What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)
What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?
Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?
Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)
Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization†phase of incrementally transforming data centers?
What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?
Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?
Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?
Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)
Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?
Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?
Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?
What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?
A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?
Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)
Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?
What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?
The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?
Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?
Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?
Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?
The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.
What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?
What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?
In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?
Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?
Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?
Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?
What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)
What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?
How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?
Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.
What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)
Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.
Which technology meets this requirement?
What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)
In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?
What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)
Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?
Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.