ITIL-4-Practitioner-Deployment-Management ITIL 4 Practitioner: Deployment Management Exam Question and Answers

Continuous deployment (CD) in ITIL 4 is the most advanced stage of the CI/CD pipeline, where every validated change is automatically deployed to production without manual intervention. The key feature unique to continuous deployment, not found in continuous integration or continuous delivery, is that it enables users to benefit immediately from changes (Option B), as changes reach production instantly after passing automated tests.

Option A (It automatically tests software code):Incorrect, as automated testing is a feature of continuous integration and continuous delivery, not unique to continuous deployment.

Option B (It enables users to benefit immediately from changes):Correct, as continuous deployment automatically pushes validated changes to production, delivering value to users without delay, unlike other CI/CD stages.

Option C (It predominantly uses staging environments):Incorrect, as continuous deployment minimizes reliance on staging environments, deploying directly to production.

Option D (It allows individual decisions about software releases):Incorrect, as continuous deployment eliminates manual release decisions, relying on automation for consistency.

Suppliers play a key role in supporting deployment management by providing expertise, tools, and services that align with organizational needs. Option A is correct, as suppliers often advise on selecting tools that integrate with the organization’s value streams, ensuring consistency and scalability in deployment practices.

Option A (Advise on the selection of tools that can be used across the organization’s value streams):Correct, as suppliers have industry knowledge and can recommend tools (e.g., CI/CD platforms) that enhance deployment efficiency across multiple value streams, aligning with ITIL 4’s focus on value-driven tool selection.

Option B (Define the practice success factors for deployment management):Incorrect, as defining success factors is an internal responsibility of the organization, based on its goals and context, not a supplier’s role.

Option C (Create deployment models based on those of other organizations):Incorrect, as deployment models should be tailored to the organization’s unique needs, not copied from others, per ITIL 4’s context-specific approach.

Option D (Develop value streams for the organization utilizing deployment management where appropriate):Incorrect, as developing value streams is an internal strategic activity, while suppliers typically provide support through tools or expertise, not by designing value streams.

ITIL 4 defines capability level 3 for a practice as achieving integration across the organization, where the practice is embedded into broader workflows and understood by related practices. For deployment management, an indication of reaching capability level 3 is when employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows (Option B). This demonstrates cross-functional alignment and maturity, showing that deployment management is not siloed but part of the organization’s value streams.

Option A (The deployment management team regularly suggests and implements improvement opportunities):Incorrect, as continual improvement is characteristic of higher capability levels (e.g., level 4), not the defining feature of level 3.

Option B (Employees from other practices understand how deployment activities are integrated into relevant workflows):Correct, as level 3 focuses on integration and collaboration across practices, per ITIL 4’s capability framework.

Option C (The deployment manager is able to report on the effectiveness of the deployment management practice):Incorrect, as reporting effectiveness is a general management task, not specific to level 3 maturity.

Option D (Deployment models are developed and implemented):Incorrect, as model development occurs at lower capability levels (e.g., level 1 or 2), not a hallmark of level 3.