emails often mimic the appearance and tone of legitimate organizations, such as banks, retailers, or service providers, and use deceptive or urgent language to persuade the recipients to take action78. Phishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

D. Vishing is a type of social engineering technique that uses voice calls to trick victims into revealing sensitive information, such as passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. Vishing calls often appear to come from legitimate sources, such as law enforcement, government agencies, or technical support, and use scare tactics or false promises to persuade the recipients to comply9 . Vishing is not related to text messages or credential verification.

F. Misinformation is a type of social engineering technique that involves spreading false or misleading information to influence the beliefs, opinions, or actions of the target. Misinformation can be used to manipulate public perception, create confusion, damage reputation, or promote an agenda . Misinformation is not related to text messages or credential verification.

References = 1: What is Smishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 2: Smishing - Wikipedia 3: Impersonation Attacks: What Are They and How Do You Protect Against Them? 4: Impersonation - Wikipedia 5: What is Typosquatting? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 6: Typosquatting - Wikipedia 7: What is Phishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky 8: Phishing - Wikipedia 9: What is Vishing? | Definition and Examples | Kaspersky : Vishing - Wikipedia : What is Misinformation? | Definition and Examples | Britannica : Misinformation - Wikipedia

A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to apenetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?

A staging environment is a controlled setting that closely mirrors the production environment but uses a subset of customer data. It is used to test major system upgrades, assess their impact, and demonstrate new features before they are rolled out to the live production environment. This ensures that any issues can be identified and addressed in a safe environment before affecting end-users.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of secure system development and testing environments​​.

Software as a Service (SaaS) is the cloud model that best meets the goal of outsourcing the management, including patching, of firmware, operating systems, and applications to the cloud vendor. In a SaaS environment, the cloud provider is responsible for maintaining and updating the entire software stack, allowing the organization to focus on using the software rather than managing its infrastructure.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains related to cloud security models​​.

User Behavior Analytics (UBA)is specifically designed to detectanomalous or suspicious behaviorsby users that may indicate insider threats. UBA toolsestablish a baseline of normalbehaviorfor users and alert security teams when deviations occur (e.g., accessing sensitive files at odd hours, downloading large volumes of data, etc.).

Malicious insiders often bypass perimeter defenses like firewalls or IDS/IPS systems because they arelegitimate users. UBA offersvisibility into internal behavior patterns, which is essential for detecting these threats.

Virtualization (D)allows multiple systems and services to be hosted onfewer physical machines, therebyreducing the total number of physical devicesand consequently thehardware attack surface. This also allows for better patching, monitoring, and control.

The fewer devices you manage physically, the fewer entry points there are for attackers to exploit hardware-level vulnerabilities.

Since the logs on the endpoint were deleted, the next best option for the analyst is to examine firewall logs. Firewall logs can reveal external communication, including outbound traffic to a command-and-control (C2) server. These logs would contain information about the IP addresses, ports, and protocols used, which can help in identifying suspicious connections.

IPS logs may provide information about network intrusions, but firewall logs are better for tracking communication patterns.

ACL logs (Access Control List) are useful for tracking access permissions but not for identifying C2 communication.

Windows security logs would have been ideal if they had not been deleted

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Key escrow is the process of storing encryption keys (or copies of them) with a trusted third party so data can be recovered if the primary decryption key is lost. In Security+ SY0-701, escrow is emphasized as a required safeguard for organizations that rely heavily on encryption, especially for regulated data or systems requiring guaranteed recoverability.

A CSR (A) is a Certificate Signing Request and does not store keys. Salting (B) is used with hashing to prevent password attacks and does not assist in data recovery. A root of trust (C) ensures secure hardware initialization but does not store backup decryption keys.

Key escrow directly addresses scenarios where encryption keys are misplaced, corrupted, deleted, or lost due to employee departure or system failure. Without escrow, encrypted data could become permanently inaccessible.

Thus, the correct answer is Escrow, the only mechanism specifically designed to allow recovery when decryption keys are unavailable.

The scenario indicates that a user downloaded an unofficial patch, applied it, and afterward system files changed—detected by FIM. This strongly suggests the presence of a rootkit, which is designed to deeply embed itself into the operating system, altering core system files, modifying kernels, and hiding its presence.

Rootkits commonly replace or modify OS-level files, which results in changed file hashes—exactly what FIM is detecting. Rootkits often gain privileged, persistent control and are frequently disguised as legitimate updates or patches.

A logic bomb (A) is triggered by an event but does not typically modify OS files. A keylogger (B) captures keystrokes but doesn’t modify system files broadly. Ransomware (C) encrypts files, not silently alters system components.

Thus, the best match is D: Rootkit.

Within an organization's Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC), an Information Security Policy is a vital component. It outlines the rules and procedures for ensuring that the organization’s IT assets and data are protected throughout the development process. Ensuring secure coding practices, access controls, and regular security testing is fundamental in preventing vulnerabilities in applications.

Other options like service-level agreements and branch protection requirements are less likely to be integral to SDLC processes. Penetration testing methodology, while useful, is generally considered outside the scope of the SDLC​​.

Geographic dispersion is the practice of having backup data stored in different locations that are far enough apart to minimize the risk of a single natural disaster affecting both sites. This ensures that the company can recover its regulated data in case of a disaster at the primary site. Platform diversity, hot site, and load balancing are not directly related to the protection of backup data from natural disasters. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 449; Disaster Recovery Planning: Geographic Diversity

802.1X is a network access control protocol that provides an authentication mechanism to devices trying to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It supports the use of certificates for authentication, can quarantine unapproved devices, and ensures that only approved and updated devices can access network resources. This protocol best meets the requirements of securing both wired and wireless networks with internal certificates.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of network security and authentication protocols​​.

A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the data by various criteria12.

A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board of directors13.

A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.

Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 97.

When hosting an on-premises software application in a cloud-based service, ensuring visualization and isolation of resources is crucial for maintaining security best practices. This involves using virtualization techniques to create isolated environments (e.g., virtual machines or containers) for different applications and services, reducing the risk of cross-tenant attacks or resource leakage.

Network segmentation is important but pertains more to securing network traffic rather than isolating computing resources.

Data encryption is also essential but doesn’t specifically address resource isolation in a cloud environment.

Strong authentication policies are critical for access control but do not address the need for isolating resources within the cloud environment​​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Infrastructure as Code (IaC) is the technology required for automating infrastructure deployment. IaC allows organizations to define and deploy servers, networks, containers, and cloud resources using machine-readable configuration files rather than manual configuration. This leads to faster deployment, consistent environments, repeatability, version control, and lower human error.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 highlights IaC as a foundational component of DevOps and modern cloud operations. It supports automated provisioning through tools such as Terraform, Ansible, CloudFormation, and Puppet. IaC also enhances security by enabling automated compliance checks and standardized hardened configurations.

IaaS (B) is a cloud service model, not an automation mechanism. IoC (C) refers to Indicators of Compromise used in threat intelligence. IoT (D) refers to Internet-connected devices and is unrelated to infrastructure deployment.

Therefore, IaC is the required technology for automated, repeatable, secure infrastructure deployments.

Homomorphic encryption allows data to be encrypted and manipulated without needing to decrypt it first. This cryptographic technique would allow the financial institution to store customer data securely in the cloud while still permitting operations like searching andcalculations to be performed on the encrypted data. This ensures that the cloud service provider cannot decipher the sensitive data, meeting the institution’s security requirements.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptographic Techniques​.

An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.

Detailed Explanation:Load balancing improves application availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers. If one server fails, traffic is automatically routed to other available servers with minimal intervention. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "High Availability Solutions"​​.

A Host-Based Intrusion Prevention System (HIPS) provides preventive and detective security controls. Security+ SY0-701 explains that:

As a preventive control (B), HIPS actively blocks malicious behavior, stops unauthorized changes, prevents exploit execution, and enforces host-level protection. It prevents malware, intrusions, and unauthorized actions before they occur.

As a detective control (F), HIPS monitors host activity, detects suspicious patterns, logs events, and alerts administrators when threats are observed.

Directive controls (A) involve policy, not technical tools. Physical controls (C) include barriers and locks. Corrective controls (D) restore systems after incidents. Compensating controls (E) are alternatives when primary controls aren't available.

Therefore, the correct answers are B (Preventive) and F (Detective).

A web filter is a device or software that can monitor, block, or allow web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. One of the common methods of web filtering is to scan the URL for strings and deny access when matches are found. For example, a web filter can block access to websites that contain the words “gambling”, “porn”, or “malware” in their URLs. A URL is a uniform resource locator that identifies the location and protocol of a web resource. A URL typically consists of the following components: protocol://domain:port/path?query#fragment.The protocol specifies the communication method used to access the web resource, such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, or SMTP. The domain is the name of the web server that hosts the web resource, such as www.google.com or www.bing.com. The port is an optional number that identifies the specific service or application running on the web server, such as 80 for HTTP or 443 for HTTPS. The path is the specific folder or file name of the web resource, such as /index.html or /images/logo.png. The query is an optional string that contains additional information or parameters for the web resource, such as ?q=security or ?lang=en. The fragment is an optional string that identifies a specific part or section of the web resource, such as #introduction or #summary.

To prohibit access to non-encrypted websites, an analyst should employ a search string that matches the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic, which is HTTP. HTTP stands for hypertext transfer protocol, and it is a standard protocol for transferring data between web servers and web browsers. However, HTTP does not provide any encryption or security for the data, which means that anyone who intercepts the web traffic can read or modify the data. Therefore, non-encrypted websites are vulnerable to eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. To access a non-encrypted website, the URL usually starts with http://, followed by the domain name and optionally the port number. For example, http://www.example.com or http://www.example.com:80. By scanning the URL for the string http://, the web filter can identify and block non-encrypted websites.

The other options are not correct because they do not match the protocol of non-encrypted web traffic. Encryption=off is a possible query string that indicates the encryption status of the web resource, but it is not a standard or mandatory parameter. Https:// is the protocol of encrypted web traffic, which uses hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) to provide encryption and security for the data. Www.*.com is a possible domain name that matches any website that starts with www and ends with .com, but it does not specify the protocol. :443 is the port number of HTTPS, which is the protocol of encrypted web traffic. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 2: Securing Networks, page 69. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 2.1: Network Devices and Technologies, video: Web Filter (5:16).

Before applying any updates or patches to a production VM, especially one with a 99% uptime SLA, it is crucial to first take a snapshot of the VM. This snapshot serves as a backup that can be quickly restored in case the update causes any issues, ensuring that the system can be returned to its previous state without violating the SLA. This step mitigates risk and is a standard best practice in change management for critical systems.

References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, focusing on change management and backup strategies​​.

Web-filtering effectiveness heavily relies on content categorization to correctly identify and block access to malicious or inappropriate websites. If users are still visiting malicious links, it is likely that the categorization database or configuration needs updating or correction.

Intrusion prevention systems (A) protect against network attacks but do not filter web content by category. Encryption (C) is unrelated to web filtering, and DNS services (D) assist with domain resolution but do not directly categorize content.

Proper configuration and maintenance of content categorization are essential to effective web filtering, as emphasized in the Security Operations domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 12†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A site survey is the formal assessment used to determine the optimal number and placement of wireless access points (APs). According to Security+ SY0-701, wireless site surveys evaluate factors such as building layout, RF interference, wall material density, antenna propagation, and signal overlap. The goal is to ensure full wireless coverage while minimizing the number of APs needed, maximizing performance, and reducing dead zones.

During a site survey, technicians analyze:

Signal strength patterns

Interference sources (microwaves, metal shelving, wiring, etc.)

Required coverage zones

Capacity needs (number of users, devices)

Although heat maps (C) visually represent wireless signal distribution, they are a result of a site survey, not the process itself. WPA3 (B) is a security protocol unrelated to determining coverage. A signal locator (A) is not an enterprise-grade planning tool.

Therefore, the correct answer is D: Site survey.

Encrypting hard drives is a direct implementation of confidentiality, one of the three pillars of the CIA Triad emphasized in CompTIA Security+ SY0-701. Full disk encryption ensures that if a laptop, workstation, or server drive is stolen or accessed without authorization, the data remains unreadable without the decryption key.

This controls unauthorized disclosure and protects sensitive business, financial, and personal information. Drive encryption is widely required for compliance frameworks such as HIPAA, PCI-DSS, and GDPR.

Integrity (A) refers to preventing unauthorized modification of data, which encryption alone does not guarantee. Authentication (B) confirms user identity, such as passwords or biometrics, but is unrelated to data-at-rest protection. Zero Trust (C) is an architectural model requiring constant verification; it is not a control for hard drive encryption.

Since the sole purpose of encrypting storage is to ensure data confidentiality, the correct answer is D.

Detailed Explanation:A VM escape occurs when an attacker breaks out of a virtual machine's isolation to access the hypervisor. This compromise can allow control of the hypervisor and all other VMs on the host, posing significant security risks. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Virtualization Risks and Mitigation"​​.

Monitoring outbound traffic is essential for detecting unauthorized data exfiltration from a system. A new vulnerability that allows malware to move data unauthorizedly would typically attempt to send this data out of the network. By monitoring outbound traffic, security tools can detect unusual data transfers, trigger alerts, and help prevent the exfiltration of sensitive information.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Threat Detection and Response​.

The act described is espionage, where classified information is stolen and provided to adversaries or unauthorized parties, usually for political, military, or strategic advantage.

Data exfiltration (B) is the technical act of stealing data but doesn’t specify motivation. Financial gain (C) or blackmail (D) could be motivations but are not clearly indicated here.

Espionage is a classic threat actor motivation outlined in the Threats domain【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

A change management procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that a security administrator should adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules. A firewall is a device or software that can filter, block, or allow network traffic based on predefined rules or policies. A firewall rule is a statement that defines the criteria and action for a firewall to apply to a packet or a connection. For example, a firewall rule can allow or deny traffic based on the source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, or applications. Setting up a new set of firewall rules is a type of change that can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the network. Therefore, a change management procedure is necessary to ensure that the change is planned, tested, approved, implemented, documented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. A change management procedure typically includes the following elements:

A change request that describes the purpose, scope, impact, and benefits of the change, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the change owner, implementer, and approver.

A change assessment that evaluates the feasibility, risks, costs, and dependencies of the change, as well as the alternatives and contingency plans.

A change approval that authorizes the change to proceed to the implementation stage, based on the criteria and thresholds defined by the change policy.

A change implementation that executes the change according to the plan and schedule, and verifies the results and outcomes of the change.

A change documentation that records the details and status of the change, as well as the lessons learned and best practices.

A change review that monitors and measures the performance and effectiveness of the change, and identifies any issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved.

A change management procedure is important for a security administrator to adhere to when setting up a new set of firewall rules, as it can help to achieve the following objectives:

Enhance the security posture and compliance of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are aligned with the security policies and standards, and that they do not introduce any vulnerabilities or conflicts.

Minimize the disruption and downtime of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are tested and validated before deployment, and that they do not affect the availability or functionality of the network services or applications.

Improve the efficiency and quality of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are optimized and updated according to the changing needs and demands of the network users and stakeholders, and that they do not cause any performance or compatibility issues.

Increase the accountability and transparency of the network by ensuring that the firewall rules are documented and reviewed regularly, and that they are traceable and auditable by the relevant authorities and parties.

The other options are not correct because they are not related to the process of setting up a new set of firewall rules. A disaster recovery plan is a set of policies and procedures that aim to restore the normal operations of an organization in the event of a system failure, natural disaster, or other emergency. An incident response procedure is a set of steps and guidelines that aim to contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from a security incident, such as a cyberattack, data breach, or malware infection. A business continuity plan is a set of strategies and actions that aim to maintain the essential functions and operations of an organization during and after a disruptive event, such as a pandemic, power outage, or civil unrest. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 7: Resilience and Recovery, page 325. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 1.3: Security Operations, video: Change Management (5:45).

Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.

Detailed Explanation:The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standardized metric used to assess the severity of vulnerabilities, aiding organizations in prioritizing their response based on risk. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 2: Vulnerabilities, Section: "Vulnerability Prioritization and Metrics"​​.

To identify authentication weaknesses in a customer-facing web application, the best method is dynamic analysis, also known as Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST). Dynamic analysis evaluates an application while it is running, allowing testers to observe real-world interactions, session handling, login mechanisms, credential validation, access control failures, and runtime vulnerabilities such as brute-force weaknesses or authentication bypass conditions.

Security+ SY0-701 outlines DAST as the preferred approach for testing live web applications because it uncovers:

Weak session management

Broken authentication flows

Input validation failures

Misconfigurations in login portals

Runtime vulnerabilities that static code review cannot detect

Static analysis (A) only analyzes source code and may overlook logic flaws in authentication. Packet capture (B) inspects network traffic but cannot evaluate internal authentication logic. Agent-based scanning (C) is used for hosts, not web applications. Network-based scanning (E) finds port-level vulnerabilities but cannot assess application authentication mechanisms.

Therefore, dynamic analysis (D) is the most effective and accurate technique for discovering authentication weaknesses in live web applications.

A legacy server is a server that is running outdated or unsupported software or hardware, which may pose security risks and compatibility issues. A critical business application is an application that is essential for the operation and continuity of the business, such as accounting, payroll, or inventory management. A legacy server running a critical business application may be difficult to replace or upgrade, but it should not be left unsecured or exposed to potential threats.

One of the best ways to handle a legacy server running a critical business application is to harden it. Hardening is the process of applying security measures and configurations to a system to reduce its attack surface and vulnerability. Hardening a legacy server may involve steps such as:

Applying patches and updates to the operating system and the application, if available

Removing or disabling unnecessary services, features, or accounts

Configuring firewall rules and network access control lists to restrict inbound and outbound traffic

Enabling encryption and authentication for data transmission and storage

Implementing logging and monitoring tools to detect and respond to anomalous or malicious activity

Performing regular backups and testing of the system and the application

Hardening a legacy server can help protect the critical business application from unauthorized access, modification, or disruption, while maintaining its functionality and availability. However, hardening a legacy server is not a permanent solution, and it may not be sufficient to address all the security issues and challenges posed by the outdated or unsupported system. Therefore, it is advisable to plan for the eventual decommissioning or migration of the legacy server to a more secure and modern platform, as soon as possible.

A vulnerability scan is the most likely method to identify legacy systems. These scans assess an organization's network and systems for known vulnerabilities, including outdated or unsupportedsoftware (i.e., legacy systems) that may pose a security risk. The scan results can highlight systems that are no longer receiving updates, helping IT teams address these risks.

Bug bounty programs are used to incentivize external researchers to find security flaws, but they are less effective at identifying legacy systems.

Package monitoring tracks installed software packages for updates or issues but is not as comprehensive for identifying legacy systems.

Dynamic analysis is typically used for testing applications during runtime to find vulnerabilities, but not for identifying legacy systems​​.

A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.

RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34.

HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside on them5 .

A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers. A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them . References =

How to access a remote server using a jump host

Jump server

RADIUS

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)

Hardware Security Module (HSM)

[What is an HSM?]

[Load balancing (computing)]

[What is Load Balancing?]

Code signing is a technique that uses cryptography to verify the authenticity and integrity of the code created by the company. Code signing involves applying a digital signature to the code using a private key that only the company possesses. The digital signature can be verified by anyone who has the corresponding public key, which can be distributed through a trusted certificate authority. Code signing can prevent unauthorized modifications, tampering, or malware injection into the code, and it can also assure the users that the code is from a legitimate source. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 74. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 3.2, page 11. Application Security – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2

This is a classic example of Business Email Compromise (BEC), where attackers spoof or compromise trusted email accounts to trick employees into performing unauthorized financial transactions.

Vishing (B) is voice phishing, spear phishing (C) targets individuals with customized messages, and impersonation (D) is a general term for identity deception but BEC specifically describes financial fraud via email.

BEC is a major threat covered in the Threats domain of SY0-701【6:Chapter 2†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】

The scenario shows MD5 hashed password values. The most likely reason the security administrator is focusing on these values is to protect against pass-the-hash attacks. In this type of attack, an attacker can use a captured hash to authenticate without needing to know the actual plaintext password. By managing and monitoring these hashes, the administrator can implement strategies to mitigate this type of threat.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management​.

Detailed Explanation:Host isolation ensures that a device is separated from the network, preventing it from accessing or being accessed by other network resources. This is typically achieved by quarantining the device. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Isolation and Containment"​​.

The Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE) is most useful in determining whether the long-term cost to transfer a risk is less than the impact of the risk. ALE is calculated by multiplying the SingleLoss Expectancy (SLE) by the Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO), which provides an estimate of the annual expected loss due to a specific risk, making it valuable for long-term financial planning and risk management decisions.References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 course content and official CompTIA study resources.

Air-gapping is the most effective way to protect an application server running unsupported software from network threats. By physically isolating the server from any network connection (no wired or wireless communication), it is protected from external cyber threats. While other options like port security or a screened subnet can provide some level of protection, an air gap offers the highest level of security by preventing any network-based attacks entirely.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Secure System Design​.

Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the supply chain can include the following steps:

Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers

Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers

Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components

Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security

Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle

Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products - Cisco, 2: What Is HardwareSecurity? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It

 A business email compromise (BEC) attack is a type of phishing attack that targets employees who have access to company funds or sensitive information. The attacker impersonates a trusted person, such as an executive, a vendor, or a client, and requests a fraudulent payment, a wire transfer, or confidential data. The attacker often uses social engineering techniques, such as urgency, pressure, or familiarity, to convince the victim to comply with the request12.

In this scenario, option A describes a possible BEC attack, where an employee receives a gift card request in an email that has an executive’s name in the display field of the email. The email may look like it is coming from the executive, but the actual email address may be spoofed or compromised. The attacker may claim that the gift cards are needed for a business purpose, such as rewarding employees or clients, and ask the employee to purchase them and send the codes. This is a common tactic used by BEC attackers to steal money from unsuspecting victims34.

Option B describes a possible ransomware attack, where malicious software encrypts the files on a device and demands a ransom for the decryption key. Option C describes a possible credential harvesting attack, where an attacker tries to obtain the login information of a privileged account by posing as a legitimate authority. Option D describes a possible phishing attack, where an attacker tries to lure the victim to a fake website that mimics the company’s email portal and capture their credentials. These are all types of cyberattacks, but they are not examples of BEC attacks. References = 1: Business Email Compromise - CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 - 2.2 2: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide 3: Business Email Compromise: The 12 Billion Dollar Scam 4: TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy

Data classification is required before implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution because DLP policies depend on identifying and categorizing sensitive data to monitor, block, or encrypt it accordingly.

Data destruction (A) and sanitization (B) remove data, and masking (D) obscures data but classification is foundational for DLP effectiveness.

Data classification is emphasized in Security Program Management and Data Protection topics【6:Chapter 16†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Detailed Explanation:

Sanctions imposed for non-compliance can include fines, legal actions, and loss of business licenses. These pose a significant financial and reputational risk to organizations. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Regulatory Compliance Risks"​​.

To determine whether the connection was successful after a user clicked on a link in a phishing email, the most relevant log source to analyze would be the network logs. These logs would provide information on outbound and inbound traffic, allowing the analyst to see if the user’s system connected to the remote server specified in the phishing link. Network logs can includedetails such as IP addresses, domains accessed, and the success or failure of connections, which are crucial for understanding the impact of the phishing attempt.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations​.

CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Incident Response​.

Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.

The Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is a technology designed to check the revocation status of digital certificates in real-time without requiring the client to download entire revocation lists. Unlike Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs), which are periodically updated and can be large, OCSP queries an OCSP responder to receive the status of a specific certificate.

OCSP is considered passive verification because it allows clients to check a certificate's current validity status on-demand without maintaining local copies of revocation data. The OCSP responder returns whether the certificate is valid, revoked, or expired.

Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is hardware for secure key storage, and Certificate Signing Request (CSR) is a request for certificate issuance; neither is used for verifying certificate expiration status.

The differences and roles of OCSP and CRLs are thoroughly covered in the Cryptography and PKI chapter of the SY0-701, where OCSP is highlighted as the more efficient and real-time method to verify certificate status passively【6:Chapter 7†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the effectiveness of a security incident response plan. It involves gathering the relevant stakeholders and walking through the steps of the plan, identifying any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. A tabletop exercise is a good way to validate the documentation created by the security manager and ensure that the team is prepared for various types of security incidents.

Serverless architecture allows companies to deploy code without managing the underlying infrastructure. This approach significantly reduces the time and expense involved in code deployment because developers can focus solely on writing code, while the cloud provider manages the servers, scaling, and maintenance. Serverless computing also enables automatic scaling and pay-per-execution billing, which further optimizes costs.

References =

CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course covers cloud technologies, including serverless architectures, which are highlighted as a method to streamline and reduce costs associated with code deployment​​​.

Risk appetiterefers to thelevel of risk an organization is willing to acceptbefore implementing security measures. When expanding access controls, the company must assess how much risk is acceptable in terms ofdata exposure, unauthorized access, and compliance obligations.

Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3

To identify the impacted host in a command-and-control (C2) server incident, the following logs should be analyzed:

DHCP logs: These logs record IP address assignments. By reviewing DHCP logs, an organization can determine which host was assigned a specific IP address during the time of the attack.

Firewall logs: Firewall logs will show traffic patterns, including connections to external C2 servers. Analyzing these logs helps to identify the IP address and port numbers of the communicating host.

Application, Authentication, and Database logs are less relevant in this context because they focus on internal processes and authentication events rather than network traffic involved in a C2 attack​​​.

Automated vulnerability scanningis thefirst step in identifying system weaknesses. These scans systematically check for outdated software, misconfigurations, and known vulnerabilities in a network.

Penetration testing (B)is conducted after vulnerabilities are identified.

Threat hunting (C)focuses on detecting unknown threats, not listing vulnerabilities.

Shadow IT refers to software, hardware, cloud services, or applications deployed without approval from the IT or security department. In this scenario, a high school department is using an unvetted simulation program—classic Shadow IT behavior.

Security+ SY0-701 explains that Shadow IT:

Introduces unknown vulnerabilities

Bypasses security controls

Creates compliance risks

Leads to data exposure

Interferes with standard configuration management

Espionage (A) involves intelligence gathering, not unauthorized software use. Data exfiltration (B) involves data theft, not unauthorized software deployment. Zero-day (D) refers to unknown vulnerabilities, not unapproved systems.

Thus, Shadow IT is the correct answer.

Detailed Explanation:The correct sequence is to first establish secure baselines by determining the required configurations, deploy those configurations across systems, and finally maintain the configurations through regular updates and auditing. Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Secure Baseline Development"​​.

Poor input validation in databases typically leads to SQL Injection (SQLi) vulnerabilities, where attackers manipulate input fields to execute arbitrary SQL commands and gain unauthorized data access or control.

XSS (A) affects web applications' output rendering, command injection (B) affects OS commands, and buffer overflow (C) affects memory management, so they don't directly relate to database input validation.

SQLi is a critical vulnerability extensively covered in the Application Security domain【6:Chapter 6†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.

Alerts generated by SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) tools are detective controls, as they identify and notify about suspicious activities but do not prevent or correct the events themselves.

Preventive controls stop incidents before they occur, corrective controls remediate issues, and compensating controls are alternatives used when primary controls aren’t feasible.

Detective controls are foundational in Security Operations for incident detection and response【6:Chapter 14†CompTIA Security+ Study Guide】.