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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Question and Answers

Question # 4

What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

A.

It encrypts user data.

B.

It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.

C.

It takes control of the operating system.

D.

It steals personal information.

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Question # 5

What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?

A.

run a static analysis

B.

check its execution policy

C.

send the executable to WildFire

D.

run a dynamic analysis

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Question # 6

An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?

Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses

Subnet 2: 25 host addresses

Subnet 3: 120 host addresses

A.

192.168.6.168/30

B.

192.168.6.0/25

C.

192.168.6.160/29

D.

192.168.6.128/27

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Question # 7

Which term describes establishment of on-premises software on a cloud-based server?

A.

Serverless

B.

Dockers

C.

Cloud-hosted

D.

Kubernetes

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Question # 8

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

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Question # 9

Layer 4 of the TCP/IP Model corresponds to which three Layer(s) of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

A.

Network

B.

Application

C.

Session

D.

Transport

E.

Presentation

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Question # 10

Which statement describes DevOps?

A.

DevOps is its own separate team

B.

DevOps is a set of tools that assists the Development and Operations teams throughout the softwaredelivery process

C.

DevOps is a combination of the Development and Operations teams

D.

DevOps is a culture that unites the Development and Operations teams throughout the software delivery process

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Question # 11

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

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Question # 12

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Question # 13

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 14

Which method is used to exploit vulnerabilities, services, and applications?

A.

encryption

B.

port scanning

C.

DNS tunneling

D.

port evasion

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Question # 15

Which feature of the VM-Series firewalls allows them to fully integrate into the DevOps workflows and CI/CD pipelines without slowing the pace of business?

A.

Elastic scalability

B.

5G

C.

External dynamic lists

D.

Log export

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Question # 16

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

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Question # 17

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

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Question # 18

Which technology secures software-as-a-service (SaaS) applications and network data, and also enforces compliance policies for application access?

A.

DLP

B.

CASB

C.

DNS Security

D.

URL filtering

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Question # 19

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

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Question # 20

Which service is encompassed by serverless architecture?

A.

Infrastructure as a Service (laaS)

B.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

C.

Security as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Authentication as a Service

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Question # 21

A native hypervisor runs:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

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Question # 22

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

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Question # 23

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Question # 24

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

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Question # 25

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Question # 26

Which network firewall operates up to Layer 4 (Transport layer) of the OSI model and maintains information about the communication sessions which have been established between hosts on trusted and untrusted networks?

A.

Group policy

B.

Stateless

C.

Stateful

D.

Static packet-filter

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Question # 27

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Question # 28

Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.

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Question # 29

Which scenario highlights how a malicious Portable Executable (PE) file is leveraged as an attack?

A.

Setting up a web page for harvesting user credentials

B.

Laterally transferring the file through a network after being granted access

C.

Embedding the file inside a pdf to be downloaded and installed

D.

Corruption of security device memory spaces while file is in transit

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Question # 30

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Question # 31

What is the primary security focus after consolidating data center hypervisor hosts within trust levels?

A.

control and protect inter-host traffic using routers configured to use the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) dynamic routing protocol

B.

control and protect inter-host traffic by exporting all your traffic logs to a sysvol log server using the User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

C.

control and protect inter-host traffic by using IPv4 addressing

D.

control and protect inter-host traffic using physical network security appliances

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Question # 32

The customer is responsible only for which type of security when using a SaaS application?

A.

physical

B.

platform

C.

data

D.

infrastructure

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Question # 33

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

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Question # 34

Which type of Wi-Fi attack depends on the victim initiating the connection?

A.

Evil twin

B.

Jasager

C.

Parager

D.

Mirai

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Question # 35

In the network diagram below, which device is the router?

A.

A

B.

C

C.

D

D.

B

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Question # 36

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

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Question # 37

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

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Question # 38

What protocol requires all routers in the same domain to maintain a map of the network?

A.

EIGRP

B.

Static

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

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Question # 39

When does a TLS handshake occur?

A.

Before establishing a TCP connection

B.

Only during DNS over HTTPS queries

C.

After a TCP handshake has been established

D.

Independently of HTTPS communications

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Question # 40

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Question # 41

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

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Question # 42

Which two statements apply to SaaS financial botnets? (Choose two.)

A.

They are larger than spamming or DDoS botnets.

B.

They are sold as kits that allow attackers to license the code.

C.

They are a defense against spam attacks.

D.

They are used by attackers to build their own botnets.

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Question # 43

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

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Question # 44

Which not-for-profit organization maintains the common vulnerability exposure catalog that is available through their public website?

A.

Department of Homeland Security

B.

MITRE

C.

Office of Cyber Security and Information Assurance

D.

Cybersecurity Vulnerability Research Center

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Question # 45

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

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Question # 46

What would allow a security team to inspect TLS encapsulated traffic?

A.

DHCP markings

B.

Decryption

C.

Port translation

D.

Traffic shaping

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Question # 47

What are two functions of an active monitoring system? (Choose two.)

A.

Preventing specific changes from being affected in the system

B.

Determining system health using unaltered system data

C.

Detecting micro-services in a default configuration

D.

Using probes to establish potential load issues

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Question # 48

What are two advantages of security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR)? (Choose two.)

A.

Completely isolated system

B.

Scripting of manual tasks

C.

Consistent incident handling

D.

Long-term retention of logs

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Question # 49

What is a reason IoT devices are more susceptible to command-and-control (C2) attacks?

A.

Decreased connection quality within a local area network

B.

Increased sharing of data through the internet

C.

Higher attack surface due to mobility

D.

Limited batten/ life preventing always-on security

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Question # 50

How does Cortex XSOAR Threat Intelligence Management (TIM) provide relevant threat data to analysts?

A.

It creates an encrypted connection to the company's data center.

B.

It performs SSL decryption to give visibility into user traffic.

C.

II prevents sensitive data from leaving the network.

D.

II automates the ingestion and aggregation of indicators.

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Question # 51

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Question # 52

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

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Question # 53

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

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Question # 54

What are two functions of User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA) data in Prisma Cloud CSPM? (Choose two.)

A.

Assessing severity levels

B.

Identifying misconfigurations

C.

Unifying cloud provider services

D.

Detecting and correlating anomalies

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Question # 55

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

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Question # 56

What differentiates SOAR from SIEM?

A.

SOAR platforms focus on analyzing network traffic.

B.

SOAR platforms integrate automated response into the investigation process.

C.

SOAR platforms collect data and send alerts.

D.

SOAR platforms filter alerts with their broader coverage of security incidents.

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Question # 57

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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Question # 58

Which security function enables a firewall to validate the operating system version of a device before granting it network access?

A.

Sandboxing

B.

Stateless packet inspection

C.

Host intrusion prevention system (HIPS)

D.

Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR)

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Question # 59

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

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Question # 60

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

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Question # 61

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

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Question # 62

A firewall administrator needs to efficiently deploy corporate account configurations and VPN settings to targeted mobile devices within the network.

Which technology meets this requirement?

A.

SIEM

B.

MDM

C.

EDR

D.

ADEM

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Question # 63

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

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Question # 64

What is the key to “taking down” a botnet?

A.

prevent bots from communicating with the C2

B.

install openvas software on endpoints

C.

use LDAP as a directory service

D.

block Docker engine software on endpoints

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Question # 65

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Question # 66

What are two examples of an attacker using social engineering? (Choose two.)

A.

Convincing an employee that they are also an employee

B.

Leveraging open-source intelligence to gather information about a high-level executive

C.

Acting as a company representative and asking for personal information not relevant to the reason for their call

D.

Compromising a website and configuring it to automatically install malicious files onto systems that visit the page

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Question # 67

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

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Question # 68

Match the Identity and Access Management (IAM) security control with the appropriate definition.

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