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FPGEE Foreign Pharmacy Graduate Equivalency Examination Question and Answers

Question # 4

Mechanism of action of zalcitabine is:

A.

Inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

B.

Inhibits reverse transcriptase

C.

Inhibits DNA gyrase

D.

Inhibits viral protease

E.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

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Question # 5

Mechanism of action of vincristine is:

A.

Inhibits organification of iodine by thyroid gland

B.

Increases peripheral tissues sensitivity to insulin

C.

Reduces peripheral insulin resistance

D.

Inhibits Na-K-2Cl transporter

E.

Mitotic spindle poison

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Question # 6

Contraindication of sulfamethoxazole is:

A.

Gout

B.

Diabetes mellitus

C.

Hyperlipidemia

D.

Liver disease

E.

Late pregnancy

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Question # 7

Mechanism of action of vancomycin is:

A.

Potentiates glucose-mediated insulin secretion

B.

Inhibits phospholipase C

C.

Mitotic spindle poison

D.

Inhibits transpeptidase

E.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

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Question # 8

Indication of salmeterol is:

A.

Thyrotoxicosis - preparation for surgery

B.

Chronic renal disease

C.

Scleroderma renal crisis

D.

Asthma

E.

Allergic rhinitis

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Question # 9

Given that the VD = 230 L/70Kg and Cl = 60 L/hr/70 Kg for morphine, approximately how much of a 10 mg IV dose remains after 8 hr, given to a normal 70 Kg patient?

A.

5 mg

B.

2.5 mg

C.

1.25 mg

D.

625 mg

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Question # 10

Which Cytochrome P450 isozyme does not participate appreciably in drug metabolism?

A.

CYP1A2

B.

CYP2C9

C.

CYP3A4

D.

CYP51

E.

All are drug metabolizing isoforms

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Question # 11

Indication of clindamycin is:

A.

Benzodiazepine intoxication

B.

Hypercalcemia

C.

Kaposi's sarcoma

D.

Streptococcus pneumoniae

E.

Angina

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Question # 12

Effect of diltiazem is:

A.

May increase heart rate

B.

Decreases triglycerides by 10-20%

C.

May decrease heart rate

D.

Inhibits basal gastric acid secretion

E.

Decreases AV conduction

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Question # 13

Route of excretion of cinoxacin is:

A.

Unknown

B.

Kidneys

C.

Intestines

D.

Liver

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Question # 14

Site of metabolism of zolpidem is:

A.

Liver

B.

None

C.

Reticuloendothelial system

D.

Leukocytes

E.

Unknown

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Question # 15

Subclass of lomafloxacin is:

A.

Fluoroquinolones

B.

IA

C.

Calciferols

D.

Beta-lactamase resistant penicillins

E.

Aldosterone antagonists

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Question # 16

Which of the following statements refers to buspirone?

A.

Fatal overdosage rare unless taken with alcohol or other CNS depressants.

B.

Choice between quinidine and disopyramide should be made based on side effects. In patients with AV conduction problems or quinidine-induced GI toxicity, disopyramide ought to be chosen. In patients with MI or anticholinergic side effects, quinidine is the agent of choice.

C.

Less effective than tricyclics or ECT in unipolar depression.

D.

Is metabolized to several substances with long (>24 hours) half lives. These do not contribute to anticonvulsant effect but do contribute to sedative effect.

E.

No difference in effects between elderly and average population

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Question # 17

Class of nelfinavir is:

A.

Glucocorticosteroids

B.

Anti-asthmatic agents

C.

Polyenes

D.

Antivirals

E.

Autonomic nervous system drugs

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Question # 18

Which of the following are similarities between Cytochrome P450 and MAO?

A.

Both add oxygen from O2 to substrates and also form water

B.

Both carry out direct heteroatom oxidations

C.

Both carry out oxidative deaminations

D.

Both carry out N-dealkylations

E.

All of the above

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Question # 19

Nosocomial infections may be best treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cephalosporin 3rd generation

II- Macrolides antibiotics

III- Penicillins

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

All are correct

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Question # 20

All of the following penicillins are acid label penicillins, EXCEPT:

A.

Penicillin V

B.

Penicillin G

C.

Methicillin

D.

Nafcillin

E.

Carbenicillin

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Question # 21

All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT

A.

Cephalexin

B.

Ofloxacin

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Ciprofloxacin

E.

Levofloxacin

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Question # 22

Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

A.

Quinine

B.

Pyrimethamine

C.

Sulfadoxine

D.

Primaquine

E.

Quinidine

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Question # 23

Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

A.

Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

B.

Clarithromycin, amoxicillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

C.

Clarithromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

D.

Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

E.

Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

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Question # 24

Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by:

A.

Cephalosporins

B.

Macrolides

C.

Aminoglycosides

D.

Vancomycin

E.

Penicillin

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Question # 25

Which of the following is NOT a side effect of tetracycline?

A.

Alteration in gut flora

B.

Disulfiram like reactions

C.

Teeth permanent discoloration

D.

Fanconi like syndrome

E.

Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis

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Question # 26

All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT:

A.

Ampicillin

B.

Cloxacillin

C.

Amoxicillin

D.

Bicampicilin

E.

All are correct

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Question # 27

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:

A.

Niclosamide

B.

Prazinquatel

C.

Mebendazole

D.

Dapsone

E.

Thiabendazole

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Question # 28

Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

A.

Gentamycin

B.

Ceftriaxone

C.

Norfloxacin

D.

Erythromycin

E.

Penicillin

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Question # 29

Which of the following agents may interfere with the regular effect of penicillins?

A.

Antacids

B.

Food

C.

Probenecid

D.

Aminoglycosides

E.

All of the above

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Question # 30

Which of the following drugs cannot be taken orally?

A.

INH

B.

PASA

C.

ASA

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Oxacillin

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Question # 31

Drugs used in the treatment of meningitis are all of the following, EXCEPT:

A.

Penicillins

B.

Cephalosporins

C.

Gentamycin

D.

Streptomycin

E.

Sulfonamides

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Question # 32

Which of the following statements refers to foscavir?

A.

Pyrophosphate analog

B.

Metabolism in liver is by glucuronidization

C.

Not shown to reduce sudden death or prolong survival.

D.

Inhibition of DNA gyrase results in: 1. Inhibition of bacterial replication 2. Inhibition of DNA repair 3. Inhibition of expression of certain operons

E.

Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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Question # 33

Mechanism of action of PAS is:

A.

Activates antithrombin III

B.

Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis

C.

Inhibits dihydropteroate synthetase

D.

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

E.

beta-1 antagonist

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Question # 34

Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria includes:

A.

Cloroquine

B.

Quinine

C.

Primaquin

D.

Quinine

E.

Quinidine

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Question # 35

Which pyrimidine base is not present in RNA sequence?

A.

Uracil

B.

Thiamine

C.

Cytosine

D.

Guanine

E.

Adenine

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Question # 36

Element found in the center of vitamin B12-cyanocobalamin:

A.

Iron

B.

Zinc

C.

Cobalt

D.

Magnesium

E.

Calcium

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Question # 37

Enzyme that enables DNA fragments from different sources to be joined:

A.

DNA polymerase

B.

DNA gyrase

C.

DNA ligase

D.

RNA transferase

E.

None of the above

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Question # 38

Common etiologic agents of community-acquired pneumonia include:

I Escherichia coli

II Haemophilus influenzae

III Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 39

Which of the following is considered the FIRST precursor of vitamin A formation?

A.

Retinoic acid

B.

Carotenoids

C.

Cobalt

D.

Calciferol

E.

Pantothenic acid

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Question # 40

Which of the following vitamin is not water-soluble?

A.

Vitamin B

B.

Vitamin C

C.

Vitamin D

D.

Folic acid

E.

Riboflavin

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Question # 41

Which is responsible for N in vivo?

A.

Argenine

B.

Tryptophan

C.

Guanine

D.

Thiamine

E.

Leucine

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Question # 42

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow from the small intestine to the liver:

A.

haemorrhoidal vein ? portal vein.

B.

mesenteric vein ? portal vein.

C.

haemorrhoidal vein? inferior vena cava.

D.

mesenteric vein ? hepatic artery.

E.

gastric vein ? hepatic vein.

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Question # 43

Abundant element in the interstitial fluid may include:

A.

Potassium

B.

Sodium

C.

Magnesium

D.

Calcium

E.

Chloro

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Question # 44

Which of the following vitamin has its chemical structure related to PABA?

A.

Cyanocobalamin

B.

Folic acid

C.

Pantothenic acid

D.

Pyridoxine

E.

Niacin

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Question # 45

Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA. is:

I the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain

II found primarily in interneurons

III synthesized from glycine

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 46

Purine may be the end product of:

A.

Amines

B.

Amino acids

C.

Uric acid

D.

Proteins

E.

Enzymes

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Question # 47

Zwintter ion reacts with a substrate as:

A.

Neutral ion

B.

Proton acceptor ion

C.

Proton donor ion

D.

Anionic

E.

Cationic

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Question # 48

Which of the following is the main carbohydrate of body blood?

A.

Sorbitol

B.

Mannitol

C.

Frutase

D.

Glucase

E.

Lactase

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Question # 49

Agents considered as precursor of leukotriene include:

A.

Tyrosine

B.

Cyanide

C.

Arachidonic acid

D.

Prostaglandins

E.

Histamine

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Question # 50

Autoimmune disorders include which of the following?

I Graves' disease

II Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

III Osteoarthritis

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 51

Organisms commonly implicated in the cause of Traveller's Diarrhea include:

I Bacteroides fragilis

II Escherichia coli

III Shigella sp

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 52

Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, is a derivative of:

A.

Uric acid

B.

Purine

C.

Pyridine

D.

Pteridine

E.

Urate salts

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Question # 53

Which of the following factors would be important in determining the concentration of drug that would be reached in the cerebrospinal fluid for treatment of meningitis?

I Oil/water partition coefficient

II Binding to plasma protein

III pKa of the drug

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 54

The fraction of bound receptors in a well-defined drug-receptor binding system is determined by:

I the equilibrium drug-receptor dissociation constant

II the free drug concentration

III the total receptor concentration

A.

I only

B.

III only

C.

I and II only

D.

II and III only

E.

I, II and III

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Question # 55

Which financial statement could be used to determine the total value of prescription drug sales for a pharmacy during the course of a year?

A.

Balance sheet

B.

Statement of investments

C.

Statement of changes in financial position

D.

Income statement

E.

Statement of equity

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Question # 56

Which of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma?

A.

β2-agonists

B.

β-Blockers

C.

α-agonists

D.

Anticholinergic drugs

E.

Cholinergic drugs

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Question # 57

Allopurinol, xanthine oxidase inhibitor, used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects, EXCEPT:

A.

Increase in protrombin time

B.

Hypersensitivity rashes

C.

GIT intolerance

D.

Peripheral neuritis

E.

Necrotizing vasculitis

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Question # 58

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include:

A.

With meals

B.

In emptying stomach

C.

With plenty of water

D.

With orange juice

E.

Before bedtime

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Question # 59

In an adequately powered, randomized controlled trial conducted over 3 years, a specific serious side effect (i.e. reduction in leukocytes) with conventional therapy is seen in 0.5% of the study sample. In patients who receive a newly discovered drug, only 0.45% experience the same side effect. Based on these results, the minimum number of patients that would have to receive the new drug for 3 years to statistically demonstrate the prevention of one episode of this side effect in at least one patient is:

A.

15.

B.

20.

C.

150.

D.

200.

E.

2000.

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Question # 60

Which of the following is an azo dye?

A.

Hexachlorophene

B.

Nitrofurantoin

C.

Methenamine

D.

Phenazopyridine

E.

Nalidixic acid

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Question # 61

Example of leukotriene antagonist drug include:

A.

Salbutamol

B.

Ipratropium

C.

Zafirlukast

D.

Montelukast

E.

C and D are right

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Question # 62

Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:

A.

Asthma

B.

Bronchitis

C.

GERD

D.

COPD

E.

CHF

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Question # 63

Calcitonin is mainly classified as hormone liberated by thyroid gland. Which stimulate the release of calcitonin?

A.

Hypercalcemia

B.

Hypocalcemia

C.

Hypophosphatemia

D.

Hyperphosphatemia

E.

High concentration of Vit. D

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