R, a self-employed stockbroker, becomes totally disabled on January 1 and receives $1,500 a month for the next twelve months from her own Individual Disability Income policy, for which she had paid the premium. How much of this income is subject to federal income tax?
$18,000
$12,800
$9,000
$0
The correct answer is D, $0. Disability income benefits generally are not taxable to the insured when the insured personally paid the premiums with after-tax dollars. R paid the premium for her own individual disability income policy, so the $1,500 monthly benefit is excluded from federal taxable income. The total annual benefit is $18,000, but the fact that it totals $18,000 does not make it taxable. Tax treatment changes when an employer pays the premium and does not include that premium amount in the employee’s taxable income; in that case, disability benefits are generally taxable. Similarly, benefits can be taxable when premiums were paid through certain pre-tax arrangements. The central exam rule is: personally paid, after-tax disability premiums normally produce income-tax-free disability benefits. The Internal Revenue Service confirms that benefits from an accident or health policy are not taxable when the taxpayer paid the premiums. See IRS Publication 525 . Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Disability Income Insurance; Tax Treatment of Disability Benefits.
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In a variable annuity, who bears the investment risk associated with the separate-account investment performance?
The insurer
The producer
The contract owner
The beneficiary
In a variable annuity, the contract owner bears the investment risk because contract values are tied to the performance of selected investment options held in a separate account. If those investments perform well, the accumulation value may increase. If they decline, the account value may decrease. The insurer does not guarantee a fixed return on the separate-account portion of the contract, although the contract may include certain insurance guarantees, such as a death-benefit feature or optional living benefits.
This is the central distinction between fixed and variable annuities. A fixed annuity generally credits interest at a guaranteed minimum rate and may declare additional interest under the contract terms. The insurer bears the investment risk for its general account. A variable annuity offers market-based investment choices and transfers market risk to the owner. Because variable annuity values are securities-linked, the producer must also satisfy applicable securities-registration and licensing requirements in addition to life insurance authority.
The suitability analysis is important. Variable annuities may be appropriate for a consumer seeking long-term growth potential who understands market volatility and has an appropriate time horizon. They are not automatically appropriate for a person who requires principal stability, liquidity, or predictable fixed returns.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Fixed Annuities; Variable Annuities; Separate Accounts; General Accounts; Investment Risk; Suitability.
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A consumer wishes to purchase an insurance policy that covers pre-existing illnesses. The consumer contacted the producer who informed the consumer:
there are no plans that cover pre-existing conditions
there are some health insurance plans that cover pre-existing conditions with a surcharge
there are no out-of-pocket fees for persons with pre-existing conditions
the consumer ' s pre-existing condition will not stop the consumer from enrolling in a Qualified Health Plan (QHP) on the Exchange
A consumer’s pre-existing condition does not prevent enrollment in a Qualified Health Plan offered through the Exchange. Marketplace plans must cover treatment for pre-existing medical conditions and cannot reject an applicant, charge a higher premium, or refuse to pay Essential Health Benefits solely because of the applicant’s health history.
The producer should accurately explain that coverage is subject to the plan’s normal terms, provider network, formulary, deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximum. The prohibition against pre-existing-condition discrimination does not mean the consumer has no out-of-pocket costs. The insured may still have ordinary cost sharing for covered medical services, just as other enrollees do.
Option A is incorrect because Qualified Health Plans do cover pre-existing conditions. Option B is incorrect because a QHP may not impose a surcharge based on health status or medical history. Option C is incorrect because the Affordable Care Act’s protection against discrimination does not eliminate all deductibles, copayments, coinsurance, or other permitted cost sharing.
For exam purposes, remember the core rule: health status cannot be used to deny enrollment in a QHP or set a higher premium based solely on a pre-existing condition.
Study Guide references/topics: Affordable Care Act; Qualified Health Plans; guaranteed issue; pre-existing conditions; HealthCare.gov pre-existing-condition coverage .
J and K are married and have several children. J is the primary beneficiary on K ' s Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD & D) policy, and K ' s sibling, L, is the contingent beneficiary. J, K, and L are involved in a train accident, and K and L are killed instantly. The Accidental Death benefits will be paid to:
L ' s estate
K ' s estate
J and K ' s estate
J only
The correct answer is D, J only. A primary beneficiary has the first right to receive policy proceeds. J is named as K’s primary beneficiary and survives the accident. Therefore, the AD & D benefit is paid directly to J. The contingent beneficiary, L, would receive the proceeds only if the primary beneficiary had died before K or could not receive the benefit under the policy terms. Because J remains alive, L’s death does not change the payment outcome. The proceeds do not pass to K’s estate because a living named primary beneficiary exists. They also do not pass to L’s estate, because L never became entitled to the benefit; the contingency never occurred. Beneficiary designations control over general assumptions about family relationships or estates. The insured should keep beneficiary designations current after changes in family status, death, divorce, or estate-planning decisions. A simultaneous-death provision can alter outcomes if the beneficiary and insured die in the same event and survivorship cannot be determined, but the facts here identify K and L as deceased while J survives. Study Guide References/Topics: Group Health Insurance; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Beneficiary Designations.
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Group health policies MUST provide which of the following benefits?
Adult vision care
Adult dental care
Hospice care
Cosmetic surgery
Nevada requires group health insurance policies to include benefits for expenses arising from hospice care. Hospice care is designed for individuals facing terminal illness and focuses on comfort, pain and symptom management, emotional support, and assistance for the patient and family rather than curative treatment.
The group-policy required-provisions statute specifically includes hospice-care benefits. It also recognizes benefits for care at home or health supportive services when prescribed by a physician and otherwise covered if provided in a medical facility. This reflects the policy goal of allowing appropriate end-of-life care in a setting suited to the patient’s needs.
Adult vision care and adult dental care are not universally required benefits under every group health policy. They may be offered through separate policies, riders, employer benefit arrangements, or plan designs. Cosmetic surgery is generally not a mandatory health insurance benefit and may be excluded unless medically necessary or required because of injury, congenital condition, reconstruction, or another covered circumstance.
The key examination point is that hospice care is a specifically required group-policy benefit in Nevada, while the other choices may be optional, limited, or excluded depending on the plan.
Study Guide references/topics: group health required provisions; hospice care; mandated benefits; NRS 689B.030 .
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the Medicaid program?
It provides medical assistance for participants who are blind.
Participants must be at least 55 years of age.
It is supplemented by Medicare for persons 62 years of age or older.
The program is administered at the federal level.
Medicaid is a means-tested public medical assistance program for eligible low-income individuals and families. Eligibility may include persons who are blind, disabled, aged, pregnant, children, or otherwise within an eligible category under federal and state rules. Therefore, choice A is correct. There is no universal minimum age of 55 for Medicaid eligibility; eligibility is based principally on financial and categorical requirements. Medicaid is also not simply a program supplemented by Medicare at age 62. Medicare eligibility is generally associated with age 65 or qualifying disability or disease status, while Medicaid may assist certain eligible persons with limited income and resources, including some Medicare beneficiaries. Medicaid is jointly financed by federal and state governments but is administered by the states within federal standards. In Nevada, the state administers the program through its designated health and human-services structure. Examination questions commonly test the distinction between Medicare as social insurance and Medicaid as needs-based medical assistance. Study Guide References/Topics: Social Insurance Programs; Medicaid; Federal-State Health Programs.
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A Nevada producer wants to solicit an individual disability-income policy. Which license authority is required?
Property insurance authority
Casualty insurance authority
Accident and health insurance authority
Personal lines authority
A producer soliciting an individual disability-income policy must hold Nevada accident and health insurance authority. Nevada defines this line as insurance for sickness, bodily injury, or accidental death and permits it to include disability-income benefits. Disability-income insurance replaces a portion of earned income when an insured becomes disabled under the policy definition; it is therefore within the accident-and-health line rather than the property, casualty, or personal-lines authorities.
Nevada requires a person to be licensed for the relevant class of insurance before selling, soliciting, or negotiating insurance in the state. The licensing distinction matters because a life authority and an accident-and-health authority are separately identified lines of authority. Although life insurance may include additional disability-income benefits when permitted as part of its statutory definition, a producer selling an individual health or disability-income policy should not assume that life authority alone authorizes the transaction.
The producer must also comply with appointment requirements when acting as an insurer’s agent, continuing education and renewal requirements, and all applicable trade-practice rules. Selling without the proper authority can result in administrative discipline and a monetary penalty. On examination questions, identify the coverage being sold first; then match it to the appropriate Nevada line of authority.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Producer Licensing; Lines of Authority; Accident and Health Insurance; Disability Income; NRS 683A.201; NRS 683A.261.
Group coverage for a handicapped dependent child may be continued if the primary insured submits the required proof to the insurance company within what MAXIMUM period of time after the child reaches the limiting age?
15 days
30 days
31 days
45 days
A group health policy that terminates dependent-child coverage at a stated limiting age must continue coverage for an eligible dependent child who remains incapable of self-sustaining employment because of a qualifying disability and who remains dependent on the insured group member for support and maintenance. To preserve that continuation right, the required proof must be furnished within 31 days after the child reaches the policy’s limiting age.
This is a time-sensitive protection. The purpose is to prevent automatic termination of coverage solely because a dependent reaches the normal age limit when the child remains disabled and financially dependent. After initial proof is provided, the insurer may require continuing proof of incapacity and dependency, but it may not demand that proof more often than permitted by law.
The 31-day rule should be distinguished from notice periods for newborn coverage, conversion rights, premium grace periods, and claim notices. Each insurance provision may use a different time period, so examination questions often test the exact statutory deadline.
Study Guide references/topics: group health dependents; limiting age; continuation of coverage; NRS 689B.035 .
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In a typical HMO arrangement, what is the primary role of the primary care provider?
To coordinate routine care and referrals under the plan’s rules
To sell insurance policies to other patients
To guarantee that all out-of-network care is covered
To determine the insurer’s investment return
In a typical health maintenance organization, the primary care provider acts as the central coordinator of the insured’s routine medical care. The primary care provider may deliver preventive and basic medical services, maintain the patient’s care plan, and refer the patient to specialists or other facilities when required by the HMO’s rules. This gatekeeper function is intended to coordinate care, reduce unnecessary duplication, and manage costs through the plan’s provider network.
The precise referral rules depend on the particular HMO. Some plans may allow direct access to certain specialists, such as obstetricians or behavioral-health providers, while others require prior referral or authorization. Emergency services are subject to separate protections and should not be described as ordinary out-of-network elective care. The producer must explain the network, referral, prior-authorization, and out-of-network rules before enrollment.
A PPO also has a preferred provider network but commonly allows members to use nonnetwork providers at a reduced benefit level and without the same referral structure. An indemnity plan may provide broader provider choice but may have different reimbursement limits and cost sharing. The test distinction is that an HMO commonly emphasizes coordinated, network-based care through a primary care provider.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Managed Care; HMO; Primary Care Provider; Gatekeeper Model; Provider Networks.
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Which of the following policies provides a specified income benefit when the insured person becomes unable to work because of illness or accident?
Emergency Income
Supplemental Income
Temporary Income
Disability Income
Disability Income insurance is designed to replace a portion of an insured’s earned income when illness or accidental injury prevents the insured from working. Choice D is correct. Unlike medical expense insurance, which pays for covered health-care costs, disability income coverage pays a stated periodic benefit—commonly monthly—to help the insured meet ordinary financial obligations during disability. Benefits are subject to the policy definition of disability, elimination period, benefit period, maximum monthly benefit, and any offsets or residual-disability provisions. “Emergency Income,†“Supplemental Income,†and “Temporary Income†are not standard policy classifications that describe the core income-replacement product tested here. Disability policies may be written on an own-occupation, modified-own-occupation, or any-occupation basis, and that definition materially affects when benefits are payable. Individual disability income is commonly purchased by self-employed persons, professionals, and others who want income protection beyond employer-sponsored benefits. Group disability plans often provide short-term and long-term benefits, while individual policies can offer more customized benefit levels, riders, and noncancellable or guaranteed-renewable features. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Disability Income Insurance; Income Replacement.
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Under a group health policy, which of the following coverages MUST be provided for newborn children?
Routine eye examinations
Congenital health defects
Transportation costs from the hospital to the child ' s residence
Genetic Testing
Nevada requires qualifying group health policies that cover family members to provide coverage for a newborn child from the moment of birth. Required newborn coverage includes injury or sickness and specifically includes the necessary care and treatment of medically diagnosed congenital defects and birth abnormalities. Therefore, congenital health defects are the required coverage identified in this question.
The rule is important because congenital defects may be present at birth and can require immediate diagnostic, surgical, medical, or hospital treatment. Nevada law prevents a policy from excluding this necessary care simply because the condition existed at birth. The statute also prohibits exclusion of premature births under the applicable coverage requirement.
The transportation option is incorrect because the law addresses necessary transportation from the place of birth to the nearest specialized treatment center, within policy limits; it does not mandate transportation from the hospital to the child’s residence. Routine eye examinations and genetic testing may be covered under a particular policy or health plan, but they are not the specific newborn mandate tested here. Continued coverage beyond the initial period may depend on timely notice and payment of required premium within 31 days.
Study Guide references/topics: group health insurance; newborn coverage; mandated benefits; NRS 689B.033 .
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A policy pays a stated dollar amount for each day an insured is confined to a hospital, regardless of the actual hospital bill. What type of coverage is this?
Hospital indemnity insurance
Major medical insurance
Comprehensive dental insurance
Disability buy-sell insurance
Hospital indemnity insurance pays a fixed benefit for a covered hospital confinement, often expressed as a stated dollar amount per day. The payment is not based on the actual amount of the hospital bill. The insured may use the benefit for deductibles, transportation, household expenses, lost income, or other needs, subject to the policy terms. Because it pays a predetermined amount rather than reimbursing actual expenses, hospital indemnity coverage is generally considered limited-benefit or supplemental coverage.
Major medical insurance operates differently. It is designed to cover a broad range of medical expenses, subject to deductibles, coinsurance, network provisions, and out-of-pocket maximums. Major medical coverage generally reimburses or pays eligible expenses rather than merely paying a fixed daily hospital amount. The existence of hospital indemnity coverage does not replace the need for comprehensive health insurance.
The producer must clearly explain the limitations of indemnity products. It would be misleading to present a $200-per-day hospital indemnity benefit as if it pays all hospital charges. Consumers should understand whether the policy is supplemental, what events trigger payment, whether preexisting-condition or waiting-period provisions apply, and whether benefits are payable in addition to other coverage.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Hospital Indemnity Insurance; Limited-Benefit Coverage; Supplemental Health Insurance; Major Medical; Fixed Indemnity Benefits.
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The Nevada Insurance Commissioner may revoke the license of any licensed producer who:
is found liable by final judgment in a civil case
fails to file an annual financial report with the Division of Insurance
fails to notify the Commissioner of a change of address within forty-eight hours
misappropriates monies belonging to policyholders
Misappropriating money belonging to policyholders is a direct and serious ground for license revocation. A producer commonly receives premiums, return premiums, claim funds, or other property in the course of insurance business. Those funds must be handled honestly, promptly, and in accordance with the producer’s fiduciary responsibilities. Using, converting, improperly withholding, or diverting that money violates Nevada producer-licensing law.
The Commissioner may refuse to issue, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a producer’s license and may impose administrative fines or other disciplinary action for specified misconduct. Misappropriation is specifically identified as conduct warranting discipline because it threatens consumers and undermines the integrity of the insurance marketplace.
A civil judgment alone does not automatically establish a licensing-revocation ground under the wording of this question. Likewise, reporting requirements and address-change obligations may lead to administrative consequences when violated, but the question asks for the clear statutory cause for revocation. Misappropriation of policyholder money is the most direct and legally significant answer.
Producers should maintain accurate premium records, promptly remit funds, segregate money when required, and never treat policyholder or insurer funds as personal assets.
Study Guide references/topics: producer fiduciary duties; prohibited practices; license denial, suspension, and revocation; NRS 683A.451 .
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A life policy has been in force during the insured’s lifetime for more than two years. Which circumstance may still permit the insurer to deny a claim under the policy’s incontestability provision?
An innocent misstatement on the original application
A material misrepresentation unrelated to the policy
A change in the insured’s occupation after issue
Nonpayment of premium
The incontestability provision limits the insurer’s ability to contest the validity of a life insurance policy after it has been in force during the insured’s lifetime for the stated period, which Nevada law permits to be no longer than two years from issue. Once that period has passed, an insurer ordinarily cannot avoid the policy because of misstatements in the application, except as provided by the policy and law. The rule promotes certainty for beneficiaries and prevents an insurer from indefinitely reopening underwriting issues after accepting premiums for years.
Nonpayment of premiums remains an exception. Incontestability does not require an insurer to pay a claim on a policy that lapsed because required premiums were not paid. A policy can also contain provisions concerning total and permanent disability benefits or additional accidental-death benefits that are treated separately under the applicable statutory rule. In addition, an incontestability clause concerns contesting the policy’s validity; it does not automatically override every policy exclusion or restriction on coverage.
The producer should distinguish contestability from the grace period, reinstatement, and exclusions. Each provision serves a different function. For test purposes, the durable rule is that incontestability does not eliminate the insurer’s defense of nonpayment of premium.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Incontestability Clause; Premium Payment; Policy Lapse; NRS 688A.080.
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The maximum cost share for preventive screening from an in-network provider is:
30%
20%
10%
0%
The maximum cost share for a covered preventive screening received from an in-network provider is 0%. In practical terms, the insured generally pays no deductible, copayment, or coinsurance for qualifying preventive services delivered in-network. This rule is intended to encourage early detection of illness and promote preventive care before conditions become more serious and costly.
Examples of qualifying preventive care can include certain screenings, immunizations, counseling, and wellness services. The precise covered service and frequency may depend on age, sex, medical circumstances, and the applicable preventive-service recommendations. The in-network condition is important because services received outside the plan’s network may be subject to different cost-sharing rules, except where other law or plan provisions apply.
The choices of 10%, 20%, and 30% reflect ordinary coinsurance levels that may apply to nonpreventive treatment or to services that do not qualify for first-dollar preventive coverage. They do not apply to an eligible preventive screening under the in-network preventive-care rule.
Always distinguish preventive screening from diagnostic care. A screening is generally performed when no symptom or suspected condition is being evaluated; a diagnostic service may generate cost sharing depending on the circumstances and plan terms.
Study Guide references/topics: preventive services; in-network providers; deductibles; copayments; coinsurance; HealthCare.gov preventive-care guidance .
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Which of the following organizations is the BEST example of a mutual insurance company?
An incorporated insurance company that has its capital divided into shares and is owned by stockholders
An incorporated insurance company that has no capital stock and has a governing body that is elected by its policyholders
An unincorporated aggregation of subscribers who operate individually
An unincorporated insurance company that operates through an attorney-in-fact common to all persons
A mutual insurance company is an incorporated insurer without capital stock that is owned by its policyholders. Its governing body is elected by policyholders rather than by outside shareholders. Therefore, option B is the best description of a mutual insurer.
A stock insurer, described in option A, has capital divided into shares and is owned by stockholders. Stockholders elect the board of directors and may receive dividends based on corporate profitability. Policyholders of a stock insurer are customers, not owners, unless they separately own stock in the company.
Options C and D describe characteristics associated with a reciprocal insurer or interinsurance exchange. A reciprocal is an unincorporated aggregation of subscribers who insure one another through an attorney-in-fact. Subscribers are both insureds and insurers of one another in that arrangement.
The mutual-company structure matters because policyholders may participate in governance and may receive policyholder dividends when declared. Those dividends are not guaranteed and are different from investment dividends paid to stockholders of a stock insurer.
Study Guide references/topics: insurer ownership; mutual insurers; stock insurers; reciprocal insurers; Nevada domestic insurer law .
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Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), for a woman 40 years or older, mammograms are:
not covered under the rules of ACA because mammograms are not considered preventative health care
covered under preventative services annually at no cost
not covered if a family member has been formally diagnosed with breast cancer
covered under only health plans that offer mammogram coverage
For insured women age 40 or older, Nevada requires group health insurance coverage for an annual mammogram to screen for breast cancer. The required benefit must be available through an in-network provider, and the insurer generally may not impose a deductible, copayment, coinsurance, or another form of cost sharing for that mandated screening.
Mammography is preventive screening. It is intended to detect breast cancer early, often before symptoms appear. This differs from diagnostic imaging, which may be ordered after an abnormal screening result, a finding on examination, or another clinical concern. Nevada law also addresses medically necessary imaging and diagnostic testing when the insured’s provider recommends them based on medical history, family history, risk factors, or an observed abnormality.
A family history of breast cancer does not eliminate coverage; instead, it may support the need for additional screening or imaging. The benefit is not restricted only to plans that voluntarily choose to offer mammography. It is a required coverage provision for applicable group health policies.
Study Guide references/topics: preventive care; breast-cancer screening; mandated benefits; deductibles and coinsurance; NRS 689B.0374 .
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Under Nevada law, the definition of " insurer " includes:
a security dealer
an indemnitor
a financial planner
a syndicate
Nevada law defines an insurer to include every person engaged as principal and as an indemnitor, surety, or contractor in the business of entering into insurance contracts. Therefore, an indemnitor is specifically included in the statutory definition of insurer.
An indemnitor is a party that agrees to compensate another for specified loss or damage. That obligation is central to insurance: the insurer assumes a defined risk and promises to provide a benefit, payment, service, or indemnity when a covered loss occurs. A surety and a contractor entering insurance agreements can likewise fall within the statutory definition when operating in the insurance business.
A security dealer sells or handles securities and is regulated under securities law rather than by the insurance definition in this question. A financial planner may provide financial advice but is not automatically an insurer. A syndicate may participate in insurance arrangements in certain contexts, but it is not the statutory term specifically identified in the definition.
The exam point is to recognize the broad legal definition of insurer. It encompasses more than a company labeled “insurance companyâ€; it includes persons acting as indemnitors, sureties, or insurance contractors.
Study Guide references/topics: Nevada Insurance Code; definitions; insurer; indemnity; surety; NRS 679A.100 .
Which of the following is NOT a preventive benefit for adults?
Skin cancer screening
High blood pressure screening
Physical therapy
Mammograms
Skin cancer screening is the correct answer because it is not included as a broadly required preventive benefit for adults in the same manner as the other listed services. Preventive-service requirements are tied to specified recommended services and may vary by population, risk status, and recommendation level. A service may be medically useful or covered by a particular policy without being a universally required no-cost preventive benefit.
High blood pressure screening is a standard adult preventive screening. Mammography is a recognized preventive screening benefit for eligible women. Physical therapy can be included in preventive fall-intervention services for certain adults, particularly older adults at risk of falls, when the preventive-service criteria are met. Thus, the question is testing the distinction between services commonly covered in some circumstances and services specifically identified as preventive benefits.
Skin examinations or skin cancer evaluations may be medically necessary when a lesion, symptom, prior diagnosis, or risk factor is present. In that circumstance, the service may be classified as diagnostic rather than preventive and can be subject to policy terms and cost sharing.
For examination purposes, remember that preventive-benefit questions focus on the mandated screening list and preventive-care criteria, not merely on whether a service can be medically valuable.
Study Guide references/topics: preventive care; adult screenings; in-network preventive benefits; adult preventive-care benefits .
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An insurance company MUST take which of the following actions to terminate a producer ' s appointment?
Send notice of the termination to the Insurance Commissioner
Request that the Division of Insurance cancel the producer ' s license
Notify the producer of the termination at least thirty days before the effective date of termination
Request a hearing before the Insurance Commissioner
When an insurer terminates the appointment, employment, or other relationship of a producer, it must notify the Nevada Insurance Commissioner. The notice must be made in the form prescribed by the Commissioner within 30 days after the effective date of termination.
An appointment is the insurer’s authorization for a licensed producer to act as its agent. Ending an appointment does not automatically cancel the producer’s underlying license. A producer may remain properly licensed and may be appointed by another insurer or operate as a broker when permitted by law. Therefore, option B is incorrect.
The insurer must provide the required notice to the Commissioner; it is not required to obtain a hearing before ending the appointment. The producer is sent a copy of the insurer’s notification after the Commissioner is notified, but the statute does not require the insurer to provide 30 days’ advance notice to the producer. The producer has an opportunity to file written comments concerning the report with the Commissioner.
The reporting rule supports regulatory oversight and helps the Division identify whether a termination involved conduct that may warrant disciplinary action.
Study Guide references/topics: producer appointments; appointment termination; insurer reporting duties; NRS 683A.331 .
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An applicant submits the first premium with a life insurance application and receives a conditional receipt. When does coverage generally become effective?
Immediately, regardless of the applicant’s insurability
Only when the producer promises that coverage exists
When the conditions in the receipt are met, including required insurability
Only after the policy has been in force for two years
A conditional receipt may provide temporary coverage from the application date or medical-examination date, but only if the conditions stated in the receipt are satisfied. A common condition is that the insurer, applying its normal underwriting standards, would have issued the policy to the applicant as applied for or at the requested rating. The receipt does not guarantee coverage for every applicant merely because the first premium was submitted.
The exact effect of a conditional receipt depends on its language. Some receipts use an “approval†approach, under which coverage begins only when the insurer approves the application. Others use an “insurability†approach, under which coverage may relate back to an earlier date if the applicant was insurable under the insurer’s standards. A producer must not describe a conditional receipt as an unconditional binder or promise that the policy has been issued.
The producer should collect and transmit premium funds according to insurer instructions, deliver the receipt, explain its limited nature, and avoid making coverage representations outside the receipt’s terms. If the insurer declines the application, the premium is ordinarily returned according to the applicable procedure. Proper explanation is especially important because applicants may assume that payment alone creates permanent insurance.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Conditional Receipt; Premium with Application; Temporary Insurance; Underwriting Approval; Policy Delivery.
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For a group health plan subject to the federal waiting-period rule, the waiting period for otherwise eligible employees generally may not exceed:
30 calendar days
60 calendar days
90 calendar days
180 calendar days
A health plan’s waiting period generally may not exceed 90 calendar days for an individual who is otherwise eligible to enroll. A waiting period is the period that must pass before coverage becomes effective for an employee or dependent who has met the plan’s substantive eligibility conditions. The rule is intended to limit extended gaps in employer-sponsored health coverage for eligible individuals.
The 90-day limitation does not mean that every new employee must receive coverage immediately on the first day of work. An employer may use reasonable eligibility requirements, such as a bona fide job classification or an hours-of-service requirement, as long as the arrangement is structured and administered in compliance with applicable federal rules. The producer should not treat every orientation period or administrative condition as automatically permissible; plan documents and current legal guidance matter.
This issue is distinct from preexisting-condition exclusions. Modern health-insurance rules significantly restrict the use of preexisting-condition exclusions in major medical coverage. It is also distinct from an elimination period in disability insurance, which is a waiting period after a disability begins rather than a waiting period for plan eligibility.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Group Health Eligibility; Waiting Periods; Employer-Sponsored Coverage; Federal Health-Insurance Requirements; Nevada Group Health Rules.
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The Misstatement of Age provision in an Accident and Health policy allows an insurance company to take which of the following actions if an insured has understated the insured ' s age on the policy application?
Increase the premium
Adjust the benefits
Lapse the coverage
Cancel the policy
A Misstatement of Age provision corrects the benefit amount when the insured’s age was inaccurately stated at application. If the insured understated age, the premium paid was lower than the premium that should have been paid for the correct age. Rather than canceling coverage or retroactively demanding a different premium, the insurer adjusts the benefit to the amount the premium actually paid would have purchased at the correct age. Choice B is therefore correct. This approach preserves the policy while placing both parties in the financial position contemplated by the policy’s age-based premium schedule. The provision does not automatically increase premiums, lapse coverage, or permit cancellation merely because the age was misstated. It is a standard uniform individual accident and health policy provision intended to resolve an administrative error fairly and predictably. The same principle applies in the opposite direction: if age was overstated and excess premium was paid, benefits may be adjusted upward to the amount the paid premium would have purchased at the actual age. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Uniform Individual Accident and Health Policy Provisions; Misstatement of Age.
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Life insurance death proceeds paid to a named beneficiary are generally:
Subject to ordinary federal income tax in every case
Received free of federal income tax, subject to exceptions and special circumstances
Taxed as capital gains
Treated as a deductible premium refund
Life insurance death proceeds paid to a named beneficiary are generally excluded from the beneficiary’s gross income for federal income-tax purposes. This favorable treatment is one reason life insurance is widely used for family income protection, estate liquidity, business continuation, and debt protection. However, the producer should use the word “generally†because exceptions and special circumstances can affect taxation.
For example, interest paid by the insurer because it retains proceeds under an interest option is generally taxable as interest income. Transfers of a policy for valuable consideration can create a transfer-for-value issue. Business-owned life insurance can involve additional notice, consent, and tax rules. Estate-tax treatment is also separate from income-tax treatment; incidents of ownership or other estate-planning facts may cause proceeds to be included in the insured’s taxable estate even though the beneficiary does not owe income tax on the benefit.
Premiums paid for personally owned life insurance are generally not deductible. The producer should not provide individualized tax or legal advice. The proper explanation is that life insurance provides a generally income-tax-favored death benefit, while policy ownership, beneficiary designation, business arrangements, and estate planning should be reviewed with qualified advisers.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Life Insurance Taxation; Death Proceeds; Transfer-for-Value Rule; Estate Tax Concepts; Business-Owned Life Insurance.
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Basic cancer plans pay for all of the following EXCEPT:
immunotherapy
chemotherapy
physical therapy
radiotherapy
Basic cancer policies are limited-benefit plans intended to supplement, rather than replace, comprehensive medical coverage. They commonly provide benefits for cancer-specific treatment such as chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and immunotherapy, subject to the policy’s definitions, schedules, and limits. Therefore, choice C is correct because physical therapy is not ordinarily a core cancer-treatment benefit under a basic cancer policy. Physical therapy may be covered under a comprehensive medical plan or under a more expansive supplemental policy if expressly included, but it is not a standard basic cancer-plan benefit. Cancer policies can pay specified amounts for surgery, hospital confinement, physician services, diagnostic testing, drugs, radiation, chemotherapy, or other treatment tied directly to a covered cancer diagnosis. The insured should not assume that every medical expense arising during cancer treatment is covered. Benefits may be subject to waiting periods, preexisting-condition restrictions, recurrence rules, benefit schedules, and exclusions. The appropriate exam distinction is between benefits directly associated with treatment of cancer and general rehabilitative or medical services that are not expressly included in the cancer policy. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Limited-Coverage Health Policies; Cancer Insurance.
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In order to be covered under the Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association, an insurance company MUST be:
rated by AM Best
admitted
a fraternal benefit society
alien
An insurer must be admitted in Nevada—meaning authorized to transact the applicable insurance business in the state—to be a member of the Nevada Life and Health Insurance Guaranty Association. Membership is a condition of authority for insurers and health maintenance organizations writing the kinds of coverage protected by the Guaranty Association Act.
The Association provides limited protection when a member insurer becomes impaired or insolvent and cannot meet covered contractual obligations. It is not a general guarantee of every insurance company or every policy. Coverage is governed by statute, subject to eligibility requirements, benefit limits, exclusions, and residency provisions.
An AM Best rating is an independent financial-strength opinion. It may be useful to consumers and producers evaluating an insurer, but it does not determine membership in the Guaranty Association. A fraternal benefit society is specifically excluded from the definition of a member insurer for this purpose. “Alien†refers to an insurer organized under the laws of another country and does not, by itself, establish Association membership; the key consideration is whether the insurer is authorized to transact covered insurance in Nevada.
Study Guide references/topics: admitted versus nonadmitted insurers; guaranty associations; insurer insolvency; NRS Chapter 686C .
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Under federal law, a tax exempt Health Savings Account can only be opened for an individual who is:
covered by a qualified High Deductible Health Plan
covered by Long Term Care Insurance
entitled to Medicare benefits
eligible to be claimed as a dependent on another person ' s tax return
A Health Savings Account is available only to an eligible individual, and a central eligibility requirement is coverage under a qualified High Deductible Health Plan. Therefore, choice A is correct. The individual also generally must not have disqualifying other health coverage, be enrolled in Medicare, or be claimable as another person’s tax dependent. Long-term care insurance does not itself establish HSA eligibility. Medicare enrollment generally prevents new HSA contributions, although the account balance may still be used for qualified expenses under applicable tax rules. An HSA offers tax-favored contributions, tax-deferred growth, and tax-free distributions for qualified medical expenses when statutory requirements are met. The HDHP must satisfy annual federal deductible and out-of-pocket limits, which are adjusted periodically. The IRS states that eligible individuals must have HDHP coverage and no disqualifying health coverage to make HSA contributions. See IRS HSA guidance . Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Health Savings Accounts; High Deductible Health Plans.
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Under an individual health policy issued in Nevada, a newborn is automatically covered for a MAXIMUM of how many days after birth?
Two
Five
Ten
Thirty-one
A newborn is automatically covered under the applicable Nevada health-policy rule for 31 days after birth. Coverage begins from the moment of birth and includes necessary care and treatment for injury or sickness, including medically diagnosed congenital defects and birth abnormalities.
To continue coverage beyond the initial 31-day period, the policy may require timely notice of the birth and payment of any additional premium or fee required by the insurer. The notification and payment requirement must be satisfied within the 31-day period if the policy requires it. This rule protects newborns during the immediate post-birth period, when medical care may be urgently necessary.
The automatic coverage is not limited to routine newborn care. It includes necessary treatment of medical conditions identified at birth, subject to the policy’s applicable limits. The law also prevents the policy from excluding premature births under the mandated newborn coverage.
Two, five, and ten days are incorrect because they would not provide the statutory protection required for newborn coverage. The exam point is that the initial automatic period is 31 days, while continuation beyond that period may require prompt enrollment action by the insured.
Study Guide references/topics: individual health insurance; newborn coverage; congenital defects; notification requirements; Nevada newborn-coverage requirements .
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Which of the following is true regarding Medicare Advantage Plans?
For many enrollee ' s deductible or coinsurance payments are reduced or eliminated
Vision and dental coverage is mandated.
Prescription drug coverage mandates generics only
The enrollee may opt out of a preventative health care program and receive a reduced premium
Medicare Advantage, also called Medicare Part C, is private-plan coverage approved by Medicare. These plans must provide at least the services covered by Original Medicare, subject to Medicare rules, but they may structure deductibles, copayments, and coinsurance differently. For many enrollees, a plan’s benefit design can reduce or eliminate certain cost-sharing amounts that would otherwise apply under Original Medicare. Medicare Advantage plans also include a yearly maximum out-of-pocket limit for covered Medicare services.
Vision, hearing, and dental benefits may be offered as supplemental benefits by many Medicare Advantage plans, but they are not universally mandated as a standard benefit in every plan. Drug coverage is commonly included, but it is not restricted to generic medications only. Part D formularies can include both generic and brand-name drugs, subject to plan rules and Medicare requirements.
The final option is incorrect because an enrollee does not receive a reduced premium merely by opting out of preventive care. Preventive benefits and plan premiums are governed by Medicare and plan design rules rather than by an individual’s decision to decline a preventive program.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Part C; Medicare Advantage; deductibles; coinsurance; out-of-pocket limits; Medicare Advantage cost rules .
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In order for a health insurance producer to be an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF), the producer:
can receive commissions from the company in addition to the compensation as a facilitator
can receive both commission and compensation as a facilitator
must surrender the producer ' s license and apply for an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator license
can offer advice to consumers resulting in the " steering " of the selection of coverage
A person may not concurrently hold a Nevada producer license and an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator certificate. Therefore, a health insurance producer who wishes to become an EEF must surrender the producer authority and apply for certification as an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator.
An EEF assists consumers with enrollment in qualified health plans offered through the Exchange. The role is designed to provide objective enrollment help, application assistance, and general information. An EEF may not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. The EEF also may not receive consideration from a health insurance issuer or insurer in connection with enrollment and may not receive remuneration arising from EEF activities from a licensed producer, insurance consultant, surplus lines broker, or insurer.
For that reason, a producer cannot receive commissions while acting as an EEF, cannot collect both commission and EEF compensation in the manner described, and cannot steer a consumer toward a particular coverage choice. Producers and EEFs have different legal roles, compensation structures, and consumer-protection limitations.
Study Guide references/topics: Exchange Enrollment Facilitators; producer licensing; prohibited acts; compensation; NRS 695J.210 .
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The Affordable Care Act (ACA) requires every individual policy to provide minimum coverages known as:
Essential Health Benefits
Gold Value coverages
Silver Saver Value coverages
Medicaid Buy-Back coverage
The Affordable Care Act established Essential Health Benefits as the minimum categories of benefits that qualifying individual and small-group health plans must cover. These required benefit categories create a baseline of comprehensive coverage rather than allowing a major medical plan to omit fundamental types of care.
Essential Health Benefits include ambulatory patient services, emergency services, hospitalization, maternity and newborn care, mental health and substance-use-disorder services, prescription drugs, rehabilitative and habilitative services and devices, laboratory services, preventive and wellness services, chronic-disease management, and pediatric services, including oral and vision care.
Gold and Silver are metal-level plan categories. They describe the general actuarial value of a plan—the approximate division of covered health-care costs between the insurer and enrollees—not a separate legal list of mandatory minimum benefits. A Gold plan generally pays a larger share of covered costs than a Silver plan, but both must include the applicable Essential Health Benefits. “Silver Saver Value†and “Medicaid Buy-Back†are not the ACA’s required minimum-coverage terminology.
For examination purposes, distinguish the benefit package itself—Essential Health Benefits—from plan metal levels and from public programs such as Medicaid.
Study Guide references/topics: Affordable Care Act; individual health insurance; qualified health plans; Essential Health Benefits; HealthCare.gov coverage protections .
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An insured has a $1,000 deductible and then pays 20% of covered medical expenses, while the insurer pays 80%. What is the insured’s 20% share called?
Copayment
Coinsurance
Elimination period
Stop-loss benefit
Coinsurance is the percentage of covered expenses that the insured shares with the insurer after the deductible has been satisfied. In this question, the insured pays 20% and the insurer pays 80%; this is commonly described as 80/20 coinsurance. The deductible is separate. It is the amount the insured must pay before the insurer begins sharing covered expenses, subject to any services that the policy covers before the deductible.
A copayment is a fixed dollar amount paid for a covered service, such as a stated amount for a physician visit or prescription. It is not normally expressed as a percentage. An elimination period is a waiting period in disability-income insurance before benefits begin. A stop-loss feature, also called an out-of-pocket maximum in many plans, limits the insured’s covered cost sharing after a stated maximum has been reached, subject to plan rules.
Understanding these terms is essential when comparing health plans. A plan may have a lower premium but a higher deductible, greater coinsurance, or a larger out-of-pocket maximum. Producers must clearly explain the consumer’s potential financial responsibility and must not imply that the insurer pays every medical expense once a policy is issued.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Major Medical Insurance; Deductibles; Coinsurance; Copayments; Out-of-Pocket Maximums.
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Under a typical coordination-of-benefits rule, a child is covered under both parents’ group health plans. Which plan is generally primary when the parents are married and neither plan contains an exception?
The plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year
The plan with the highest deductible
The plan that began most recently
The plan selected by the child each year
Coordination of benefits, or COB, establishes the order in which multiple health plans pay when an insured is covered by more than one plan. For a dependent child covered by both married parents’ group health plans, the common “birthday rule†generally makes primary the plan of the parent whose birthday occurs earlier in the calendar year. The rule compares the month and day of birth, not the year. If both birthdays are the same, the plan that has covered the parent longer is generally primary.
The primary plan pays first according to its own policy terms. The secondary plan then considers the remaining eligible expense and may pay an additional amount, subject to its coordination-of-benefits provision. COB is intended to prevent duplicate recovery exceeding the actual covered expense while still allowing the insured to receive the benefit of multiple coverages.
Special rules can apply in divorce, custody, court-order, active-versus-retired employee, Medicare, and other situations. The producer should never assume that one generic rule governs every family arrangement. Plan documents and applicable law control. For examination purposes, the birthday rule is the standard answer when the parents are married and no special circumstance is stated.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Coordination of Benefits; Primary and Secondary Coverage; Birthday Rule; Group Health Insurance; Dependent Coverage.
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An insured who owns a Disability Income policy forgot to pay the premium due on July 1. If the insured files a disability claim on July 31, the insurance company will MOST likely:
deny the claim
pay the claim but deduct the unpaid premium
reinstate the policy and then pay the claim
cancel the policy and return all premiums paid
The policy remains in force during its contractual grace period after a premium becomes due. For individual accident and health policies, the required grace period generally depends on premium mode: seven days for weekly premiums, ten days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for other premium modes. A claim occurring within the applicable grace period is not automatically denied simply because the premium has not yet been paid. Instead, the insurer may pay the covered claim and deduct the overdue premium from the amount otherwise payable. Therefore, choice B is the best answer. Reinstatement is unnecessary because the policy has not yet lapsed while the grace period is still running. Cancellation and return of all prior premiums would be inconsistent with the purpose of the grace-period provision. The question tests the difference between a late premium during grace and a lapsed policy after grace expires. Once grace expires without payment, coverage can lapse; if coverage later is reinstated, loss coverage may be subject to reinstatement provisions and limitations. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Grace Period; Disability Income Insurance.
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Most insurance companies use the usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) charges to:
reimburse the employee for expenses charged by the medical facilities
reimburse physicians for excess expense
pay dollars direct to the employers for health insurance
limit the insurance company claims liability
Usual, customary, and reasonable charges are payment standards used to determine the portion of a medical charge that a health insurer recognizes as eligible for reimbursement. Choice D is correct because UCR standards limit the insurer’s claim liability to an amount considered appropriate for the service in the relevant geographic area. “Usual†refers to the fee commonly charged by a particular provider; “customary†refers to fees generally charged by comparable providers in the area; and “reasonable†considers the circumstances and complexity of the service. If a provider’s charge exceeds the plan’s allowed amount, the insurer may pay only the UCR amount, and the patient may remain responsible for the difference unless a network agreement or other policy provision prevents balance billing. UCR does not mean that insurers reimburse excess charges, pay funds to employers, or reimburse every amount billed by a medical facility. This concept is tested as a cost-control mechanism within medical expense coverage and should be distinguished from deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and maximum benefit limits. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Medical Expense Insurance; Usual, Customary, and Reasonable Charges.
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Medicaid is best described as:
A federal retirement program funded only by payroll taxes
A joint federal-state program that provides medical assistance to eligible individuals
A private insurance policy sold by producers
A Medicare supplement insurance plan
Medicaid is a joint federal-state medical-assistance program serving eligible individuals and families under income, resource, categorical, residency, and other program rules. The federal government establishes broad requirements and provides funding, while each state administers its program within federal parameters. Nevada administers Medicaid through its state health and human-services structure and contracted delivery systems. Eligibility and benefits can vary by category and may change with law and program administration.
Medicaid is not the same as Medicare. Medicare is principally a federal social-insurance program associated with age 65 or older, certain disabilities, and end-stage renal disease or other qualifying conditions. Medicaid is generally means tested, although eligibility is determined by detailed program standards and should never be assumed from income alone. Some people may qualify for both Medicare and Medicaid; these individuals are often referred to as dual-eligible beneficiaries.
A producer should avoid giving legal or public-benefit eligibility advice beyond the scope of insurance licensing. The proper role is to identify the program accurately, explain how private coverage may coordinate where applicable, and direct a consumer to the appropriate state agency or benefits specialist for an eligibility determination.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicaid; Medicare; Dual Eligibility; Government-Sponsored Health Programs; Nevada Public Health Benefits.
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TESTED 23 Aug 2026