PSE-Strata-Pro-24 Palo Alto Networks Systems Engineer Professional - Hardware Firewall Question and Answers

When evaluating Palo Alto Networks products, prospective customers need tools that can help them assess compatibility, performance, and value within their existing architecture. The following tools are the most relevant:

Why "Proof of Concept (POC)" (Correct Answer A)?A Proof of Concept is a hands-on evaluation that allows the customer to deploy and test Palo Alto Networks products directly within their environment. This enables them to assess real-world performance, compatibility, and operational impact.

Why "Security Lifecycle Review (SLR)" (Correct Answer C)?An SLR provides a detailed report of a customer’s network security posture based on data collected during a short evaluation period. It highlights risks, vulnerabilities, and active threats in the customer’s network, demonstrating how Palo Alto Networks solutions can address those risks. SLR is a powerful tool for justifying the value of a product in the customer’s architecture.

Why "Ultimate Test Drive" (Correct Answer D)?The Ultimate Test Drive is a guided hands-on workshop provided by Palo Alto Networks that allows prospective customers to explore product features and capabilities in a controlled environment. It is ideal for customers who want to evaluate products without deploying them in their production network.

Why not "Policy Optimizer" (Option B)?Policy Optimizer is used after a product has been deployed to refine security policies by identifying unused or overly permissive rules. It is not designed for pre-deployment evaluations.

Why not "Expedition" (Option E)?Expedition is a migration tool that assists with the conversion of configurations from third-party firewalls or existing Palo Alto Networks firewalls. It is not a tool for evaluating the suitability of products in the customer’s architecture.

Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) is Palo Alto Networks’ centralized cloud-based management platform for managing network security solutions, including Prisma Access and Prisma SD-WAN. SCM can also integrate with VM-Series firewalls for managing virtualized NGFW deployments.

Why A (Prisma SD-WAN) Is Correct

SCM is the management interface for Prisma SD-WAN, enabling centralized orchestration, monitoring, and configuration of SD-WAN deployments.

Why D (VM-Series NGFW) Is Correct

SCM supports managing VM-Series NGFWs, providing centralized visibility and control for virtualized firewall deployments in cloud or on-premises environments.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect

B (Prisma Cloud): Prisma Cloud is a separate product for securing workloads in public cloud environments. It is not managed via SCM.

C (Cortex XDR): Cortex XDR is a platform for endpoint detection and response (EDR). It is managed through its own console, not SCM.

The appropriate CDSS subscription to inspect and mitigate suspicious DNS traffic is Advanced DNS Security. Here’s why:

Advanced DNS Security protects against DNS-based threats, including domain generation algorithms (DGA), DNS tunneling (often used for data exfiltration), and malicious domains used in attacks. It leverages machine learning to detect and block DNS traffic associated with command-and-control servers or other malicious activities. In this case, unusually high DNS traffic to an unfamiliar IP address is likely indicative of a DNS-based attack or malware activity, making this the most suitable service.

Option A: Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on identifying and blocking sophisticated threats in network traffic, such as exploits and evasive malware. While it complements DNS Security, it does not specialize in analyzing DNS-specific traffic patterns.

Option B: Advanced WildFire focuses on detecting and preventing file-based threats, such as malware delivered via email attachments or web downloads. It does not provide specific protection for DNS-related anomalies.

Option C: Advanced URL Filtering is designed to prevent access to malicious or inappropriate websites based on their URLs. While DNS may be indirectly involved in resolving malicious websites, this service does not directly inspect DNS traffic patterns for threats.

Option D (Correct): Advanced DNS Security specifically addresses DNS-based threats. By enabling this service, the customer can detect and block DNS queries to malicious domains and investigate anomalous DNS behavior like the high traffic observed in this scenario.

How to Enable Advanced DNS Security:

Ensure the firewall has a valid Advanced DNS Security license.

Navigate to Objects > Security Profiles > Anti-Spyware.

Enable DNS Security under the "DNS Signatures" section.

Apply the Anti-Spyware profile to the relevant Security Policy to enforce DNS Security.

Prisma Access (Answer A):

Strata Cloud Manager (SCM) and Panorama provide centralized visibility and management for Prisma Access, Palo Alto Networks’ cloud-delivered security platform for remote users and branch offices.

NGFW (Answer D):

Both SCM and Panorama are used to manage and monitor Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs) deployed in on-premise, hybrid, or multi-cloud environments.

Prisma SD-WAN (Answer E):

SCM and Panorama integrate with Prisma SD-WAN to manage branch connectivity and security, ensuring seamless operation in an SD-WAN environment.

Why Not B:

Prisma Cloud is a distinct platform designed for cloud-native security and is not directly managed through Strata Cloud Manager or Panorama.

Why Not C:

Cortex XSIAM (Extended Security Intelligence and Automation Management) is part of the Cortex platform and is not managed by SCM or Panorama.

References from Palo Alto Networks Documentation:

Strata Cloud Manager Overview

Panorama Features and Benefits

DNS-based threats, such as DNS tunneling, phishing, or malware command-and-control (C2) activities, are commonly used by attackers to exfiltrate data or establish malicious communications. Palo Alto Networks firewalls provide several mechanisms to address these threats, and the correct method is DNS sinkholing.

Why "DNS sinkholing" (Correct Answer D)?DNS sinkholing redirects DNS queries for malicious domains to an internal or non-routable IP address, effectively preventing communication with malicious domains. When a user or endpoint tries to connect to a malicious domain, the sinkhole DNS entry ensures the traffic is blocked or routed to a controlled destination.

DNS sinkholing is especially effective for blocking malware trying to contact its C2 server or preventing data exfiltration.

Why not "DNS proxy" (Option A)?A DNS proxy is used to forward DNS queries from endpoints to an upstream DNS server. While it can be part of a network's DNS setup, it does not actively stop DNS-based threats.

Why not "Buffer overflow protection" (Option B)?Buffer overflow protection is a method used to prevent memory-related attacks, such as exploiting software vulnerabilities. It is unrelated to DNS-based threat prevention.

Why not "DNS tunneling" (Option C)?DNS tunneling is itself a type of DNS-based threat where attackers encode malicious traffic within DNS queries and responses. This option refers to the threat itself, not the method to stop it.

The SE has demonstrated an NGFW managed by SCM, and the CISO now wants the POV to show progress toward industry standards (e.g., CSC) and verify effective use of purchased features (e.g., CDSS subscriptions like Advanced Threat Prevention). The SE must ensure the POV delivers measurable evidence during the testing timeline. Let’s evaluate the options.

Step 1: Understand the CISO’s Request

Industry Standards (e.g., CSC): The Center for Internet Security’s Critical Security Controls (e.g., CSC 1: Inventory of Devices, CSC 4: Secure Configuration) require visibility, threat prevention, and policy enforcement, which NGFW and SCM can address.

Feature Utilization: Confirm that licensed functionalities (e.g., App-ID, Threat Prevention, URL Filtering) are active and effective.

POV Goal: Provide verifiable progress and utilization metrics within the testing timeline.

When preparing for a customer meeting, it’s important to understand their specific challenges and align solutions accordingly. The notes suggest that the customer is facing difficulties securing their cloud apps and remote users, which are core areas addressed by Palo Alto Networks’ Zero Trust and SASE solutions. However, jumping directly into a pitch or product demonstration without validating the customer's specific challenges may fail to build trust or fully address their needs.

Option A: Leading with a pre-structured pitch about Zero Trust principles may not resonate with the customer if their challenges are not fully understood first. The team needs to gather insights into the customer's security pain points before presenting a solution.

Option B (Correct): Discovery questions are a critical step in the sales process, especially when addressing complex topics like Zero Trust. By designing targeted questions about the customer’s challenges with identity, devices, data, and access, the SE can identify specific pain points. These insights can then be used to tailor a Zero Trust strategy that directly addresses the customer’s concerns. This approach ensures the meeting is customer-focused and demonstrates that the SE understands their unique needs.

Option C: While a product demonstration of GlobalProtect, Prisma Access, and SaaS security is valuable, it should come after discovery. Presenting products prematurely may seem like a generic sales pitch and could fail to address the customer’s actual challenges.

Option D: Prisma SASE is an excellent solution for addressing cloud security and remote user challenges, but recommending it without first understanding the customer’s specific needs may undermine trust. This step should follow after discovery and validation of the customer’s pain points.

Examples of Discovery Questions:

What are your primary security challenges with remote users and cloud applications?

Are you currently able to enforce consistent security policies across your hybrid environment?

How do you handle identity verification and access control for remote users?

What level of visibility do you have into traffic to and from your cloud applications?

Zero-day malware attacks are sophisticated threats that exploit previously unknown vulnerabilities or malware signatures. To provide protection against such attacks, the appropriate Cloud-Delivered Security Service subscription must be included.

Why "Advanced WildFire" (Correct Answer C)?Advanced WildFire is Palo Alto Networks’ sandboxing solution that identifies and prevents zero-day malware. It uses machine learning, dynamic analysis, and static analysis to detect unknown malware in real time.

Files and executables are analyzed in the cloud-based sandbox, and protections are shared globally within minutes.

Advanced WildFire specifically addresses zero-day threats by dynamically analyzing suspicious files and generating new signatures.

Why not "AI Access Security" (Option A)?AI Access Security is designed to secure SaaS applications by monitoring and enforcing data protection and compliance. While useful for SaaS security, it does not focus on detecting or preventing zero-day malware.

Why not "Advanced Threat Prevention" (Option B)?Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP) focuses on detecting zero-day exploits (e.g., SQL injection, buffer overflows) using inline deep learning but is not specifically designed to analyze and prevent zero-day malware. ATP complements Advanced WildFire, but WildFire is the primary solution for malware detection.

Why not "App-ID" (Option D)?App-ID identifies and controls applications on the network. While it improves visibility and security posture, it does not address zero-day malware detection or prevention.

The most effective way to reduce the risk of exploitation by newly announced vulnerabilities is through Advanced Threat Prevention (ATP). ATP uses inline deep learning to identify and block exploitation attempts, even for zero-day vulnerabilities, in real time.

Why "Advanced Threat Prevention’s command injection and SQL injection functions use inline deep learning against zero-day threats" (Correct Answer B)?Advanced Threat Prevention leverages deep learning models directly in the data path, which allows it to analyze traffic in real time and detect patterns of exploitation, including newly discovered vulnerabilities being actively exploited in the wild. It specifically targets advanced tactics like:

Command injection.

SQL injection.

Memory-based exploits.

Protocol evasion techniques.

This functionality lowers the risk of exploitation by actively blocking attack attempts based on their behavior, even when a signature is not yet available. This approach makes ATP the most valuable solution for addressing new and actively exploited vulnerabilities.

Why not "Advanced URL Filtering uses machine learning (ML) to learn which malicious URLs are being utilized by the attackers, then block the resulting traffic" (Option A)?While Advanced URL Filtering is highly effective at blocking access to malicious websites, it does not provide the inline analysis necessary to prevent direct exploitation of vulnerabilities. Exploitation often happens within the application or protocol layer, which Advanced URL Filtering does not inspect.

Why not "Single Pass Architecture and parallel processing ensure traffic is efficiently scanned against any enabled Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscription" (Option C)?Single Pass Architecture improves performance by ensuring all enabled services (like Threat Prevention, URL Filtering, etc.) process traffic efficiently. However, it is not a feature that directly addresses vulnerability exploitation or zero-day attack detection.

Why not "WildFire loads custom OS images to ensure that the sandboxing catches any activity that would affect the customer's environment" (Option D)?WildFire is a sandboxing solution designed to detect malicious files and executables. While it is useful for analyzing malware, it does not provide inline protection against exploitation of newly announced vulnerabilities, especially those targeting network protocols or applications.

DNS Security (Answer C):

DNS Security is the appropriate subscription for addressing threats over port 53.

DNS tunneling is a common method used for data exfiltration, infiltration, and C2 activities, as it allows malicious traffic to be hidden within legitimate DNS queries.

The DNS Security service applies machine learning models to analyze DNS queries in real-time, block malicious domains, and prevent tunneling activities.

It integrates seamlessly with the NGFW, ensuring advanced protection against DNS-based threats without requiring additional infrastructure.

Why Not Threat Prevention (Answer A):

Threat Prevention is critical for blocking malware, exploits, and vulnerabilities, but it does not specifically address DNS-based tunneling or C2 activities over port 53.

Why Not App-ID and Data Loss Prevention (Answer B):

While App-ID can identify applications, and Data Loss Prevention (DLP) helps prevent sensitive data leakage, neither focuses on blocking DNS tunneling or malicious activity over port 53.

Why Not Advanced Threat Prevention and Advanced URL Filtering (Answer D):

Advanced Threat Prevention and URL Filtering are excellent for broader web and network threats, but DNS tunneling specifically requires the DNS Security subscription, which specializes in DNS-layer threats.

References from Palo Alto Networks Documentation:

DNS Security Subscription Overview

To help a customer understand how Palo Alto Networks can bring value when adopting a Zero Trust architecture, the systems engineer must focus on understanding the customer's specific needs and explaining how the Zero Trust strategy aligns with their business goals. Here’s the detailed analysis of each option:

Option A: Ask the customer about their internal business flows, such as how their users interact with applications and data across the infrastructure

Understanding the customer's internal workflows and how their users interact with applications and data is a critical first step in Zero Trust. This information allows the systems engineer to identify potential security gaps and suggest tailored solutions.

This is correct.

Option B: Explain how Palo Alto Networks can place virtual NGFWs across the customer's network to ensure assets and traffic are seen and controlled

While placing NGFWs across the customer's network may be part of the implementation, this approach focuses on the product rather than the customer's strategy. Zero Trust is more about policies and architecture than specific product placement.

This is incorrect.

Option C: Use the Zero Trust Roadshow package to demonstrate to the customer how robust Palo Alto Networks capabilities are in meeting Zero Trust

While demonstrating capabilities is valuable during the later stages of engagement, the initial focus should be on understanding the customer's business requirements rather than showcasing products.

This is incorrect.

Option D: Ask the customer about their approach to Zero Trust, explaining that it is a strategy more than it is something they purchase

Zero Trust is not a product but a strategy that requires a shift in mindset. By discussing their approach, the systems engineer can identify whether the customer understands Zero Trust principles and guide them accordingly.

This is correct.

Palo Alto Networks AIOps for NGFW is a cloud-delivered service that leverages telemetry data and machine learning (ML) to provide proactive operational insights, best practice recommendations, and issue prevention.

Why "It is offered in two license tiers: a free version and a premium version" (Correct Answer B)?AIOps for NGFW is available in two tiers:

Free Tier: Provides basic operational insights and best practices at no additional cost.

Premium Tier: Offers advanced capabilities, such as AI-driven forecasts, proactive issue prevention, and enhanced ML-based recommendations.

Why "It uses telemetry data to forecast, preempt, or identify issues, and it uses machine learning (ML) to adjust and enhance the process" (Correct Answer C)?AIOps uses telemetry data from NGFWs to analyze operational trends, forecast potential problems, and recommend solutions before issues arise. ML continuously refines these insights by learning from real-world data, enhancing accuracy and effectiveness over time.

Why not "It is offered in two license tiers: a commercial edition and an enterprise edition" (Option A)?This is incorrect because the licensing model for AIOps is based on "free" and "premium" tiers, not "commercial" and "enterprise" editions.

Why not "It forwards log data to Advanced WildFire to anticipate, prevent, or identify issues, and it uses machine learning (ML) to refine and adapt to the process" (Option D)?AIOps does not rely on Advanced WildFire for its operation. Instead, it uses telemetry data directly from the NGFWs to perform operational and security analysis.

The CN-Series firewalls are Palo Alto Networks’ containerized Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs) designed to secure Kubernetes clusters. Unlike the Strata Hardware Firewalls (e.g., PA-Series), which are physical appliances, the CN-Series is a software-based solution deployed within containerized environments. The question focuses on the specific files used to deploy CN-Series firewalls in Kubernetes clusters. Based on Palo Alto Networks’ official documentation, the two correct files are PAN-CN-MGMT-CONFIGMAP and PAN-CN-MGMT. Below is a detailed explanation of why these files are essential, with references to CN-Series deployment processes (noting that Strata hardware documentation is not directly applicable here but is contextualized for clarity).

Step 1: Understanding CN-Series Deployment in Kubernetes

The CN-Series firewall consists of two primary components: the CN-MGMT (management plane) and the CN-NGFW (data plane). These components are deployed as containers in a Kubernetes cluster, orchestrated using YAML configuration files. The deployment process involves defining resources such as ConfigMaps, Pods, and Services to instantiate and manage the CN-Series components. The files listed in the question are Kubernetes manifests or configuration files used during this process.

CN-MGMT Role: The CN-MGMT container handles the management plane, providing configuration, logging, and policy enforcement for the CN-Series firewall. It requires a dedicated YAML file to define its deployment.

CN-NGFW Role: The CN-NGFW container handles the data plane, inspecting traffic within the Kubernetes cluster. It relies on configurations provided by CN-MGMT and additional networking setup (e.g., via CNI plugins).

ConfigMaps: Kubernetes ConfigMaps store configuration data separately from container images, making them critical for passing settings to CN-Series components.

Policy Optimizer is a feature designed to help administrators improve the efficiency and effectiveness of security policies on Palo Alto Networks Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs). It focuses on identifying unused or overly permissive policies to streamline and optimize the configuration.

Why "Identify Security policy rules with unused applications" (Correct Answer C)?Policy Optimizer provides visibility into existing security policies and identifies rules that have unused or outdated applications. For example:

It can detect if a rule allows applications that are no longer in use.

It can identify rules with excessive permissions, enabling administrators to refine them for better security and performance.By addressing these issues, Policy Optimizer helps reduce the attack surface and improves the overall manageability of the firewall.

Why not "Recommend best practices on new policy creation" (Option A)?Policy Optimizer focuses on optimizing existing policies, not creating new ones. While best practices can be applied during policy refinement, recommending new policy creation is not its purpose.

Why not "Show unused licenses for Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) subscriptions and firewalls" (Option B)?Policy Optimizer is not related to license management or tracking. Identifying unused licenses is outside the scope of its functionality.

Why not "Act as a migration tool to import policies from third-party vendors" (Option D)?Policy Optimizer does not function as a migration tool. While Palo Alto Networks offers tools for third-party firewall migration, this is separate from the Policy Optimizer feature.

In this scenario, the company does not use on-premises Active Directory and manages devices with Entra ID and Jamf, which implies a cloud-native and modern management setup. Below is the evaluation of each option:

Option A: Captive portal

Captive portal is typically used in environments where identity mapping is needed for unmanaged devices or guest users. It provides a mechanism for users to authenticate themselves through a web interface.

However, in this case, the company is managing devices using Entra ID and Jamf, which means identity information can already be centralized through other means. Captive portal is not an ideal solution here.

This option is not appropriate.

Option B: User-ID agents configured for WMI client probing

WMI (Windows Management Instrumentation) client probing is a mechanism used to map IP addresses to usernames in a Windows environment. This approach is specific to on-premises Active Directory deployments and requires direct communication with Windows endpoints.

Since the company does not have an on-premises AD and is using Entra ID and Jamf, this method is not applicable.

This option is not appropriate.

Option C: GlobalProtect with an internal gateway deployment

GlobalProtect is Palo Alto Networks' VPN solution, which allows for secure remote access. It also supports identity-based mapping when deployed with internal gateways.

In this case, GlobalProtect with an internal gateway can serve as a mechanism to provide user and device visibility based on the managed devices connecting through the gateway.

This option is appropriate.

Option D: Cloud Identity Engine synchronized with Entra ID

The Cloud Identity Engine provides a cloud-based approach to synchronize identity information from identity providers like Entra ID (formerly Azure AD).

In a cloud-native environment with Entra ID and Jamf, the Cloud Identity Engine is a natural fit as it integrates seamlessly to provide identity visibility for applications and data.

This option is appropriate.