PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Question and Answers

The correct answer is B – Facilitate an open and focused team discussion that reinforces team agreements. Agile teams are built on collaboration, mutual respect, and self-organization. When conflict arises about role expectations or task assignments, the Scrum Master should create a safe space for open discussion to reinforce working agreements and promote shared accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders support team collaboration by encouraging open conversations. When team dynamics are strained, the Scrum Master facilitates discussions to reinforce team norms, self-organization, and equality of contribution.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths further states:

“Agile teams succeed when responsibilities are shared and roles are not rigidly defined. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion that encourages shared ownership and mutual respect for all tasks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A imposes action without addressing the root issue or respecting roles.

C brings external authority into a team matter, weakening self-organization.

D is partially correct but doesn’t resolve the immediate team conflict.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Ask the team to discontinue developing the component. Agile empowers the product owner to make real-time scope decisions based on changing customer needs. If a feature no longer delivers value, continuing it violates agile's principle of maximizing value and minimizing waste—even if partially complete.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile welcomes changing requirements—even late in development. The product owner’s role is to ensure that the team focuses on work that delivers the most business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value Prioritization and Scope Management)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“If a component is deemed unnecessary, even mid-development, the product owner has the authority to reprioritize the backlog and halt the work. Agile values responding to change over following a fixed plan.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A suggests unnecessary bureaucracy; agile favors decentralized, empowered decision-making.

B ignores the updated feedback and would create waste.

D is redundant since the sponsor already communicated disinterest; the product owner can act.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – Lack of shared knowledge of user stories.

Distributed teams face challenges in collaboration, knowledge sharing, and communication. Without regular interaction, team members may not fully understand user stories, acceptance criteria, or customer needs. This leads to misalignment and potentially lower-quality outputs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams face barriers to communication and knowledge sharing. Agile teams must use collaboration tools and practices to ensure that all members share an understanding of the user stories and priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Remote Agile teams must work harder to ensure clarity in user stories and maintain shared understanding. Without this, misunderstandings increase.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (frequent integration) is a benefit, not a risk.

C is irrelevant to Agile effectiveness.

D is less common with Agile roles clearly defined (PO, SM, Dev Team).

Answer: B

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The correct answer is B — Organize training and development workshops to help all stakeholders form a shared understanding of agile practices.

Agile transformation requires not only role assignment but a cultural shift and shared mindset. Providing training and development for all stakeholders—including team members, managers, and leadership—builds a common understanding of agile principles, frameworks, and expectations.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile adoption requires training, mentoring, and coaching. It is critical that all team members and stakeholders share an understanding of agile principles and practices to foster alignment and collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Organizational Change and Culture)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective adoption of agile requires both technical and cultural onboarding. Training everyone—not just technical team members—is essential for creating a cohesive, aligned agile environment.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A focuses only on assigning roles, which is insufficient without foundational understanding.

C is a good long-term step but doesn’t directly support the immediate team-level transition.

D limits agile adoption and fails to support holistic team capability-building.

Answer: B

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TheMoSCoW method(Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have) is aprioritization techniquecommonly used in agile to determine which stories deliver the most value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Prioritization Techniques)lists MoSCoW as one of the methods used by product owners and teams toprioritize backlog items.

Option Ais correct: MoSCoW is a proven agile prioritization method.

Option Bis used forestimation, not prioritization.

Option Cis not a standard agile prioritization method.

The correct answer is B — Communicate this to the product owner, and offer to help facilitate discussions with the team.

Agile promotes collaboration, transparency, and continuous improvement. The agile practitioner (e.g., Scrum Master) should first address challenges at the team level. Facilitating better communication and helping the product owner articulate requirements clearly is part of fostering a high-performing team environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile practitioners serve the team by removing impediments and improving communication. When conflicts or misunderstandings occur, the practitioner should engage with team members to resolve issues collaboratively before escalating externally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 — Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Scrum Masters or Agile Coaches are servant-leaders. Their role includes helping product owners improve interactions and serve the development team more effectively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 — Team Performance)

Other options:

A and D involve escalation without first attempting resolution.

C avoids direct action and leaves responsibility to someone else.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Priority list of desired features and functions.

Agile emphasizes customer collaboration and delivering the highest-value features early. The product owner works closely with the customer to prioritize the backlog so that the most valuable items are delivered first. A prioritized list ensures clarity and alignment with stakeholder expectations.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Work is prioritized to deliver the greatest value as early as possible. The product owner and stakeholders continuously collaborate to ensure that the backlog reflects current priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization and Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile teams deliver customer value incrementally by implementing high-priority items first. Prioritization is based on value, risk, and feedback.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is a traditional project artifact and not used in Agile backlog planning.

B emphasizes cost over value and may create waste.

D is predictive rather than adaptive; Agile favors short-term planning based on priority.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C — Call an onsite meeting where ground rules will be discussed and agreed upon.

When multiple distributed teams begin working together, the first priority is to establish common ground rules, expectations, and working agreements. This sets the foundation for effective communication and collaboration. An initial face-to-face (or virtual face-to-face) meeting is often critical for forming trust and shared norms.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should establish working agreements early in the project. These define expectations for communication, decision-making, and collaboration—especially critical for distributed or cross-functional teams.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Collaboration and Communication)

Mike Griffiths:

“Setting ground rules helps build team cohesion, especially in distributed teams. It ensures that all members agree on protocols for meetings, updates, and decision-making.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A is important but typically follows after agreements are in place.

B is routine communication—not the first foundational step.

D supports cohesion but does not establish operational alignment.

Answer: C

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Kaizen is a Japanese term that means "continuous improvement," which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

Agile teams areself-organizingand should strive forconsensus-based decision making. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.1 Team Empowerment)supports facilitative leadership where leadersguide decision-making, not override it. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that leaders shouldfoster collaboration and respectdiverse views to prevent disengagement.

Option Ais correct: encouraging consensus builds ownership, trust, and engagement.

Option BandCstill place control with the leader, reducing team empowerment.

Option Dis too passive; agile leaders participate actively as facilitators.

The correct answer is B — Two-way communication.

Agile thrives on collaboration and transparency. In sprint planning, the product owner presents the business needs (via user stories), and the team responds with estimates and commitments. This mutual communication fosters alignment, shared understanding, and trust, which is characteristic of two-way communication.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects rely on high levels of communication and collaboration, especially between the product owner and development team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths:

“Two-way communication allows feedback and clarification. Sprint planning is a prime example where the PO and team interact to shape and commit to sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to managing emotions, not communication style.

C is unrelated to agile practice.

D (reciprocal communication) is a less common term and not directly aligned with the scenario.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C — The stakeholders will learn whether or not the implementation has worked by getting immediate feedback so they can correct their assumptions for the next sprint.

Agile welcomes stakeholder involvement throughout the project lifecycle. Demos (also called sprint reviews) are critical opportunities for stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback, which helps teams pivot or adapt early and often. Immediate feedback reduces the risk of building features that do not meet business needs.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Iteration reviews/demos provide stakeholders with the opportunity to see working product increments and offer feedback while there is still time to make changes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths supports this by stating:

“Engaging stakeholders during sprint reviews allows assumptions to be challenged early. This feedback loop ensures value alignment and reduces the likelihood of rework.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A incorrectly distances stakeholders from essential agile feedback cycles.

B shifts focus away from value to effort-based metrics.

D is more about long-term ROI, not immediate iterative feedback.

Answer: C

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When there is uncertainty about how certain product features should work, creating a prototype is an effective way to reduce that uncertainty. Prototyping allows the product owner to test ideas, gather feedback from users early in the process, and make adjustments based on real-world input. This approach helps clarify the product's functionality and ensure that the team is building something that meets user needs, all while maintaining flexibility and adaptability in the Agile environment.

The correct answer is C — Use retrospective techniques such as silent writing, clustering, and dot voting to field feedback prior to discussion by the team.

Agile retrospectives should foster psychological safety and equal participation. Techniques such as silent brainstorming or writing on sticky notes (physical or digital), followed by clustering similar themes and dot voting, help balance group dynamics and encourage input from all team members—including those who are less vocal.

PMI Agile Practice Guide explains:

“Effective retrospectives use facilitation techniques such as silent brainstorming, dot voting, and clustering to gather inputs from all participants. These techniques level the playing field, reduce groupthink, and support diverse communication styles.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“Using structured techniques allows quieter team members to contribute equally, and minimizes the dominance of more outspoken participants. The Scrum Master plays a key role in facilitating inclusive discussions.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A and D are passive methods that reduce the collaborative and iterative nature of retrospectives.

B may help, but does not address dominant voices or structure participation equitably.

Answer: C

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A psychologically safe environment is essential for aproductive retrospective, especially in the presence of team conflict. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)recommends reviewingworking agreements or ground rulesto remind the team of respectful behavior and to promote openness. This helps reset expectations and encourages participation without fear of judgment.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)emphasizes that retrospectives are abouttrust and transparency, and setting the tone properly enables team learning and resolution.

Option Ais correct: reviewing ground rules reinforces team norms and supports safety.

Option Bmay make individuals feel singled out.

Option Cignores the interpersonal issue and postpones resolution.

Option Descalates unnecessarily and bypasses team ownership.

In Kanban, lead time is a key performance indicator (KPI) that should be regularly monitored. Lead time measures the amount of time it takes for a work item to move from the start of the process to its completion. By monitoring lead time, the team lead can assess how efficiently work is flowing through the system and identify areas where bottlenecks or delays may be occurring. Reducing lead time is one of the primary goals in Kanban to improve overall process efficiency and delivery speed.

The correct answer is A — Foster stronger communication by hosting cross-organizational meetings between the two teams.

Integration issues often result from mismatched expectations, lack of alignment, or asynchronous collaboration. A practical solution is to improve communication via cross-functional and cross-team meetings, which support transparency, alignment, and shared understanding.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Strong communication is essential in hybrid environments. Agile practitioners must foster collaboration between diverse teams to ensure integration points are clear and timely.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 — Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“When agile and non-agile teams must work together, agile leaders facilitate boundary-spanning conversations to ensure mutual understanding and coordinated delivery.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 — Team Performance)

Other options:

B oversimplifies the solution and may create unnecessary disruptions.

C contradicts agile's principle of just-enough documentation.

D is rarely practical in hybrid or large-scale environments.

Answer: A

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In agile, theProduct Owner is the ultimate decision-makerregarding backlog prioritization and scope changes. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog Prioritization), any changes thataffect value delivery, schedule, or scopeshould be discussed with the Product Owner, who evaluates the business impact.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)reinforces that product direction and scope decisions must be handled through collaboration between the team and the Product Owner.

Option Dis correct: seeking Product Owner input ensures value-based decision-making and customer alignment.

Option A(re-estimating the entire project) is unnecessary and burdensome.

Option Brejects valuable input and ignores iterative flexibility.

Option Cgoes against agile principles of focus and sustainable pace.

The correct answer is C – Ensure the team captures the technical dependencies as issues within the backlog and prioritize based on value optimization. In Agile, technical considerations are factored into backlog refinement and sprint planning. Dependencies should be visualized and managed as part of adaptive planning while still striving to deliver maximum value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog items with technical dependencies should be identified and addressed collaboratively. Agile teams balance value with feasibility and technical constraints to optimize delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement and Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“While business value drives prioritization, technical constraints influence the ordering of stories. Agile planning is adaptive; dependencies and delivery risks are identified early and managed through backlog reordering.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may discard valuable features unnecessarily.

B risks accumulating technical debt and incomplete work.

D shifts responsibility away from the team and PO unnecessarily.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – Discuss the issue with the team in the daily stand-up meetings. Agile emphasizes transparency, collaboration, and self-organization. The daily stand-up is an appropriate forum to raise and discuss workload distribution so the team can adjust and support each other.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Daily stand-ups are a tool for fostering open communication, uncovering impediments, and adjusting the plan for the day. It enables the team to help each other balance workloads and remove bottlenecks.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Daily Stand-Ups)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Team members should use stand-ups to discuss challenges. If someone is overloaded, the team can identify ways to redistribute work to maintain balance and avoid burnout.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A escalates the issue unnecessarily and bypasses team self-management.

C is too narrow and private for a team-based issue.

D adds administrative burden without solving the underlying problem.

Answer: B

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If a story isnot completed, it isnot counted toward the current sprint velocity. When carrying the story forward to the next sprint, teams shouldre-evaluate the story size, especially if part of the work is already done. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Velocity and Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile teams are encouraged tore-estimatesuch items based on remaining work.

Option Dis correct: incomplete stories should be re-estimated based on new size or effort.

Option Aviolates velocity principles—onlyfully completedstories count.

Option Bundermines the fixed-length timebox principle of sprints.

Option Cis not directly relevant unless the story’s complexity necessitates research, which is not stated here.

When considering an increase in scope, it's important to first align with the organization's higher-level objectives. Seeking executive approval on the approach ensures that the change is in line with organizational priorities and gets the necessary buy-in from key stakeholders. Additionally, determining the purpose and value proposition helps clarify the benefits of the new scope, ensuring the team focuses on delivering value that is clear and beneficial to the organization. These actions are critical before making any further decisions or changes.

Stated understanding of the release goal

The release goal provides clarity on the purpose and objectives of the release. It helps stakeholders understand the value the team aims to deliver.

List of the user stories that will be part of the next releases

A well-defined list of user stories ensures that stakeholders know which features and functionalities are planned for upcoming releases.

The correct answer is A – The team will be unable to understand the iteration's status. Agile relies on transparency and timely updates to progress tracking tools such as task boards, burndown charts, and digital boards. Incomplete or delayed updates obscure the team's true progress, making it difficult to inspect and adapt.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Visibility of progress is key to agile. Without timely updates to task boards or status indicators, teams lose the ability to inspect and adapt effectively during iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“If user stories or tasks are not updated, burndown charts and velocity metrics become inaccurate. This compromises team transparency and decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B is not directly impacted by status updates.

C might result as a side effect, but A is more fundamental.

D misrepresents the problem—it is about progress tracking, not collaboration metrics.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – The Product Owner, since their vision is the basis for the acceptance criteria.

The Product Owner is responsible for defining the product backlog items, including their acceptance criteria. They represent the customer and stakeholders, and ensure that the backlog items deliver business value. During backlog refinement, the PO provides clarity to the team when questions arise.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner defines and prioritizes the product backlog and is responsible for ensuring user stories and acceptance criteria are clear and understood by the team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“The product owner is the central point for decisions related to backlog items. Their role is to ensure that requirements and acceptance criteria reflect the desired outcome and stakeholder expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are incorrect:

A (Sponsor) is too high-level and not involved in story-level discussions.

B (Scrum Master) facilitates the process, not the requirements.

D (Developer) implements the story but does not define acceptance.

Answer: C

Pair programmingis aproven agile techniquefor improving quality, sharing knowledge, and ramping up less experienced developers. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Quality and Engineering Practices)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)recommend using pair programming to improve team cohesion and performance when skill gaps are affecting velocity.

Option Ais correct: pair programming supports learning and improves delivery quality.

Option Bmisuses the retrospective—it’s not for backlog prioritization.

Option Cmay be helpful, butestimation changesdon’t directly address the skill gap.

Option Dmay reduce risk short-term but doesn’t help the team improve or grow.

In Agile, it's important to continuously refine and prioritize requirements while managing dependencies. The team should work collaboratively to identify and prioritize the key dependencies that must be resolved to ensure that the user stories meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) criteria. By focusing on the highest priority dependencies first, the team can maintain progress while adapting to changes, rather than getting stalled trying to resolve all dependencies at once. This allows for more flexibility and efficient delivery.

The correct answer is D — Work with the team to analyze the market opportunity and create a tailored agile approach if needed.

Agile promotes context-based tailoring. Just because an approach works well in one project doesn’t guarantee it will fit another. The agile leader should collaborate with the team to analyze current needs and adapt or design the most suitable process accordingly.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“There is no one-size-fits-all approach. Agile methods should be tailored to suit the project context and objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Tailoring Agile)

Mike Griffiths:

“Teams must evaluate project needs and customize their process accordingly. Blind reuse of past methods often fails to address unique challenges.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A involves stakeholders, but D emphasizes team and tailoring for delivery.

B ignores the unique needs of the new project.

C undermines agility and team ownership.

Answer: D

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Thedaily stand-up (daily Scrum)is atime-boxed coordination meetingwhere each team member answers the three key questions: What did I do yesterday? What will I do today? Are there any blockers? According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Daily Stand-ups)andScrum Guide, in-depth discussions should betaken offlineto avoid disrupting the stand-up’s purpose.

Option Ais correct: deferring detailed conversations maintains stand-up focus.

Option Bmay derail the time-boxed meeting.

Option Coverreacts and undermines team self-management.

Option Dmight be appropriate later but not during the stand-up.

In Agile, it's important to maintain focus on the current sprint's goals and scope. Since the sprint deadline is approaching, adding additional features may compromise the team's ability to deliver the planned work on time. The best approach is to explain to the client that the new features can be considered for the next sprint, ensuring that the team can finish the current work and deliver value on time. This also allows the team to properly plan for the new features in the next iteration without overloading the current sprint.

Kanban is a visual management tool that helps teams improve workflow efficiency. One of its key principles is the use of a pull system, where work is pulled into the process when capacity allows, rather than being pushed into the system. This contrasts with a push system, where work is assigned or forced into the workflow regardless of capacity. This approach helps avoid bottlenecks and ensures work is handled efficiently.

To effectively address blockers and minimize their occurrence, the team should first analyze the root causes of the blockers. By grouping them and identifying patterns, the team can understand the common causes of delays and take targeted actions to eliminate or mitigate these issues. This practice aligns with continuous improvement in Agile, where teams reflect on their processes, identify areas of inefficiency, and adapt their workflow to reduce future blockers and lead times. This approach allows the team to address the underlying issues and make process improvements that benefit future sprints.

The correct answer is B – Have team members work in pairs to learn from each other and develop new skills. Pairing encourages collaboration, knowledge sharing, and skill development, which helps reduce dependency on specific individuals and enhances engagement through variety.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Pair programming and other collaborative work methods help reduce repetition, promote learning, and improve motivation. These techniques allow for shared ownership and skill diversity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Cross-training and pairing reduce boredom, eliminate knowledge silos, and increase team flexibility. They are effective responses to reduced motivation from repetitive work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A may temporarily help morale but doesn’t address the root cause.

C is more suitable for analyzing inefficiencies, not directly resolving monotony.

D adds cost and doesn’t solve the underlying engagement problem.

Answer: B

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Agile empowers teams to beself-organizing and self-managing. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6)andMike Griffiths' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the agile coach or Scrum Master facilitates the process but shouldencourage the team to resolve internal issues themselves. This develops ownership, team maturity, and accountability.

The team coach’s role is tosupport, not solve. Escalating issues unnecessarily or bypassing the team undermines agile principles. Therefore,Option Cis correct: the coach should encourage the team to address and resolve the issue internally, stepping in only if the team cannot resolve it themselves.

The correct answer is A – Facilitate a team discussion to identify knowledge gaps and determine the best way to address them.

The agile coach's role is to foster team ownership and encourage collaborative problem solving. When knowledge gaps are uncovered, the first step is to create transparency and engage the team in identifying how to resolve the gap—through pairing, mentoring, spikes, or backlog adjustments.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders coach teams to self-identify impediments and explore solutions collaboratively. Coaching helps teams build awareness and take ownership of their development and process improvements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than providing direct solutions, agile coaches should help teams uncover their own improvements through retrospection, facilitated discussion, and group problem solving.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement / Coaching)

Why the other options fall short:

B & C externalize the problem instead of building team capability.

D may be part of the solution, but the team should explore it collectively—not as a unilateral decision.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A — Capture risks and make them visible, and use a burndown chart to focus on reducing risks early in the project.

Technical uncertainty is a key area of risk in Agile projects. These risks should be clearly communicated, visualized, and prioritized early in the project to allow timely mitigation. Agile teams are empowered to make decisions and highlight blockers rather than delay work or seek hierarchical intervention.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams actively manage risk through transparency and continuous feedback. Risks should be made visible on information radiators and addressed early in the project to prevent impact on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams facing uncertainty must surface risks openly and early. Using charts such as risk burndown and dashboards helps keep focus on managing these risks iteratively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts the time-boxing principle of sprints.

C raises awareness but lacks proactive risk mitigation.

D introduces a command-and-control dynamic, which is not agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – The users can help the team understand if the feature adds value, avoiding the risk of building the wrong product.

Prototyping in agile serves as a lightweight modeling technique that supports discovery and stakeholder validation. It helps clarify uncertain requirements, encourages collaboration, and ensures that the solution being developed meets user needs and delivers value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Prototypes allow teams to explore solutions before committing to full development. They support value delivery by engaging users early to verify what is needed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Exploring and Confirming Requirements)

Also:

“Engaging stakeholders in early solution validation through techniques such as wireframes or mockups reduces the risk of developing the wrong product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this approach:

“Prototyping enhances discovery. It supports feedback loops that validate whether a feature adds value before it's built—especially useful when requirements are unclear.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are less correct:

A is a secondary benefit but not the primary goal of prototyping.

B is speculative and does not reflect the sponsor's actual recommendation.

D misrepresents the purpose of prototyping, which is for discovery, not accelerated deployment.

Answer: C

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Thestorming phase(from Tuckman’s model: Forming–Storming–Norming–Performing) is marked byconflict and role negotiation. Theagile coach or Scrum Masterplays a critical role in guiding teams through this phase withstructured facilitation and conflict-resolution techniques.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Development Stages)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the agile coach must providesupport, guidance, and toolsto help the team evolve toward self-organization and maturity.

Option Bis correct: effective facilitation helps the team progress toward high performance.

Option Apromotes dysfunction.

Option Crisks escalating unresolved conflict.

Option Dis overly individual-focused and not team-centric.

Reducing test automation in agileundermines quality and slows down feedback loops, contradicting agile principles. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality Management in Agile Projects)andPMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 8.1), agile projects aim forbuilt-in quality, and test automation is critical in achieving that.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) strongly advocates fortest automation to support sustainable developmentand improve predictability, quality, and speed. Rather than comply blindly with the product owner’s request, the agile practitioner shouldengage stakeholdersand clarify the long-term trade-offs of reducing quality practices.

Option Ais correct: consulting stakeholders ensures transparency, alignment, and helps prevent short-sighted compromises that could undermine the product.

The primary reason for delivering a minimally viable product (MVP) is to reduce risk as quickly as possible. By releasing a version of the product with just the essential features, the team can quickly test assumptions, gather feedback from users, and make necessary adjustments before investing more time and resources. This approach allows the team to identify and address potential risks early in the process, ensuring that the product is on the right track and meets user needs before full-scale development continues.

The Scrum Master should remind the team that in Agile, the entire team is responsible for delivering the sprint goal, and it is important to take into account the different skill levels of team members when setting goals. This approach promotes a collaborative and supportive environment where experienced members can mentor less experienced ones, helping to improve the team's overall performance. It also encourages more realistic and achievable sprint goals, fostering empathy and understanding within the team. By acknowledging competency differences, the team can better allocate work and support each other to meet their goals.

The correct answer is B — The stakeholder who can prevent the project from achieving its goals.

Stakeholder prioritization is based on power and influence. Those who can significantly impact or block project success (positively or negatively) should be prioritized. This ensures their concerns are addressed and their support is cultivated early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder engagement is critical in agile. The team must identify those who have the most influence over project outcomes and ensure early and frequent communication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Stakeholder Engagement)

PMBOK® Guide:

“Stakeholder prioritization involves assessing who has the greatest influence on project success.”

—

The correct answer is B – It prevents a wasteful buildup of requirements inventory that may never be processed. Rolling wave planning is a core agile planning practice where detailed planning is deferred until closer to execution. It aligns with lean principles by avoiding over-specification and prioritizing only near-term, high-value work.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Rolling wave planning minimizes wasted effort by only detailing work that is near execution. Planning further ahead can result in rework or unused artifacts if requirements change or become irrelevant.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Rolling Wave Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile avoids big upfront planning. Rolling wave planning reduces waste, improves responsiveness, and focuses on delivering the highest-value features first while leaving less valuable work unplanned until necessary.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A is misleading; agile allows varying levels of detail, not fixed.

C is a traditional (waterfall) planning mindset.

D suggests fixed scope per release, which contradicts agility.

Answer: B

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The correct answer isC – Facilitate a conversation about the user story between the development team and the product owner.In Agile,collaboration,self-organization, andface-to-face conversationare foundational principles for resolving disagreements and achieving a shared understanding.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The agile practitioner facilitates healthy communication and constructive dialogue between the product owner and the development team to align understanding and priorities. Agile coaches and Scrum Masters serve the team by removing obstacles to collaboration, not by acting as decision-makers.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.3 – Facilitating Agile Practices)

Further, the guide emphasizes:

“Effective teams discuss issues collaboratively. When disagreements arise, the agile leader’s role is to facilitate communication and resolution through shared understanding, not to dictate decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Behaviors)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookalso states:

“Agile encourages close collaboration between business and technical teams. When conflicts arise regarding a user story, the agile practitioner’s role is to facilitate meaningful discussions to ensure mutual understanding and team-driven resolution.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

Aundermines team self-organization and implies a command-and-control model.

Bis confrontational and goes against agile values of respect and collaboration.

Dcontradicts the facilitative role of the agile practitioner, who should not act as an authoritative decision-maker.

Thus, the most agile-consistent approach is toenable conversation and clarity between roles.

Answer: C

The correct answer is B — Communicate the issue to the team in the next stand-up meeting.

Agile emphasizes early detection and resolution of impediments through daily communication. The Daily Stand-up is the appropriate forum to raise issues, so the entire team is aware and can decide collaboratively how to proceed.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Daily stand-ups allow team members to communicate problems and identify impediments early. The team collaboratively determines how to respond to issues raised.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 — Stand-up Meetings)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Issues must be shared early and openly. The stand-up is designed to expose blockers and ensure collective team awareness and decision-making.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Option A skips collaboration and bypasses the team’s self-organizing nature. Options C and D delay the communication until the retrospective, which would result in lost time and potentially compound the issue.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D – Provide a delivery range based on the team's estimated velocity.

In Agile, planning is iterative and inherently uncertain. Rather than committing to a fixed schedule, it is best practice to provide a forecasted delivery window based on the team’s actual measured velocity. This reflects the inspect-and-adapt mindset of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams forecast delivery using velocity ranges derived from completed work. Ranges reflect uncertainty and promote realistic expectations with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Planning with ranges rather than fixed commitments respects the uncertainty of estimates and the empirical nature of Agile delivery. Forecasts should be based on velocity trends and updated iteratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are less suitable:

A suggests triangulating data but wrongly implies a precise commitment.

B is more of a work preparation activity, not a planning technique.

C (analogous estimation) is better suited for initial planning, not for an in-progress agile project with real velocity data.

Answer: D

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Iteration reviews (or sprint reviews) are designed to demonstratecompleted, potentially shippable product increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance), the purpose of the iteration review is toshowcase work that meets the Definition of Done (DoD)and to receivestakeholder feedback. Demonstrating incomplete or in-progress stories can mislead stakeholders about progress and reduce trust in the team.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)emphasizes the importance of showing only completed work to maintain transparency and clarity in stakeholder communication.

Option Ais correct: only completed stories should be demoed to ensure expectations are managed effectively.

Option BandCare not part of the typical iteration review agenda unless explicitly required.

Option Dis incorrect, as it blurs the line between done and in-progress work.

The correct answer is D – Ensured that the team was comprised of cross-functional, generalized specialists.

Agile teams are expected to be cross-functional and self-sufficient. A lack of a required skill that halts progress typically points to an improperly constructed team. Building teams with broad (T-shaped) skills ensures they can collectively deliver value without external dependencies.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are ideally composed of cross-functional members who have both depth in a specialty and breadth across disciplines. This enables the team to self-organize and deliver complete increments of value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Building Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“Agile favors generalized specialists or T-shaped professionals who can collaborate across functions. This improves agility, resilience, and continuity within iterations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are insufficient:

A is a reactive strategy; proactive skill assessment is preferred.

B may delay critical features unnecessarily.

C creates external dependencies, which agile seeks to avoid.

Answer: D

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In this scenario, the development team is working closely with different business units to deliver value early and often. This aligns with the agile value of delivering working software frequently, with a preference for shorter timescales. By collaborating with business units, the team is enabling early feedback and adapting to changing requirements, which is a core principle of agile methodologies like Scrum.

The correct answer is B — Create a spike story to determine what needs to be done to use the new interface.

A spike is a special user story designed to address technical uncertainty or risk. It allows the team to explore, research, or prototype solutions within a time-box. Spikes are particularly useful for investigating unknowns such as integration with vendor systems.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are used for research and exploration. They help teams gain knowledge about technology, functionality, or business domain that is necessary before estimating or implementing a feature.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Spikes reduce uncertainty and are valuable tools for backlog refinement. They are especially helpful when the team is unsure how to implement a requirement or integrate external components.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A may delay addressing the issue until the next monthly meeting.

C defers the issue rather than exploring it.

D assumes outsourcing is the only solution and may remove team ownership.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is B — Set the velocity to the delivered story points of the last sprint.

Agile velocity is a historical measure, not a target. It represents the amount of work a team actually completed in a previous sprint and should be used to help guide future sprint planning. Teams should not inflate, manipulate, or "game" their velocity; instead, they should use it as a basis for realistic planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Velocity is calculated by totaling the points for all fully completed stories. It is a measure of what the team can complete—not what it hopes to complete—and should be used as an empirical baseline for planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Velocity should be based on historical data from previous sprints. Teams should not artificially inflate velocity by changing estimation practices or slicing stories merely to appear more productive.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A promotes splitting for manipulation, not for clarity.

C suggests altering estimation practices for the sake of metrics.

D implies gaming the system to falsely increase velocity.

Answer: B

—

When overwhelmed by support tickets, the agile approach is toprioritize systemic problem-solving over reactive work. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Quality and Continuous Improvement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), agile teams should identifyroot causesrather than just addressing symptoms. Byanalyzing the backlog, the team can spot patterns and addresssystemic issues, reducing incoming ticket volume in the long run.

Option Cis correct: addressing the root cause improves sustainability and overall efficiency.

Option Aleads to burnout and is unsustainable.

Option Bignores prioritization or value.

Option Dis not a strategic response—it increases cost without solving the core issue.

The correct answer is B – Suggest the Product Owner prioritize the work items by feature to maximize value.

In Agile, the Product Owner is responsible for backlog prioritization. When multiple stakeholders have differing priorities, it is the Product Owner’s job to evaluate business value and ROI to determine which features deliver the most value and should be addressed first.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner works closely with stakeholders to ensure that the most valuable work is prioritized in the backlog. When multiple stakeholders have competing interests, the Product Owner helps mediate and prioritize based on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile avoids trying to define all requirements up front. Instead, the backlog is groomed regularly, and the Product Owner ensures that the team is working on the highest value features.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are less effective:

A contradicts Agile principles by suggesting complete upfront requirement definition.

C puts responsibility on the customer instead of the empowered Product Owner.

D implies a waterfall approach by requiring clarity before starting.

Answer: B

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The agile lead should evaluate the team's capacity and help them select user stories that align with around 80% of their available capacity for the iteration. This approach takes into account potential issues or interruptions and helps ensure the team is not overcommitting. By selecting user stories based on a realistic understanding of the team’s capacity, the team is more likely to meet their commitments and avoid incomplete work. This method promotes sustainable work practices and helps the team maintain a predictable velocity over time.

The correct answer is A – Conduct regular one-on-one meetings to review development features and trace them back to the product roadmap. Close collaboration between the agile leader (e.g., Scrum Master or Project Lead) and the Product Owner ensures alignment between the product strategy and development execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent and open collaboration between the Product Owner and agile project leader helps maintain alignment between delivery and business objectives. These discussions link work to roadmap-level planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile leadership includes partnering with the Product Owner to ensure that work being done contributes to overall product goals. Roadmap alignment is critical.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

B is more appropriate for the Product Owner, not the project leader.

C implies waterfall-style communication.

D oversteps the Product Owner’s authority in setting feature priorities.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is B – Ensured the early engagement of key stakeholders. Agile emphasizes early and continuous stakeholder involvement. In this case, engaging enterprise architects and standards stakeholders early in the design process would have helped detect conflicts before sprint execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Key stakeholders should be engaged early in the development cycle to ensure alignment with organizational policies, standards, and expectations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Involving stakeholders early helps mitigate the risk of late surprises and rework. Enterprise architects should be consulted during backlog grooming or prior to sprint planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A is reactive and escalatory.

C presumes the standards are flawed without analysis.

D ignores necessary compliance and does not solve the issue proactively.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D – Reestimate all stories including values for A, B, and C. Agile promotes empirical process control, meaning teams adapt based on what they learn. When significant deviations are found in actual effort vs. story point estimates, the team should revisit and refine their estimation process, including reestimating stories to better align with reality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimates are revisited based on experience. Teams inspect and adapt during retrospectives, using data to improve future estimation accuracy.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Planning)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When estimates prove inaccurate, teams should reestimate affected stories. Estimating is a collaborative process, and learning from past deviations is a key part of adaptive planning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may distort estimation by comparison and not correct the root issue.

B manipulates velocity data and violates agile principles of transparency.

C attempts to “force fit” effort rather than inspect and adapt.

Answer: D

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In agile,early and frequent feedbackfrom stakeholders and clients is critical to ensure that what is being built delivers the intended value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 and Section 7.2.2)promotes regularproduct review sessions (e.g., sprint reviews)with stakeholders to validate progress and obtain immediate feedback.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) explains thatproduct validation is continuousand not left to the end of the project. Regular review sessions allow clients toconfirm that the product meets expectations, reducing the risk of building the wrong solution.

Therefore,Option Dis correct: holding product review sessions with the client aligns with agile values of transparency, collaboration, and value delivery.

Agile emphasizestransparency and team self-organization. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is tomake work and issues visible to everyoneand allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using ashared workspace or boardhelps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option Dis correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option Amisuses the backlog—issues aren't typically prioritized by customers.

Option Bis directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option Cfocuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

Large user stories, also known as "epic" user stories, can be challenging to manage and lead to difficulties in tracking progress and delivering value incrementally. The Scrum Master should work with the team to break down large user stories into smaller, more manageable pieces. These smaller stories can be completed within a single sprint, allowing the team to deliver value more frequently and with greater clarity. This practice aligns with Agile principles by ensuring that work is broken into digestible chunks that can be iteratively built, tested, and delivered.

A well-defined, mature Definition of Done (DoD) ensures that all aspects of a user story are completed, tested, reviewed, and integrated into the codebase. This sequence includes all necessary steps:

Unit testing ensures the code works as expected.

Meeting the acceptance criteria ensures that the business needs are met.

Business testing and functional testing confirm the product works from both the business and technical perspectives.

Code merging ensures that the feature is integrated into the main branch.

Updating documentation ensures that the product is well-documented for future reference and use.

To support quick feature delivery while maintaining quality, the best approach is to automate integration, testing, and deployment activities. This aligns with the principles of Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD), which streamline processes and reduce the manual effort required to test and deploy software. This approach can help the team to quickly release features with confidence that they meet quality standards, reducing manual errors and speeding up the delivery cycle.

This approach reinforces the core values of agile, particularly the idea that a self-managed team should be collaborative and support one another. The agile lead should focus on creating a safe environment where team members feel comfortable sharing challenges and asking for help. This will not only help the junior team member but also improve the overall team dynamics and performance by fostering a culture of openness and mutual support.

The correct answer is B — Hold regular retrospectives and have team members commit to specific actions.

Regular retrospectives enable the team to continuously reflect and adapt their processes and product based on new challenges or insights. Commitment to specific action items ensures accountability and fosters a culture of learning and responsiveness.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should hold regular retrospectives to identify areas for improvement and define concrete actions. These actions are tracked and reviewed in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Continuous improvement is a core agile value. Retrospectives allow teams to evaluate their performance and commit to actionable improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is a waterfall mindset.

C lacks structured reflection and accountability.

D is a poor coding practice and anti-pattern.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is C – Work with the stakeholder directly rather than go through different layers of people. Agile emphasizes direct communication and collaboration with stakeholders to reduce miscommunication and ensure clarity. When requirements differ depending on who is asked, the agile practitioner must go directly to the source for clarification and alignment.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Face-to-face conversation is the most effective method of conveying information to and within a development team. Agile encourages working directly with stakeholders and product owners to minimize miscommunication.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement; Agile Manifesto Principle #6)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“To reduce noise and confusion, agile practitioners are encouraged to engage stakeholders directly rather than relying on intermediaries or second-hand interpretations.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Option A contradicts agile’s value of responding to change. Option B is an indirect solution that does not eliminate confusion. Option D is internal to the team and doesn’t resolve inconsistencies from stakeholder communication.

Answer: C

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At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

A value stream map is an effective tool for identifying and visualizing the flow of work and the associated delays or handoffs in a process. By mapping out the entire value stream, the team can identify inefficiencies, waste, and bottlenecks, which helps them target areas for improvement. This allows the team to optimize the workflow by reducing unnecessary handovers and delays, which is in line with their goal of improving efficiency.

Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

Velocity is ateam-specific metricand cannot be reliably estimated until the team has worked together forseveral sprints. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4 Sprint Planning and Velocity Tracking), velocity should bemeasured empirically, not predicted based on assumptions or external input.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning) emphasizes thatnew teams need to run a few sprints to establish a reliable velocitythrough real performance data, not estimation.

Option Dis correct: actual performance determines true velocity.

Option AandBrely on speculation.

Option Cincorrectly uses sponsor input for team planning, which goes against agile principles.

When a feature is too large to fit into a sprint, agile recommendsdecomposing it into smaller user storiesor increments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and MVPs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams should break down epics or large stories intoMinimum Viable Product (MVP)segments and deliver value incrementally.

Option Ais correct: this enables the team to deliver value sooner and iteratively build on it.

Option Bdelays addressing customer concerns.

Option Csacrifices overall product balance.

Option Dviolates time-boxing principles in Scrum and agile.

In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

When a team reports that user stories are unclear or lack sufficient detail, the correct agile response is to fostercollaborative refinement and shared understanding. Auser story workshopis a well-recognized practice that involves the team and product owner collaborating to write, clarify, and refine stories. This is supported by thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Backlog Refinement), which recommends story-writing workshops as a proactive way to clarify requirements.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)notes that good agile teams collaboratively refine stories in grooming sessions or workshops to ensure shared clarity and alignment.

Option Cis correct: a workshop enables both the team and product owner to collaborate in improving story clarity.

Option Aoversimplifies the solution—acceptance criteria alone don’t fully define a story.

Option Bmisuses the retrospective, which is for process improvement, not story editing.

Option Descalates prematurely and undermines team ownership and collaboration.

In agile methodology, particularly in Scrum, it is essential to focus on delivering value through iterative, incremental development. Rather than planning everything upfront for the entire 2-year duration, the focus should be on delivering small, manageable releases on a regular cadence, allowing for flexibility and adaptability based on feedback from stakeholders. This approach helps to ensure that the team remains responsive to changing requirements and can continually improve the product over time.

In Kanban, limiting work in progress (WIP) is a key practice to improve task flow and reduce bottlenecks. By restricting the number of tasks that can be worked on at any given time, the team is forced to focus on completing the tasks that are already in progress before taking on new ones. This helps reduce the accumulation of tasks in the "In Progress" column, ensures that tasks move through the workflow more efficiently, and ultimately helps to meet project timelines more effectively. It also promotes better quality, as team members can focus on fewer tasks at a time.

One of the pillars of agile isearly and continuous customer feedbackto ensure that the product being delivered meets stakeholder expectations. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Reviews and Feedback Loops)andMike Griffiths' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement),frequent customer reviews (e.g., sprint reviews)ensure alignment and early identification of quality or value issues.

Option Dis correct: regular customer engagement during reviews ensures delivery effectiveness and customer satisfaction.

Option Ais inappropriate—daily stand-ups are for internal team coordination.

Option Breflects a waterfall approach.

Option Cmisplaces the responsibility—requirements evolve and are refined throughout, not fixed up front.

A key agile principle is that user stories should includeclear acceptance criteria, which must bereviewed and accepted by the product owner. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: User Stories and Acceptance Criteria)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), acceptance criteria ensure that the team and product ownershare a clear understandingof what constitutes “done.”

Option Ais correct: having the product owner validate acceptance criteria ensures alignment.

Option Baddresses technical quality but not stakeholder dissatisfaction.

Option Cunfairly shifts blame without addressing communication.

Option Dgoes against agile’s iterative and flexible nature.

To assessprocess efficiency, agile teams usevalue stream mappingto identifywaste, delays, and non-value-adding steps. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Process Analysis and Value Stream Mapping), value stream analysis helps determine how efficiently a process converts inputs into valuable outputs, making it ideal for supporting customer inquiries on operational performance.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement) reinforces the value of usingvalue stream mappingfor both software development processes and operational workflows to increase transparency and drive improvements.

Option Bis correct: reviewing thevalue streamprovides a structured way to evaluate efficiency.

Option AandDare important for team improvement and performance but don’t focus onprocess activity efficiency.

Option Crelates tovalue prioritization, not operational efficiency.

The Scrum Master should act as a facilitator and protect the team from unnecessary distractions that do not add value. By attending the meetings in place of the team members, the Scrum Master can assess the meetings' value and determine if they are essential to the team's progress. If the meetings are unnecessary or inefficient, the Scrum Master can work with stakeholders to improve or remove them, ensuring that the team’s time is used productively and that they can focus on delivering value.

The Scrum Master should facilitate a conversation between the team and the senior manager to understand the purpose and expectations behind the request for real-time updates to the burndown chart. By aligning on the reporting requirements and discussing potential impacts on team productivity, the Scrum Master can ensure that the metrics are meaningful and do not interfere with the team's ability to deliver value. It's important to find a balance between transparency and efficiency, ensuring that the team’s workflow isn’t disrupted by unnecessary administrative tasks.

The correct answer is C – Invest in technology-collaboration tools to enable effective communication and ensure a common understanding of the scope, issues, and solutions.

Agile encourages high-bandwidth communication, preferably face-to-face. However, when working with distributed teams, modern collaboration tools serve as essential enablers of shared understanding and timely feedback, reducing the risk of miscommunication and rework.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“While agile prefers face-to-face communication, geographically dispersed teams must rely on tools to mimic these interactions as closely as possible. These include video conferencing, online whiteboards, and real-time collaboration platforms to create a shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Communication and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths supports this as well:

“Remote teams need strong communication enablers. Collaboration tools help mitigate the challenges of distributed work by enabling transparency, synchronous discussions, and shared visibility of the work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are less appropriate:

A assumes majority rule over inclusive engagement.

B is often impractical and does not reflect Agile’s adaptability.

D is vague and lacks actionable commitment.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C — Training in areas of weakness.

Velocity can be improved when the team removes skill-based bottlenecks. If some members struggle due to lack of knowledge or technical gaps, their productivity—and the team's velocity—will be impacted. Targeted training helps the team overcome these weaknesses and deliver more efficiently.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Improving technical and team skills through training and mentoring increases team performance and agility. Learning is a continuous improvement activity that directly impacts delivery capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Developing People and Teams)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Velocity is driven by team capabilities. When teams address their weakest areas—through training, pairing, or knowledge sharing—they improve quality and throughput.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A supports communication but doesn’t directly impact skill-based bottlenecks.

B helps with planning but not necessarily performance.

D describes the work cadence, not a practice that enhances velocity.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is D – Increase the opportunities to confirm common understanding with the client.

The rise in defects and change requests indicates a disconnect between what the team is delivering and what the customer expects. Agile emphasizes constant feedback and collaboration. Ensuring shared understanding through frequent interaction and validation reduces misunderstandings and rework.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent interactions with customers and stakeholders help teams build a shared understanding and reduce the risk of misaligned expectations and defects.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“A high defect rate often results from unclear requirements. Teams should improve communication loops with stakeholders to confirm understanding before development begins.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Why the other options are suboptimal:

A doesn’t address the root cause: misalignment with the client.

B is reactive and temporary, not a sustainable solution.

C may help but should be preceded by improving collaboration and understanding.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Low-risk and low-value. Agile teams prioritize features that deliver the highest value earliest while also addressing risk. Features with low business value and low risk can be deferred as they contribute the least to business objectives and present no urgency.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams maximize value by focusing on delivering high-value and high-risk features early. Low-value, low-risk items are often deferred or dropped entirely if they don’t contribute meaningfully to customer outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Features should be prioritized by value and risk. Items with low value and low risk are the lowest priority. Delivering high-value features quickly enables feedback and learning.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A should be prioritized early to mitigate risk and deliver value.

B are non-critical and risky—often avoided or discarded.

D delivers value, and therefore should be prioritized above low-value items.

Answer: C

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Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

The correct answer is C — Generate insights at the next retrospective and adjust processes as decided by the team.

The retrospective is the proper agile ceremony for identifying issues related to team performance, communication, and process inefficiencies. It's an opportunity for the team to collaboratively review their work, generate insights, and agree on improvements. Inconsistent defect data is a team-level issue best addressed through inspection and adaptation during the retrospective.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Retrospectives allow the team to inspect how they work together and continuously improve their team norms, working agreements, and definitions of done.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 — Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Retrospectives provide teams the opportunity to identify recurring problems, such as inconsistent defect documentation, and agree upon actions for improvement. Teams should self-organize and own their process improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 — Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is disruptive — iterations are not stopped unless critical.

B misuses the planning meeting, which is for backlog commitment, not process review.

D treats a process improvement as a backlog item, which may dilute accountability.

Answer: C

—

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and User Stories)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning),epics are large user storiesthat must be decomposed into smaller user stories for accurate planning and inclusion in sprints.

Thetwo main driversfor breaking down epics are:

Size– Epics are typically too large to be completed in a single iteration and must be divided to create manageable pieces of work.

Priority– High-priority epics are decomposed early to allow the team to work on the most valuable items first.

This makesOption Athe correct answer. The decision to decompose the epic is based on the need to fit it into sprint capacity and to align with backlog prioritization.

To calculate cycle time, we use Little’s Law, which states:

Where:

WIP (Work in Progress) = 50 tickets

Throughput = 200 tickets per 8-hour shift

Now, applying the formula:

The correct answer is A — Make sure the product owner is fully embedded into the project team so that they are readily available to make quick decisions.

One of the major benefits of agile is that decision-making is streamlined by having empowered roles, such as the product owner, closely embedded with the team. This reduces delays and improves the responsiveness and accuracy of decisions, especially for prioritization and clarification.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Empowering the product owner and embedding them with the team ensures faster decision-making, increased feedback loops, and reduces delays.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile teams thrive when key decision-makers, especially the product owner, are available to provide clarification and approval on the spot.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is too broad and may slow decision-making further.

C adds overhead and delays.

D misplaces decision authority; the Scrum Master is not responsible for product decisions.

Answer: A

—

Since PO Integration (Item #3) currently lacks user stories and estimated story points, the project team needs to break it down into smaller user stories or tasks before moving forward. This will allow the team to:

Assess dependencies and integration requirements more effectively.

Prioritize and deliver in smaller, testable increments.

Improve estimation accuracy using techniques like planning poker.

Ensure alignment with agile principles of incremental and iterative delivery.

The correct answer is A – Ask the team for suggestions.

In Agile, the Scrum Master serves the team by facilitating problem-solving rather than dictating actions. When a team member falls behind, the first step is to bring the issue to the team (e.g., in a daily stand-up or task review session) and allow the team to self-organize around resolving the impediment—whether through swarming, pairing, or shifting workload.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams are empowered to self-organize and solve problems collaboratively. The Scrum Master supports this by facilitating discussion and removing impediments—not by reassigning work unilaterally.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“The Scrum Master fosters a problem-solving culture. When issues arise, teams should explore solutions together—this builds ownership and improves trust.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are less suitable:

B circumvents team collaboration and may lead to resentment or overburdening.

C may be needed later, but collaborative resolution should be the first step.

D escalates prematurely and is not aligned with servant-leadership principles.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D — Iteration Burndown Chart.

An iteration burndown chart provides daily updates about the team’s progress during an iteration (or sprint). It tracks the remaining work in the sprint backlog and helps both the team and stakeholders assess if the sprint goal is likely to be met. This visualization helps communicate real-time progress to key stakeholders and supports adaptive planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Burndown charts display work remaining in a timebox and are updated daily. They are effective for communicating iteration progress to the team and stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.6, Information Radiators)

PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition) and Mike Griffiths both emphasize using task boards and burndown charts as “information radiators” for transparency.

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book elaborates:

“Iteration burndown charts are the most widely used artifact to track sprint progress. They offer insight into how much work remains and signal whether the team is on track to meet its sprint goal.”

Options A and B are long-term planning tools. Option C (velocity) is a forecasting metric and not updated daily.

Answer: D

=================================

The correct answer is A – Speak to the agile lead about the concerns.

Agile encourages transparency, collaboration, and open communication across all levels of the team. If a team member identifies a risk or concern, the most agile-aligned approach is to raise it directly and constructively with the agile lead or Scrum Master, who is responsible for protecting the team and facilitating problem-solving.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams promote a culture of openness where team members are encouraged to speak up and raise concerns. Effective leadership listens and collaborates to resolve issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Team members should be empowered to express concerns and challenge assumptions respectfully. Continuous communication and feedback improve project outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not ideal:

B promotes blind compliance, which is contrary to agile empowerment.

C suggests overwork, which contradicts sustainable pace.

D may escalate unnecessarily without first engaging the proper leadership channel.

Answer: A

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After the product vision is communicated, the product owner should ensure thatthe product backlog is prioritizedso the team canfocus on delivering the most valuable features first. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Vision Alignment), prioritizing the backlog helps teams understand the product roadmap and plan their efforts accordingly.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)reinforces that the product owner’s key responsibility isbacklog prioritization, not task management or detailed design.

Option Cis correct: prioritizing the backlog enables the team to understand and plan the roadmap.

Option AandBare too detailed for the product owner and move into the team's domain.

Option Dis ateam responsibility, not the product owner’s.

The correct answer is D – Stop updating the documentation and initiate an analysis to identify its value and act on the findings.

Agile promotes the creation of “just enough” documentation. If a document isn’t being used and adds no value, the team should reflect on whether to discontinue or improve it. Retrospectives are the appropriate venue to identify such inefficiencies and implement continuous improvement.

From the Agile Manifesto (referenced in PMI Agile Practice Guide):

“Working software over comprehensive documentation.”

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams minimize non-value-added work. If documentation is not being used or reviewed, teams should examine whether it is necessary, and if not, discontinue or replace it.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.1 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Documentation should serve a purpose. If stakeholders do not find value in it, the team should discontinue or refactor it to meet actual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why the other options fall short:

A prolongs the wasteful practice unnecessarily.

B lacks the analysis needed before eliminating documentation.

C enforces process over value, which contradicts Agile principles.

Answer: D

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InKanban, one of the most effective ways to reduce variability in cycle time is by ensuring a consistent size of work items. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7 Flow-based Agile - Kanban), maintaining uniformity in work item size helps stabilize the system and supports reliable forecasts. Large or complex stories increase variability and unpredictability.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)recommendssplitting large user storiesand maintaining size thresholds for items on the board to ensure flow efficiency.

OptionCaligns best with this practice:establishing a policyfor breaking down large stories and adjusting WIP accordingly will help standardize flow, minimize cycle time variation, and improve predictability.

The correct answer is B – Retrospective meeting.

The retrospective is a key Agile ceremony dedicated to continuous improvement. It provides a safe space for the team to reflect on what went well, what didn’t, and how to improve. When morale is low or conflicts arise, retrospectives help surface issues and co-create solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a vital part of continuous improvement. They are used to inspect team processes, relationships, and interactions to find ways to work more effectively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.7 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The retrospective is the heartbeat of improvement. It is where the team reflects, adjusts, and grows. Conflict and low morale are ideal triggers for a meaningful retrospective.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Other options explained:

A (Standup) is for daily coordination, not reflection.

C (Demo) is customer-facing and not a morale tool.

D (Offsite) may help later, but is not a formal Agile method for resolving internal team issues.

Answer: B

The correct answer is D – Planning poker.

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique commonly used in Agile projects. During this technique, team members discuss user stories, clarify details, and independently assign story points. The facilitator (often the Scrum Master) ensures balanced participation. This process encourages team collaboration and reduces estimation bias.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Planning poker is a common estimation technique where team members discuss the story, then individually provide estimates using a card deck, reaching consensus over multiple rounds.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation Techniques)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Planning poker is based on Wideband Delphi and allows teams to converge on estimates through discussion and consensus. It is particularly useful for relative estimation of story points.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are incorrect:

A (Lessons learned) applies to retrospective activities, not estimation.

B (Wideband Delphi) is the foundation of planning poker but is more formal and anonymous.

C (Formal point counting) is not a standard Agile estimation technique.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is D – Present the idea at the next ceremony attended by stakeholders to obtain their input. Agile emphasizes transparency and collaboration with stakeholders. Since the organization values security highly, decisions that impact quality or policy must be discussed openly with stakeholders who have the authority to weigh cost-benefit trade-offs.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams embrace customer collaboration and transparency. When decisions have business or organizational implications—such as security or compliance—stakeholders must be involved in evaluating trade-offs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When teams face decisions that could impact non-functional requirements like security, these should be escalated transparently to stakeholders for evaluation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and C could result in bias or lack of organizational alignment.

B is too late and internal-only for a business-critical concern.

Answer: D

────────────────────────────────────

Understand the current progress:

The project is halfway through development.

The team has reached a stable velocity after 8 iterations.

Each sprint duration is two weeks.

Determine the remaining number of iterations:

Since the project is halfway completed, an equal amount of work remains.

If 8 iterations have been completed, 8 more iterations are required to complete the project.

Calculate the remaining time:

Each iteration (sprint) lasts 2 weeks.

8 iterations × 2 weeks per iteration = 16 weeks.

16 weeks = 4 months.

The daily standup is focused on ensuring the team stays synchronized on their commitments for the sprint, and it is meant to be a short meeting where team members quickly discuss what they did the previous day, what they plan to do today, and any blockers they are facing. It is not a forum for external stakeholders to ask detailed questions about the sprint backlog or delivery timelines, as this can disrupt the team's focus and hinder the meeting's efficiency.

By explaining that the standup is about synchronizing commitments, the project manager helps the business partners understand the purpose of the meeting and suggests an appropriate time and place for discussing more detailed or strategic topics.

The correct answer is A — Lead the team and help them to constantly improve the processes in the project.

The Scrum Master is responsible for ensuring that retrospective action items are tracked and followed up on. While the team owns the improvement actions, the Scrum Master provides support, accountability, and facilitation to ensure that continuous improvement happens.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master facilitates continuous improvement by helping the team reflect, identify actions, and ensure those actions are implemented.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Retrospectives are only effective if outcomes are tracked. The Scrum Master ensures improvement ideas are not forgotten and become part of the team’s evolution.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B uses a confrontational tone—contrary to servant leadership.

C implies micro-management and contradicts self-organization.

D avoids responsibility for facilitating improvements.

Answer: A

—

The most effective way to address and correct defects while maintaining predictability and capacity is by working with the team to establish clear coding and quality standards, as well as comprehensive testing policies. By setting these explicit rules, the team will have a shared understanding of the quality expectations and testing requirements, which will help prevent defects from escaping into production. This approach focuses on building quality into the process, rather than reacting to defects after they occur, and supports the long-term goal of improving software quality and predictability without overburdening the team.

The correct answer is C – Share information via interactive methods such as a brainstorming session.

Agile promotes collaboration, continuous stakeholder engagement, and open communication. When a stakeholder lacks understanding, the practitioner should use interactive techniques like brainstorming, user story workshops, or product visioning sessions. These methods foster transparency, build trust, and allow stakeholders to co-create the product vision.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective stakeholder engagement relies on interactive communication methods such as workshops, demos, and feedback sessions to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Interactive, face-to-face collaboration provides the richest communication. Agile favors dialogue over documentation to enhance shared understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are less ideal:

A (status emails) are passive and limited in effectiveness.

B may violate Scrum guidelines—daily standups are not intended for stakeholders.

D delays engagement and limits collaboration to after-the-fact review.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C — Work with the product owner to assess the impact for reprioritization.

Agile recognizes that new priorities may emerge during a sprint. The product owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If a request threatens sprint commitments, it should be reviewed and discussed with the product owner to determine the trade-offs and make informed decisions.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“New requests should be assessed in collaboration with the product owner. The team should make prioritization trade-offs in a transparent manner to maintain focus on delivering value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Iteration Planning and Section 5.7 – Change Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product owners are responsible for backlog prioritization. When urgent issues arise, teams should discuss them with the PO rather than unilaterally shifting focus.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A risks burnout and violates sustainable pace.

B avoids accountability.

D assumes the change can wait, which may not align with customer needs.

Answer: C

—

The sprint retrospective is a key Scrum ceremony where the team reflects on the sprint, identifies what went well, what didn’t, and discusses ways to improve their processes. The focus is on continuous improvement, and the team makes plans to implement those improvements in future sprints. Stakeholders are typically not involved in the retrospective, but it’s important for them to understand that the meeting is about helping the team improve their collaboration, efficiency, and performance.

The correct answer is C – Ask the team to restate the requirements and review them with the client.

Clear communication and shared understanding are core Agile values. The best way to resolve confusion is through direct collaboration. Restating and reviewing requirements with the client fosters alignment and transparency, which reduces rework and frustration.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages frequent interaction with stakeholders to clarify requirements and reduce misunderstanding. Requirements are best elaborated through collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths supports:

“User stories and acceptance criteria should be understood by both team and stakeholders. If confusion arises, revisit and clarify together.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why not others?

A may boost morale but doesn’t resolve the confusion.

B is speculative and not customer-centric.

D risks building something without validation.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Refocus the sprint review meetings to demonstrate working software and seek feedback on the product.

Sprint reviews are designed to showcase the completed product increment to stakeholders and receive feedback. The primary goal is to validate that the work delivered provides value to the customer—not to present technical details. Demonstrating working software is one of the core tenets of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Sprint reviews are working sessions designed to elicit feedback and foster collaboration. Teams demonstrate completed work and adjust the backlog based on stakeholder input.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Value Delivery)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“The output of every iteration should be potentially shippable product. The sprint review is for stakeholders to see that output and provide feedback to inform future development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options explained:

B may be helpful, but it doesn’t solve the immediate issue of misaligned sprint reviews.

C misunderstands the purpose of the sprint review—it’s not about architecture.

D changes the audience instead of correcting the approach.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Add risk mitigation tasks to the backlog, then prioritize in current and upcoming sprints. In Agile, risk is actively managed and addressed as part of the backlog. When the risk threshold is exceeded, the team should explicitly identify risk-related tasks and bring them into visibility for planning and execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams manage risk by incorporating risk mitigation tasks directly into the backlog and addressing them early. Risk exposure is reviewed frequently, and responses are prioritized based on value and urgency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.7 – Risk Management)

Also from the PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition):

“Risks should be integrated into project activities. Agile teams identify, analyze, and prioritize risks continuously and handle them as regular backlog items.”

(PMBOK® Guide, Section 11.5 – Risk Response Planning)

Mike Griffiths further supports this by noting:

“Agile teams track risks visually and use backlog prioritization techniques to ensure they’re addressed appropriately.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B suggests padding estimates, which is an anti-pattern.

C is arbitrary and not recommended.

D delays risk response and contradicts proactive risk management.

Answer: A

To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

The correct answer is D – Create a risk burndown chart showing the reduction of risks over time.

In Agile, risk management is integrated into each iteration. A risk burndown chart is a visual information radiator that tracks the total risk exposure and how it changes over time, making risk transparent and easy for the team to understand.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“A risk burndown chart can be used to communicate the decreasing level of project risk over time and encourage discussion on risk mitigation strategies.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths also states:

“Agile teams use tools like risk burndown charts to visualize risks and track mitigation. They provide real-time understanding of current and remaining risks.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options:

A is a responsibility assignment matrix (not risk-focused).

B and C are traditional (predictive) methods and don’t align with Agile risk communication.

Answer: D

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The requirement for the home button to be recognizable is subjective and requires clarification from a design perspective. The team should consult the design team or subject matter experts (SMEs) who have expertise in user experience (UX) and interface design. These experts can provide specific guidelines or criteria for what constitutes a recognizable home button, such as color, shape, placement, or icons. This ensures that the team can create an appropriate, measurable test for the requirement.

When significant architectural flaws are discovered, agile teamsinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Adaptation), the product owner and team shouldcollaboratively reassess priorities and rewrite backlog itemsto reflect the rework needed. This is aligned with agile’sincremental delivery and continuous adaptation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)stresses that rework should be handled through backlog refinement and collaborative planning—not panic or reactive decisions.

Option Cis correct: reassessing the backlog with stakeholders aligns with agile practices.

Option Aabdicates product responsibility.

Option Bis too rigid for agile, unless the risk matrix is already very mature and agile-focused.

Option Dcancels value delivery and is unnecessarily drastic.

The in-person demonstration meeting is crucial because it allows the team to directly engage with the product owner, ask clarifying questions, and immediately address any feedback or concerns. This fosters better communication, understanding, and collaboration between the team and the product owner. Being able to have a real-time conversation helps the team ensure they are building the right product, and it allows the product owner to provide nuanced feedback that might not be as clear through asynchronous communication (like sending a link).

The face-to-face interaction provides an opportunity for both parties to align more effectively on the product vision, avoid misunderstandings, and prevent misalignment on priorities, ultimately ensuring that the product being developed meets expectations.

To ensurehigh code quality, especially for critical products, agile teams employtechnical practiceslikepair programmingandpeer code reviews. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5: Technical Practices and Quality)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 5: Quality and Technical Excellence)support these practices as part ofbuilt-in quality—ensuring that issues are caught early in the development cycle.

Option Ais correct: pair programming and peer reviews increase code quality and reduce defects early.

Option Bis essential but a feedback tool—not a direct quality assurance practice.

Option Cimplies waterfall-style handoffs.

Option Dis inefficient and risky without integrated testing or validation.

When a security issue is revealed mid-sprint, the project manager should consult with both the product owner and the project team. The product owner is responsible for prioritizing the backlog and ensuring that the most valuable features are worked on, while the team will help assess the technical implications of addressing the security issue.

The product owner needs to understand the impact of the security issue on the product's value and determine if it needs to be prioritized over other work in the sprint.

The project team should help evaluate the effort required to address the issue and ensure that the solution is feasible within the sprint’s capacity.

By collaborating with both the product owner and the team, the project manager can make an informed decision on whether to adjust the sprint plan, reprioritize the backlog, or take necessary actions to address the vulnerability. This ensures that the security issue is resolved without jeopardizing the overall sprint goals.

The correct answer is A – Continue working on the task until it is completed. Agile teams commit to the sprint goal and are expected to deliver what they’ve planned to the best of their ability. If a task takes longer than estimated, the team inspects and adapts but generally tries to complete the committed work within the current sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are committed to delivering the work they planned for the iteration. If estimates are off, the team inspects the impact and continues, learning from it for future planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Commitment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“If something takes longer than expected, the team should strive to complete it and use the experience to improve future estimation. Agile teams maintain sprint commitment integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B is punitive and unaligned with Agile values.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on stable teams and sustainable pace.

D breaks commitment and risks value delivery.

Answer: A

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In agile,teams are empowered to identify and solve problems collaboratively. When a technical concern arises, such as a limitation in the current technology stack, it is common practice to initiate aspikeor research activity to explore alternative solutions. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes and Technical Investigation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the best approach is to encourage theteam to investigate the issuecollaboratively.

Option Ais correct: engaging the team in research fosters ownership and solution-based thinking.

Option Bcircumvents team decision-making and undermines self-organization.

Option Cis premature—this is a technical issue, not a user requirement.

Option Dmay be helpful, but action should start with the team exploring options.

To estimate the project's conclusion using velocity, we use the formula:

Given:

Velocity = 40 story points per sprint

Remaining Work = 240 story points

Sprint Duration = 2 weeks

Since each sprint is 2 weeks, the total duration will be:

6 × 2 weeks = 12 weeks = 3 months

The Scrum Master should help ensure that stakeholders understand Agile principles and terms correctly to facilitate smooth decision-making. Organizing training sessions is an effective way to address misunderstandings and create awareness around Agile values. By ensuring all stakeholders are on the same page, the team can move forward with a shared understanding, which is critical for successfully implementing Agile methodologies. This approach promotes long-term buy-in and alignment, rather than simply pushing for a decision without proper education or consensus.

Servant leadership is about supporting the team, empowering them, and ensuring they have what they need to succeed. The team leader should focus on removing impediments that block the team's progress. By doing so, the leader enables the team to work more efficiently and effectively, without being obstructed by recurring issues. This aligns with the servant leadership mindset of putting the team's needs first and helping them reach their goals.

The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

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Standup meetings are meant to be brief and focused on providing updates, not on resolving issues in detail. The best approach is to allow team members to raise issues during the standup and then schedule separate discussions with the relevant individuals to work through resolutions. This ensures the standup stays on track while still addressing concerns efficiently. It prevents wasting time for the entire team when only a few members need to engage with a particular issue.

In an Agile environment, fostering a culture of collaboration and effective communication is key to success, especially when working with a diverse team. By creating a shared vision, the project manager aligns the team towards common goals, which helps reduce misunderstandings. Using techniques to increase empathy and positive interaction ensures that team members understand and respect each other's different perspectives. This approach promotes a collaborative environment where diverse ideas can be valued and conflicts can be addressed constructively.

Velocity is a measure of how much work a team completes in a given sprint, typically measured in story points or other units of effort. While velocity can be useful for tracking progress and forecasting future work, it has some limitations when it comes to accurate capacity planning.

Velocity can vary from sprint to sprint due to multiple factors, such as the complexity of the tasks, interruptions, or even external influences. This variability can make it difficult to predict how much work a team can handle in future sprints, leading to inaccurate capacity planning.

Agile promotescross-functional teamsandreducing bottlenecksthrough knowledge sharing and skill development. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Cross-functional Teams)recommends that team members developT-shaped skillsto handle more types of work. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)advocates forskill broadeningto improve team throughput and resilience.

Option Ais correct: cross-training removes dependencies and improves flow.

Option Bdelays action and prolongs the issue.

Option Creduces delivery capacity rather than addressing the root cause.

Option Darbitrarily limits scope and doesn’t resolve the underlying skill gap.

In Scrum, responsibilities are distributed among the product owner, scrum master, and development team to ensure clear accountability and efficient value delivery.

The product owner manages the product backlog, ensures alignment with business goals, and defines the priorities for the team.

The scrum master facilitates the Scrum process, removes impediments, and ensures adherence to Agile principles.

The development team owns the sprint backlog and is responsible for incremental delivery toward the sprint goal.

This division of responsibilities ensures that each role focuses on their core areas, fostering transparency, collaboration, and value-driven development.

The best approach for the agile coach would be to address the root cause of the concern immediately and help the team reflect on their current processes to identify ways to improve. This can be achieved by engaging the team in a discussion that focuses on understanding the issues related to the technical design and the definition of done (DoD).

This will allow the team to openly discuss and identify specific areas of the technical designs that do not meet the DoD. By understanding the underlying issues, the coach can help the team find solutions and ensure that future work aligns with the agreed-upon quality standards and expectations.

In agile, especially under conditions ofuncertainty or anticipated changes, teams should focus oncollaborative product development, includingongoing backlog refinement and continuous product reviews. This approach is endorsed by thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Refinement)andSection 7.2 (Engaging Stakeholders), which emphasizefrequent interaction with the product owneranditerative feedback loopsto adapt quickly.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)supports the practice ofrefining the backlog regularlyand conductingfrequent reviewsto stay aligned with stakeholder expectations.

Option Bis correct: continuous collaboration with the product owner supports flexible, value-driven delivery.

Option Ais only a partial measure.

Option Cpromotes a waterfall mindset.

Option Dignores the nature of changing requirements.

Agile promotestransparency through information radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards. These tools are designed to make real-time progress visible to all stakeholders. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1: Communications)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders should be directed to thesereal-time, transparent sources of truth.

Option Bis correct: using an information radiator promotes transparency and reduces dependency on individuals.

Option Ais inappropriate—standups are for the team.

Option CandDare manual approaches that reduce transparency and don't scale.

To kick off the project, especially when the idea is not yet clear, the agile lead should focus on understanding the needs and challenges of the end users—HR in this case. By applying the empathy map technique, the team can gather insights into the users' experiences, needs, and pain points. This helps in building a more focused and user-centered approach to solving the problem, which is the foundation for developing a product backlog. Engaging stakeholders early and understanding the problem space will clarify the project direction and lay the groundwork for creating meaningful user stories.

The correct answer is A – Facilitate team agreement on the definition of done (DoD) during the chartering process.

The “Definition of Done” is a shared understanding among the team of what it means for work to be considered complete. Disputes over whether a deliverable is done usually arise due to the lack of a clearly defined and agreed-upon DoD.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should define and agree on the Definition of Done (DoD) early. This shared understanding reduces ambiguity and misalignment over when a task is complete.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The Definition of Done provides clarity, especially in multi-functional teams. It avoids misunderstandings and disputes about work completeness.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

B refers to a team formation stage but doesn’t address the root cause of conflict.

C and D help improve backlog clarity but don’t resolve issues around completion criteria.

Answer: A

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As the project team scales and expands to build a business-critical platform, having a work collaboration platform is the most effective way to ensure that the team can work toward a common goal and communicate efficiently. Such a platform centralizes communication, document sharing, task tracking, and collaboration, which is essential for maintaining alignment, especially as the complexity of the project increases. Tools like Slack, Microsoft Teams, or similar platforms allow for seamless communication and collaboration, even across distributed teams, making it easier to manage and track progress, share knowledge, and keep everyone on the same page.

The correct answer is C – Asked to be relieved of project tasks to maintain team velocity.

Agile promotes transparency and accountability within teams. When a team member becomes unavailable due to competing priorities, it is their responsibility to inform the team so that work can be reallocated appropriately. This maintains the integrity of sprint commitments and avoids unplanned impacts on velocity.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team members are expected to proactively communicate capacity issues. Agile teams thrive when individuals are transparent about availability and workload, allowing adjustments to commitments.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Team Behavior)

Mike Griffiths states:

“If someone’s availability changes, they must make that clear to the team. Holding on to tasks without capacity leads to velocity distortion and delivery issues.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

A attempts to do both initiatives, which may result in burnout or failed delivery.

B focuses effort away from the agile team’s responsibilities.

D is unrealistic in cross-functional organizations where members may support multiple initiatives.

Answer: C

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When issuesrecur across multiple iterations, it’s a strong indication that theroot cause has not been addressed. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)recommend performingroot cause analysistechniques (e.g., 5 Whys, Fishbone diagram) to ensure that the true source of recurring problems is uncovered and resolved.

Option Bis correct: identifying root causes is essential to sustainable improvements.

Option Amay help but doesn’t address the underlying team-level process.

Option Cis usefulaftera solution is implemented but not the priority when the cause is unknown.

Option Dis helpful for tracking, but again, ineffective if the root cause is unidentified.

The correct answer is B – Recommend an Agile delivery approach and provide information to the stakeholders on Agile values and principles.

Agile enables early and continuous delivery of valuable software, short feedback loops, and faster time to market. When competitive advantage and speed are critical, introducing Agile principles allows the organization to remain flexible, respond to change, and deliver increments faster.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide quicker feedback, faster time to market, and more opportunity to deliver business value early. They are ideal in dynamic environments with evolving customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 1.3 – When to Use Agile)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile emphasizes early and continuous delivery, allowing organizations to test, learn, and adjust quickly to changes—critical for achieving business agility and competitive advantage.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 1 – Agile Mindset)

Why other options are not optimal:

A suggests a predictive mindset and planning before implementation.

C focuses only on Scrum roles, which may be too narrow for organizational-level change.

D relies on traditional governance structures that may resist Agile change.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A — Stakeholders should have regularly been engaged to obtain feedback and reduce the functionality risk.

In Agile, stakeholder engagement and iterative feedback loops ensure that the solution being built is aligned with business value. Simply meeting documented requirements is insufficient. Agile practices such as demos and user feedback sessions minimize the risk of building features that fail to deliver value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile emphasizes ongoing stakeholder engagement. Demonstrating working software at the end of each iteration and gathering feedback ensures that the product is delivering business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Value-driven delivery is achieved not just by delivering what was asked for, but by ensuring it actually meets customer needs. Regular feedback from stakeholders is critical to avoid building low-value features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to the lean principle of “decide as late as possible,” but feedback, not delay, would have addressed the issue.

C is unrelated to this context.

D lacks the collaborative engagement approach emphasized in Agile.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Meet with the team to discuss the issue and identify specific actions to reduce or eliminate the issue. Agile coaches facilitate team self-management, guide reflection, and encourage the team to solve performance issues collaboratively. Open discussion fosters ownership and accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches guide teams through self-reflection and help them identify root causes of issues. Coaches support team-driven resolutions to behavioral and performance problems.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Agile Coaching and Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Effective agile leadership involves enabling the team to identify and resolve their own challenges. Top-down directives may harm morale and self-organization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance and Coaching)

Incorrect options:

A and B bring in external control, undermining team autonomy.

D is punitive and contradicts agile principles of empowerment and trust.

Answer: C

The correct answer is A – Educate the QA manager that in agile, quality is integrated from the beginning to the end of the project. Agile emphasizes “built-in” quality through test-first approaches, continuous integration, and Definition of Done. Addressing resistance through education helps clarify that quality is a core part of Agile—not an afterthought.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile does not remove quality controls; rather, it integrates them throughout the development process. Quality is everyone’s responsibility and is embedded through practices such as TDD, automated testing, and continuous feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Quality and Agile)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“In Agile, quality is not sacrificed. It is a fundamental principle. Teams ensure quality by defining acceptance criteria, using continuous integration, and practicing test-first development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B may be helpful tactically, but doesn’t address the underlying concern.

C misrepresents technical debt.

D places too much QA responsibility on the product owner.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – Meet with project stakeholders to review the backlog and determine if the scope should be adjusted. Agile emphasizes continuous stakeholder collaboration and delivering maximum value. If the remaining backlog may not contribute significant value, it’s prudent for the Product Owner to reassess scope and validate changes with stakeholders.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engage stakeholders continuously to review priorities and business value. If the product delivers sufficient value earlier than anticipated, the scope may be reduced or the project closed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Early delivery of value allows teams to stop work that no longer serves business objectives. This requires transparent communication with stakeholders to validate scope adjustments.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A assumes authority without consulting stakeholders.

B doesn’t address the possible need for scope reduction.

C skips stakeholder validation before deployment decisions.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Use the DISC framework with each team member.

The DISC model (Dominance, Influence, Steadiness, and Conscientiousness) is a well-established behavioral assessment tool used to understand communication preferences, motivators, and individual work styles. Agile leaders may use tools like DISC to foster emotional intelligence, improve collaboration, and re-engage disengaged team members.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective agile leaders understand individual team members' communication styles and motivations. Tools such as DISC or MBTI can help assess personality preferences and enable better coaching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Behavioral models such as DISC support the development of emotionally intelligent teams. They help leaders tailor their coaching and communication approaches to individual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

B (MoSCoW) is a prioritization technique, not a tool for personal engagement.

C (Hiring a SAFe coach) is overkill and not the most direct or relevant response.

D (BDUF – Big Design Up Front) is a traditional approach unrelated to team dynamics or motivation.

Answer: A