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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Question and Answers

Question # 4

What is the role of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

KPIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific metrics or data

B.

KPIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective

C.

KPIs are only relevant for external reporting and have no impact on internal decision-making

D.

KPIs are used to determine employee compensation and bonuses

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Question # 5

In the context of event notifications, how can technology-based notifications benefit an organization?

A.

These notifications are always more reliable than traditional paper-based methods

B.

These notifications often (though not always) alert the organization sooner than other methods, especially when human methods fail or are delayed

C.

Use of this type of notification is only beneficial for large organizations with complex structures

D.

These notifications eliminate the need for any human involvement in the assignment of follow-up tasks

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Question # 6

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

A.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization.

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event.

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

D.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event.

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Question # 7

In the context of uncertainty, what is the difference between likelihood and impact?

A.

Likelihood is the chance of an event occurring after controls are put in place, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

B.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the category or type of risk or reward from the event

C.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact is the location of the event within the organization

D.

Likelihood is a measure of the chance of an event occurring, while impact measures the economic and non-economic consequences of the event

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Question # 8

Who are key external stakeholders that may significantly influence an organization?

A.

Distributors, resellers, and franchisees.

B.

Competitors, employees, and board members.

C.

Marketing agencies, legal advisors, and auditors.

D.

Customers, shareholders, creditors and lenders, government, and non-governmental organizations.

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Question # 9

Culture is difficult or even impossible to "design" because:

A.

People are not motivated to change.

B.

It is an emergent property.

C.

It takes too long.

D.

There are too many subcultures.

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Question # 10

What is the purpose of implementing policies within an organization?

A.

To set clear expectations of conduct for key internal stakeholders and the extended enterprise.

B.

To meet regulatory requirements and establish compliance.

C.

To reduce the need for defined procedures and guidelines within the organization.

D.

To have individual regulation-specific policies instead of a generic Code of Conduct.

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Question # 11

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

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Question # 12

Which category of actions & controls in the IACM includes formal statements and rules about organizational intentions and expectations?

A.

Information

B.

People

C.

Technology

D.

Policy

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Question # 13

What is the process of validating direction within an organization?

A.

Conducting a SWOT analysis to identify the organization’s strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

B.

Communicating, negotiating, and finalizing direction with other organizational levels/units.

C.

Conducting a comprehensive audit of the organization’s financial records to ensure they are showing movement in the right direction.

D.

Implementing a performance management system to evaluate employee performance and alignment to established direction.

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Question # 14

What is the role of identification criteria?

A.

Identification criteria are used to determine the order in which units undertake identification activities.

B.

Identification criteria are used to calculate the total budget for the organization based on priority objectives and the number of related obstacles and obligations.

C.

Identification criteria are used to focus on priority objectives and results.

D.

Identification criteria are used to establish the communication channels within the organization regarding opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

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Question # 15

What does the initialism GRC stand for?

A.

Governing risk and compliance

B.

Governance, risk, and compliance

C.

Governance, risk, and controls

D.

Government, regulation, and controls

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Question # 16

What considerations should be taken into account when protecting information associated with notifications?

A.

Allowing unrestricted access to notification and follow-up information by the notifier so that they can see the organization is responding appropriately

B.

Knowing that any legal or regulatory requirements related to data privacy do not apply to hotline reports

C.

Ensuring pathways comply with mandatory requirements in the locale where the notification originates and the organization operates

D.

Knowing that confidentiality and anonymity rights are the same thing

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Question # 17

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

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Question # 18

How does assurance help management and stakeholders gain confidence?

A.

It ensures policies and procedures meet regulatory standards

B.

It ensures financial statements are accurate and free from misstatements

C.

It helps identify and mitigate potential risks and threats to the organization

D.

It verifies that what stakeholders believe is happening, is actually happening

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Question # 19

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

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Question # 20

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Question # 21

How does the Maturity Model help organizations assess their preparedness to perform practices?

A.

By evaluating the performance of managers and their teams involved in GRC processes

B.

By acting as a tool for ensuring compliance with legal and regulatory requirements

C.

By helping organizations determine the budget allocation for GRC programs and where to apply resources across the GRC capabilities

D.

By providing a continuum with levels that allow organizations to assess their capability to perform practices, identify areas for improvement, and develop maturity incrementally from one level to the next

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Question # 22

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirementsare addressed

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Question # 23

What is the role of sensemaking in understanding the internal context?

A.

Sensemaking involves analyzing the organization’s supply chain to identify potential bottlenecks and make any necessary changes in how it is managed.

B.

Sensemaking involves evaluating the organization’s sense of all aspects of its culture so that improvements can be made.

C.

Sensemaking involves conducting financial audits to make sense of the financial condition of the organization and ensure compliance with accounting standards.

D.

Sensemaking involves continually watching for and making sense of changes in the internal context that have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization.

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Question # 24

What are some examples of action and control categories as described in the IACM?

A.

Policy, process change, punishment, incentives, and employee education

B.

Policy, people, process, physical, informational, technological, and financial actions and controls

C.

Outsourcing, downsizing, and automation as the primary means of control

D.

Random selection, trial and error, and reliance on intuition and experience

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Question # 25

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Question # 26

What is the role of the mission statement in guiding decision-making and priority-setting within an organization?

A.

It outlines the organization’s budget and financial goals which must be considered in every type of decision

B.

It describes the organization’s product development plans that must be considered when making decisions and setting priorities

C.

It serves as a clear and consistent statement of the organization’s overall purpose and direction, guiding decision-making and priority-setting

D.

It defines the roles and responsibilities of each department

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Question # 27

What is the relationship between the internal context and the culture of an organization within the LEARN component?

A.

The internal context and culture determine the organization's financial performance.

B.

The internal context and culture describe the capabilities and resources used to meet stakeholder needs.

C.

The internal context and culture define the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels.

D.

The internal context and culture outline the organization's compliance requirements.

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Question # 28

What are the four dimensions of Total Performance that should be considered across all components and elements of the GRC Capability Model?

A.

Vision, Mission, Strategy, and Tactics

B.

Input, Process, Output, and Feedback

C.

Planning, Execution, Monitoring, and Control

D.

Effectiveness, Efficiency, Responsiveness, and Resilience

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Question # 29

In the context of GRC, what is the significance of setting objectives that are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and timebound (SMART)?

A.

SMART objectives can be more easily communicated to stakeholders to gain their confidence

B.

SMART objectives allow the organization to avoid accountability and responsibility for failing to achieve objectives

C.

SMART objectives provide clarity, focus, and direction and help ensure that objectives are effectively aligned with the organization’s goals and priorities

D.

SMART objectives are only relevant for financial objectives and have no impact on non-financial objectives

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Question # 30

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the consequence of an event?

A.

Impact

B.

Consequence

C.

Likelihood

D.

Cause

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Question # 31

How can an organization ensure that notifications are handled by the right organizational units?

A.

By establishing a single point for referral regardless of the topic or type

B.

By prioritizing, substantiating, validating, and routing notifications based on topic, type, and severity

C.

By disregarding any notifications that do not meet specific criteria or thresholds so the remainder can be more efficiently routed

D.

By requiring that all notifications be reviewed by the general counsel before any action is taken

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Question # 32

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and set direction?

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

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Question # 33

What is the role of indicators in measuring progress toward objectives?

A.

Indicators are used to determine if the objectives must be changed in response to changes in the external or internal context.

B.

Indicators measure quantitative or qualitative progress toward an objective.

C.

Indicators are used to evaluate the appropriateness of the organization’s selection of objectives.

D.

Indicators are used to calculate the return on investment for various projects and initiatives.

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Question # 34

A statement about what the organization stands for is best labeled as the:

A.

Values

B.

Vision

C.

Outcome

D.

Mission

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Question # 35

Why is it important for an organization to prioritize the concerns and needs of stakeholders?

A.

To organize stakeholder appreciation events

B.

To rank the most valuable stakeholders

C.

To highlight and address needs that compete with or conflict with each other

D.

To create a stakeholder directory

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Question # 36

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

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Question # 37

In the context of the GRC Capability Model, what is culture defined as?

A.

A formal structure that is established by the leadership of an organization to ensure compliance with requirements, whether they are mandatory or voluntary obligations of the organization.

B.

An emergent property of a group of people caused by the interaction of individual beliefs, values, mindsets, and behaviors, and demonstrated by observable norms and articulated opinions.

C.

A set of written rules and guidelines that dictate the behavior of individuals within an organization.

D.

A collection of artifacts, symbols, and rituals that represent the history of an organization.

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Question # 38

What is compliance, and how is it measured in an organization?

A.

Compliance is a measure of the degree to which obligations are proven to be addressed, and it is measured by assessing requirements, actions & controls to address requirements, and evidence of effectiveness.

B.

Compliance is the ability to avoid legal disputes, and it is measured by the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions filed against the organization.

C.

Compliance is the financial success of the organization, and it is measured by revenue and profit margins.

D.

Compliance is the level of stakeholder satisfaction measured through stakeholder surveys and feedback.

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Question # 39

What are the two key factors that determine the level of assurance provided by an assurance provider?

A.

Assurance Objectivity and Assurance Competence

B.

Assurance Transparency and Assurance Accountability

C.

Assurance Consistency and Assurance Reliability

D.

Assurance Efficiency and Assurance Effectiveness

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Question # 40

What are norms?

A.

Norms are customs, rules, or expectations that a group socially reinforces.

B.

Norms are the typical ways that the business operates.

C.

Norms are the regular employees of an organization as opposed to contractors brought in for unusual (not normal) projects.

D.

Norms are the normal or typical financial targets set by the organization.

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Question # 41

How can an organization evaluate the adequacy of current levels of residual risk/reward and compliance?

A.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by looking at the number of lawsuits and enforcement actions.

B.

The organization can use analysis criteria to evaluate the adequacy of current levels and determine if additional analysis is required.

C.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by removing controls and seeing if the levels change.

D.

The organization can evaluate adequacy by hiring an outside auditor to make an assessment.

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Question # 42

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Question # 43

What is the difference between prescriptive norms and proscriptive norms?

A.

Prescriptive norms are optional guidelines, while proscriptive norms are mandatory rules.

B.

Prescriptive norms are related to financial performance, while proscriptive norms are related to ethical behavior.

C.

Prescriptive norms are established by government regulations, while proscriptive norms are established by industry standards.

D.

Prescriptive norms encourage behavior the group deems positive, while proscriptive norms discourage behavior the group deems negative.

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Question # 44

In the context of Principled Performance, what is the definition of integrity?

A.

Integrity is the absence of any legal disputes or conflicts within an organization

B.

Integrity is the ability to achieve financial success as promised to shareholders

C.

Integrity is the process of complying with all government regulations

D.

Integrity is the state of being whole and complete by fulfilling obligations, honoring promises, and cleaning up the mess if a promise was broken

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Question # 45

What type of events should be discovered through inquiry?

A.

Both favorable and unfavorable events

B.

Only events related to compliance violations

C.

Only events that exemplify or contradict organizational values

D.

Only events that are reported by external stakeholders

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Question # 46

Which of the following reflects what the learner will be able to do after a learning activity?

A.

Learning Assessment

B.

Learning Objective

C.

Learning Content

D.

Learning Outcome

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Question # 47

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Question # 48

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

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Question # 49

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

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Question # 50

What is the role of the Second Line in the Lines of Accountability Model?

A.

The Second Line is responsible for conducting external audits and providing assurance to stakeholders

B.

The Second Line is responsible for making strategic decisions and setting the overall direction of the organization, deciding on objectives and issuing decision-making guidance

C.

The Second Line establishes performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line, and provides oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques

D.

The Second Line focuses on the day-to-day operational activities of the organization to address risk and compliance requirements

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Question # 51

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "suitable criteria"?

A.

Benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results

B.

Legal and regulatory requirements that an organization must comply with

C.

Ethical standards and codes of conduct established by an organization

D.

Financial targets and performance metrics set by an organization

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Question # 52

What is the purpose of defining design criteria?

A.

To identify the key stakeholders involved in the design process

B.

To guide, constrain, and conscribe how actions and controls are prioritized to achieve acceptable levels of risk, reward, and compliance

C.

To establish a timeline for the implementation of the design

D.

To determine the budget allocated for the design project

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Question # 53

How do values influence the way an organization operates?

A.

They establish the organization’s code of conduct

B.

They set voluntary boundaries for how the organization operates and often explain design decisions about the operating model

C.

They dictate the organization’s pricing strategy and revenue generation

D.

They determine the organization's market share and competitive positioning as part of assessing its financial value to shareholders

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Question # 54

What should be avoided to maintain the integrity of the inquiry process?

A.

Any inquiries that require identification of the respondent

B.

Any automated analysis of information and findings

C.

Any actual or perceived connection between inquiry responses and individual performance appraisals

D.

Any use of technology-based inquiry methods

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Question # 55

What types of actions and controls are included in the PERFORM component of the GRC Capability Model?

A.

Internal, external, and hybrid actions and controls.

B.

Mandatory, voluntary, and optional actions and controls.

C.

Proactive, detective, and responsive actions and controls.

D.

Reactive, preventive, and corrective actions and controls.

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Question # 56

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the Second Line?

A.

Individuals and Teams who are responsible for financial reporting and budgeting activities within the organization.

B.

Individuals and Teams who establish performance, risk, and compliance programs for the First Line and provide oversight through frameworks, standards, policies, tools, and techniques.

C.

Individuals and Teams who manage external relationships with stakeholders, investors, and regulators.

D.

Individuals and Teams who provide legal advice and support to the organization in case of disputes or litigation.

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Question # 57

How is the level of assurance determined in relation to objectivity and competence?

A.

The level of assurance is based on the financial performance of the organization being evaluated.

B.

The level of assurance is a function of the assurance objectivity and assurance competence of the assurance provider.

C.

The level of assurance is determined by the number of years of experience of the assurance provider.

D.

The level of assurance is established by the governing authority based on regulatory requirements.

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Question # 58

What are some examples of industry factors that may influence an organization’s external context?

A.

Product development, branding, and advertising campaigns.

B.

Political involvement of competitors.

C.

New entrants, competitors, suppliers, and customers.

D.

New technologies available to the organization and its competitors.

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Question # 59

Which organization and its membership created the concepts of Principled Performance and GRC?

A.

IAPP (International Association of Privacy Professionals)

B.

AICPA (American Institute of Certified Public Accountants)

C.

ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association)

D.

IFAC (International Federation of Accountants)

E.

IMA (Institute of Management Accountants)

F.

SCCE (Society of Corporate Compliance and Ethics)

G.

ACFE (Association of Certified Fraud Examiners)

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Question # 60

What is meant by the term "residual risk"?

A.

The risk that is transferred to a third party

B.

The risk that exists in all business activities

C.

The level of risk in the presence of actions & controls

D.

The risk that remains after eliminating all threats

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Question # 61

What type of incentives are established through compensation, reward, and recognition programs?

A.

Social Incentives

B.

Economic Incentives

C.

Management Incentives

D.

Individualized Incentives

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Question # 62

In the context of Total Performance, what does it mean for an education program to be "Lean"?

A.

The education program can quickly respond to changes and promptly detect and correct errors

B.

The education program is formally documented and consistently managed to be efficient

C.

The education program is resistant to disruptions and has backup plans that do not add an expense or need more resources than the original plans

D.

The education program evaluates the cost of educating the workforce, assessing whether the cost per worker is going up or down, and comparing the cost to organizations of similar size

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Question # 63

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Question # 64

What is the goal of monitoring improvement initiatives?

A.

To assess the level of employee satisfaction about the improvement initiatives

B.

To evaluate the financial impact of the improvement initiatives

C.

To ensure progress, verify completion, and address any necessary follow-up actions associated with the improvement initiatives

D.

To determine the need for additional training associated with the improvement initiatives

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Question # 65

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

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Question # 66

In the GRC Capability Model, what is the primary focus of the REVIEW component?

A.

Implementing new policies and procedures to enhance organizational performance

B.

Continuously improving total performance by monitoring actions and controls and providing assurance about priority objectives, opportunities, obstacles, and obligations

C.

Exclusively focusing on monitoring actions and controls without providing assurance

D.

Conducting audits and inspections to identify non-compliance issues

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Question # 67

What are some examples of economic incentives that can be used to encourage favorable conduct?

A.

Monetary compensation, bonuses, profit-sharing, and gain-sharing.

B.

Employee training, mentorship programs, and skills development.

C.

Flexible work hours, remote work options, and casual dress codes.

D.

Team-building activities, company retreats, and social events.

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Question # 68

In the Maturity Model, which level indicates that practices are evaluated and managed with data-driven evidence?

A.

Level 1 – Initial

B.

Level 2 – Managed

C.

Level 3 – Consistent

D.

Level 4 – Measured

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Question # 69

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

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Question # 70

What is a key difference between objectives that "Change the Organization" and those that "Run the Organization"?

A.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" are established by the board of directors, while objectives that "Run the Organization" are established by the management team

B.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" are related to the organization's financial performance, while objectives that "Run the Organization" are related to the organization's legal compliance

C.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" focus on change management, employee training and development, while objectives that "Run the Organization" focus on customer satisfaction and sales growth

D.

Objectives that "Change the Organization" inspire progress and produce new value, while objectives that "Run the Organization" allow the organization to maintain what it has achieved, preserve existing value, and notice when value erodes or atrophies

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Question # 71

What are some examples of economic factors that may influence an organization's external context?

A.

Growth, exchange, inflation, and interest rates

B.

Profitability of each line of business

C.

Supply chain management, inventory control, and distribution logistics

D.

Employee retention, job satisfaction, and career development

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Question # 72

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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Question # 73

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

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Question # 74

How can organizations recover from negative conduct, events, and conditions, and correct identified weaknesses within their governance, management, and assurance processes?

A.

Through open and transparent acknowledgment of the identified unfavorable conduct or events and acceptance of responsibility by the CEO.

B.

Through the application of responsive actions and controls that recover from unfavorable conduct, events, and conditions; correct identified weaknesses; execute necessary discipline; recognize and reinforce favorable conduct; and deter future undesired conduct or conditions.

C.

Through the use of both technology and physical actions and controls to recover from negative conduct and conditions, correct identified weaknesses, and establish barriers to future misconduct.

D.

Through focusing on promoting positive behavior and establishing reward systems for employees who identify weaknesses in the systems of control.

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