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Home > Paloalto Networks > Certified Cybersecurity Associate > Practitioner

Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Question and Answers

Question # 4

A native hypervisor runs:

A.

with extreme demands on network throughput

B.

only on certain platforms

C.

within an operating system’s environment

D.

directly on the host computer’s hardware

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Question # 5

Which subnet does the host 192.168.19.36/27 belong?

A.

192.168.19.0

B.

192.168.19.16

C.

192.168.19.64

D.

192.168.19.32

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Question # 6

Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?

A.

AutoFocus

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

DNS Security

D.

MineMeld

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Question # 7

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

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Question # 8

Which NGFW feature is used to provide continuous identification, categorization, and control of known and previously unknown SaaS applications?

A.

User-ID

B.

Device-ID

C.

App-ID

D.

Content-ID

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Question # 9

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

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Question # 10

Which attacker profile uses the internet to recruit members to an ideology, to train them, and to spread fear and include panic?

A.

cybercriminals

B.

state-affiliated groups

C.

hacktivists

D.

cyberterrorists

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Question # 11

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

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Question # 12

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

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Question # 13

Which methodology does Identity Threat Detection and Response (ITDR) use?

A.

Behavior analysis

B.

Comparison of alerts to signatures

C.

Manual inspection of user activities

D.

Rule-based activity prioritization

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Question # 14

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 15

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Question # 16

When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection? (Choose three.)

A.

decrypt the infected file using base64

B.

alert system administrators

C.

quarantine the infected file

D.

delete the infected file

E.

remove the infected file’s extension

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Question # 17

Which component of cloud security uses automated testing with static application security testing (SAST) to identify potential threats?

A.

API

B.

Code security

C.

Virtualization

D.

IRP

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Question # 18

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

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Question # 19

Identify a weakness of a perimeter-based network security strategy to protect an organization's endpoint systems.

A.

It cannot identify command-and-control traffic

B.

It assumes that all internal devices are untrusted

C.

It assumes that every internal endpoint can be trusted

D.

It cannot monitor all potential network ports

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Question # 20

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

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Question # 21

How does Prisma SaaS provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications?

A.

Prisma SaaS connects to an organizations internal print and file sharing services to provide protection and sharing visibility

B.

Prisma SaaS does not provide protection for Sanctioned SaaS applications because they are secure

C.

Prisma access uses Uniform Resource Locator (URL) Web categorization to provide protection and sharing visibility

D.

Prisma SaaS connects directly to sanctioned external service providers SaaS application service to provide protection and sharing visibility

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Question # 22

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

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Question # 23

Which next-generation firewall (NGFW) deployment option provides full application visibility into Kubernetes environments?

A.

Virtual

B.

Container

C.

Physical

D.

SASE

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Question # 24

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

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Question # 25

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

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Question # 26

Web 2.0 applications provide which type of service?

A.

SaaS

B.

FWaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

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Question # 27

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

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Question # 28

Which of the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) will detect zero-day malware by using inline cloud machine learning (ML) and sandboxing?

A.

DNS security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

loT security

D.

Advanced Threat Prevention

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Question # 29

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

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Question # 30

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Question # 31

Which feature is part of an intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

A.

API-based coverage of apps

B.

Automated security actions

C.

Protection of data at rest

D.

Real-time web filtering

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Question # 32

Why have software developers widely embraced the use of containers?

A.

Containers require separate development and production environments to promote authentic code.

B.

Containers share application dependencies with other containers and with their host computer.

C.

Containers simplify the building and deploying of cloud native applications.

D.

Containers are host specific and are not portable across different virtual machine hosts.

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Question # 33

Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

A.

Application allow list

B.

DNS Security

C.

URL filtering

D.

Dynamic access control

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Question # 34

Which type of Software as a Service (SaaS) application provides business benefits, is fast to deploy, requires minimal cost and is infinitely scalable?

A.

Benign

B.

Tolerated

C.

Sanctioned

D.

Secure

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Question # 35

Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

A.

Prisma SAAS

B.

WildFire

C.

Cortex XDR

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Question # 36

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Question # 37

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

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Question # 38

During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?

A.

Frame

B.

Segment

C.

Packet

D.

Data

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Question # 39

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

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Question # 40

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Question # 41

Which two pieces of information are considered personally identifiable information (PII)? (Choose two.)

A.

Birthplace

B.

Login 10

C.

Profession

D.

Name

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Question # 42

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

A.

Hardware procurement

B.

Log normalization

C.

Initial security team training

D.

Incident response

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Question # 43

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Question # 44

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

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Question # 45

What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?

A.

Multi-tenancy

B.

Dedicated Networks

C.

Dedicated Hosts

D.

Multiplexing

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Question # 46

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

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Question # 47

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Question # 48

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

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Question # 49

A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Question # 50

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 51

Which type of malware takes advantage of a vulnerability on an endpoint or server?

A.

technique

B.

patch

C.

vulnerability

D.

exploit

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Question # 52

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Question # 53

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Question # 54

Which product from Palo Alto Networks enables organizations to prevent successful cyberattacks as well as simplify and strengthen security processes?

A.

Expedition

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMeld

D.

Cortex XDR

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Question # 55

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Question # 56

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Question # 57

At which layer of the OSI model are routing protocols defined?

A.

Network

B.

Physical

C.

Transport

D.

Data Link

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Question # 58

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

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Question # 59

Which endpoint product from Palo Alto Networks can help with SOC visibility?

A.

STIX

B.

Cortex XDR

C.

WildFire

D.

AutoFocus

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Question # 60

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

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Question # 61

In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?

A.

the network is large

B.

the network is small

C.

the network has low bandwidth requirements

D.

the network needs backup routes

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Question # 62

Which two processes are critical to a security information and event management (SIEM) platform? (Choose two.)

A.

Detection of threats using data analysis

B.

Automation of security deployments

C.

Ingestion of log data

D.

Prevention of cvbersecurity attacks

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Question # 63

On an endpoint, which method is used to protect proprietary data stored on a laptop that has been stolen?

A.

operating system patches

B.

full-disk encryption

C.

periodic data backups

D.

endpoint-based firewall

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Question # 64

What differentiates Docker from a bare metal hypervisor?

A.

Docker lets the user boot up one or more instances of an operating system on the same host whereas hypervisors do not

B.

Docker uses more resources than a bare metal hypervisor

C.

Docker is more efficient at allocating resources for legacy systems

D.

Docker uses OS-level virtualization, whereas a bare metal hypervisor runs independently from the OS

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Question # 65

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

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Question # 66

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

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Question # 67

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security addresses ensuring that your cloud resources and SaaS applications are correctly configured?

A.

visibility, governance, and compliance

B.

network protection

C.

dynamic computing

D.

compute security

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Question # 68

Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?

A.

Network

B.

Management

C.

Cloud

D.

Security

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