FC0-U71 CompTIA Tech+ Certification Exam Question and Answers

Satellite internet typically suffers from higher latency due to the long distances signals must travel to orbit and back. Even with high download speeds, the time delay in communication is significant.

“Satellite internet often experiences high latency due to the long signal travel time between Earth and orbiting satellites.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Concepts

Correct answer: C

In flowcharts, a diamond represents a decision point — a place where the program branches based on a yes/no or true/false condition.

“A diamond shape in a flowchart is used to depict a decision, indicating that the flow can take different paths based on a condition.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: B

A LAN (Local Area Network) connects devices in a limited geographical area such as a building or office.

“A LAN is a network that connects computers within a small geographical area such as a home, school, or office building.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

When a new vulnerability is discovered in software, the best way to secure it is by applying updates (patches) released by the software vendor. According to the CompTIA ITF+ objectives:

“Vendors regularly release software updates and security patches to fix vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Installing these patches promptly is crucial for maintaining system security.”

Although configuring a firewall and authentication improves overall security, they do not directly patch or fix the vulnerability. Uninstalling may be an option only if a patch is unavailable or the software is no longer needed. Therefore, the best and most proactive response is B: Apply updates.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed storage devices that commonly use the M.2 form factor. M.2 allows for compact design and direct connection to the motherboard.

“M.2 is a compact form factor used for high-speed NVMe and SATA SSDs, enabling faster storage access in modern systems.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Overview

Correct answer: A

An open-source license allows users to access, modify, and redistribute the software’s source code. It supports user customization and community contributions.

“Open-source software provides access to the source code, allowing users to inspect, modify, and enhance the software.” — CompTIA ITF+ Licensing and Software Concepts

Correct answer: C

Encryption protects files by converting them into unreadable formats unless the correct decryption key is provided. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

" Encryption is the process of converting data into a secure format that cannot be read without a decryption key. Only users with the proper key can access the original data. "

File permissions control user access based on OS-level rules, but encryption specifically ensures that only those with the key can read the file even if they access the file storage.

Hidden folders merely conceal files but don’t protect content. Compression reduces file size but doesn’t protect access.

Personally Identifiable Information (PII) refers to any data that can be used to identify an individual uniquely. Full name and date of birth are classic examples of PII.

“PII includes data such as names, birth dates, Social Security numbers, and other information that can directly or indirectly identify a person.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answers: A and B

The CompTIA troubleshooting methodology is clearly outlined:

" Once a theory of probable cause has been established, the next step is to test that theory. "

Testing confirms whether the identified potential cause is correct before proceeding with action planning, repairs, or documentation.

A keyboard allows a user to enter data into a system:

“Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals to the computer; keyboards are primary examples.”

Storage saves data, output displays data, and processing handles data operations.

RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory, meaning its contents are erased when power is removed. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

“RAM is volatile storage, which means that it requires constant power to maintain the stored information. When power is turned off, all data in RAM is lost.”

BIOS (firmware), NIC (hardware interface), and CPU (hardware processor) remain unaffected by shutdowns regarding stored information.

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet between the user and a remote network, enabling secure access from home or public networks.

“VPNs provide a secure tunnel for transmitting data over unsecured networks, such as the internet, by encrypting all traffic between the client and the network.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Other options:

A. LAN – Local and not for remote use

B. FTP – Transfers files but lacks modern encryption

C. DNS – Resolves domain names, not for access

Correct answer: D

The correct answer is C. Company files saved on a hard disk. Data storage refers to keeping data so it can be used later. A hard disk drive provides long-term, nonvolatile storage and keeps files even when the computer is powered off. RAM is temporary volatile memory, Task Manager shows running processes and system information, and hardware IDs recorded on boards are not the best example of user data storage.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that storage devices provide “long-term, nonvolatile, or persistent storage options,” meaning they do not lose data when powered off. It also states that HDDs are used for “permanent storage and quick access” and hold user data and files the system needs.

Gaming monitors are often described using refresh rates, which are measured in hertz (Hz), often specified in MHz for related processing frequencies. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide states:

" Monitor refresh rate refers to how many times per second the screen updates, usually measured in Hz. "

" MHz (megahertz) is used for various frequencies, including GPU and monitor refresh processing. "

GPU and RAM refer to hardware components, TB measures storage, and MHz relates to the frequency, applicable for monitor performance metrics.

Because the pay rate is fixed and does not change for all workers, it is best represented as a constant in code. Constants are variables whose values do not change during execution.

“Constants are used in programming to represent fixed values that do not change during the run of a program.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Development Guide

Correct answer: C

The correct answer is C. Configuring automatic software updates. Automatic updates help keep the operating system and applications patched against known security flaws. This is proactive because it reduces exposure before an attack occurs. Cloud backup helps with data recovery, but it does not directly prevent online threats. Updating subscription software may help in some cases, such as antivirus software, but the broader and stronger proactive security measure is automatic software updates. Installing remote access software can increase risk if it is not properly secured.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide states that device hardening “starts with keeping the software up-to-date” and lists patching software as a security-hardening action. It also warns that some updates address “critical security flaws” and that ignoring them can make a PC vulnerable to Internet-based attacks.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Solid-state drives (SSDs) use flash memory, which is non-magnetic and non-volatile. They have no moving parts, unlike HDDs, which use magnetic platters.”

It further notes:

“Conventional hard drives have spinning platters and read/write heads, whereas SSDs use flash memory. SSDs are faster but generally more expensive than their HDD counterparts.”

Therefore, SSD (solid-state drive) meets all the listed requirements.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 1: Core Hardware Components — “Exploring Storage and Expansion Devices” (pp. 35–60).

A printer is an output device because it receives digital data from a computer and converts it into a printed physical format (such as paper).

“Output devices display or reproduce information from the computer. Examples include monitors, speakers, and printers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: B

The correct answer is A. CPU. The CPU, or central processing unit, is the processor that controls and directs computer activities. The operating system provides instructions, and the CPU processes them. An HDD stores data, RAM temporarily stores active data and instructions, and a NIC provides network connectivity. Only the CPU executes instructions.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that the role of the CPU is “to control and direct all the activities of the computer” and that the terms “processor” and “CPU” are interchangeable. It also explains that the processor “just does what it’s instructed to do.”

A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a hardware address assigned to a network interface card. It follows a 48-bit hexadecimal format usually displayed as six pairs separated by colons or hyphens:

“MAC addresses typically appear as 00:50:09:2D:4D:94.”

192.68.10.24 is an IPv4 address, fe80:102d:cd62:5434:82ae is an IPv6 address, and 0x3476 is simply a hexadecimal number, not a MAC address.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly defines Platform as a Service (PaaS) as the most appropriate for developers seeking a managed coding environment:

“Platform as a Service (PaaS) adds a layer to IaaS that includes software development tools such as runtime environments. Because of this, it can be very helpful to software developers; the vendor manages the various hardware platforms. This frees up the software developer to focus on building their application and scaling it.”

It also provides examples:

“Examples of PaaS include Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Red Hat OpenShift, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Engine Yard, and Heroku.”

This clearly shows that PaaS allows developers to focus on writing code without managing the underlying infrastructure—exactly what the question describes.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 9: Cloud Computing and Artificial Intelligence — Section “Cloud Services” and Table 9.1 (pp. 494–496).

Browsers store previously loaded pages in their cache to improve performance. If outdated content is cached, clearing the cache forces the browser to load the latest version from the server.

“Clearing the browser cache removes stored versions of web pages and resolves display issues caused by outdated content.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide classifies critical data as essential information that organizations depend on for daily functioning:

“Critical data is information without which an organization cannot function effectively. Examples include customer records, transaction data, and operational databases. The loss or corruption of such data can significantly impact business continuity.”

This type of data differs from “big data,” which refers to massive data sets used for analytics, and from “monetized data,” which refers to data sold or used for financial gain.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 12: Data Continuity and Computer Support — “Understanding Data Importance and Critical Data” (pp. 619–621).

Changing the router ' s password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide:

“Changing Default Usernames and Passwords — The first thing a potential hacker will try to use is the default username or password for a device. Always change them.”

It also emphasizes:

“Enabling passwords and changing default usernames and passwords are essential password management best practices.”

Therefore, the correct action after server setup is to change the default usernames and passwords to secure the system.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Managing Passwords” (pp. 594–595).

A touch screen functions as both an input and output device. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

" A touchscreen display is a hybrid device combining input and output. It shows visual output like a standard monitor but also allows the user to interact directly by touching the screen. "

" Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals (e.g., keyboard, mouse, touchscreen). "

" Output devices show results from the computer ' s processing (e.g., monitor, printer, touchscreen). "

Touchscreens display information (output) and receive user input through touch (input). They do not perform storage, networking, processing, or logging.

The largest unit is determined by converting all values to the same unit:

2TB = 2,000GB

100GB = 100GB

4,000MB = 4GB

50KB = 0.00005GB

Thus, 2TB is the largest. As described in the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Study Guide:

“Data storage capacity is measured using standard units such as KB, MB, GB, and TB, where 1TB = 1,000GB.”

Encryption protects data by encoding it, so it can only be accessed or read by someone with the proper key or password. It ensures confidentiality during file transfers over insecure networks like the internet.

“Encryption is used to protect data in transit, ensuring that only authorized parties can read the content during transmission.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answer: C

A firewall can block traffic between workstations if it ' s not properly configured. If a user cannot connect from one device to another on the network, it is likely that the firewall settings are preventing this communication.

“Firewalls control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If improperly configured, they may block legitimate access between devices.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Database – Not related to connectivity

C. Anti-malware – Protects from malicious software, not network configuration

D. Certificate – Used for secure communication, but not basic connectivity

Correct answer: A

The correct answer is A. A flash drive is a small, portable local storage device, so it is useful when a user needs to copy or back up a local file and carry it to another location, such as home. Option B describes cloud storage. Option C describes network file sharing. Option D describes long-term archiving, which is not the best use case for a flash drive because flash drives are small, easy to misplace, and not ideal as long-term archive media.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide defines an external flash drive as “a small, portable SSD that connects through a USB port” and says its “primary benefit is portability.” The guide also lists flash drives as a locally attached backup storage option.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Nearly every program running on a computer is run as a process. This includes system operations, background tasks, and applications… The Task Manager utility helps you see everything that’s running on a computer… If I have an app that’s taking up too much memory, I can click it and then click End Task to shut it down. This is also known as killing the process.”

Thus, process management is the OS function that allows users to stop (terminate) running applications.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Process Management” (pp. 238–240).

Device physical addresses, such as MAC (Media Access Control) addresses, are represented in hexadecimal format. A typical MAC address looks like 00:1A:2B:3C:4D:5E, using base-16 values (0–9 and A–F).

“MAC addresses are 48-bit identifiers assigned to network interfaces, commonly displayed in hexadecimal format.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

Pseudocode represents logic written in plain, human-readable language that resembles programming structure but isn’t actual code:

“Pseudocode allows programmers to design algorithms using readable statements before translating them into actual code.”

Branch and sequence refer to control flow structures, and object-oriented refers to a programming paradigm.

In the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), the section on wireless encryption options explains:

“Exam objective 6.5 specifies that you should know Wi-Fi encryption options such as an open network, preshared key, WPA, WPA2, and WPA3… Focus on understanding that open networks are unsecure, and that WPA3 is better than WPA2, which is better than WPA.”

Further, it describes open networks as:

“Open portals pose security risks to the network and to users on the network. Use them with caution.”

Therefore, to allow anyone in the community to connect freely, the router must be set to Open (no password or encryption).

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Wireless Security Options” (pp. 470–473).

Data monetization refers to generating revenue from data assets, such as selling access or insights from collected user data to third parties.

“Data monetization involves using data to generate economic value — for example, selling user data to vendors or advertisers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: A

This scenario describes a policy where the system enforces password expiration, prompting users to update passwords after a defined period.

“Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to reset their passwords periodically—commonly 30, 60, or 90 days—to mitigate the risk of compromised credentials.” — CompTIA ITF+ Objectives

Password privacy refers to keeping the password confidential.

Password history restricts reuse of old passwords.

Password complexity enforces character rules (e.g., uppercase, numbers, symbols).

Correct answer: D

Presentation software (e.g., Microsoft PowerPoint, Google Slides) is specifically designed to display information to an audience in a visual and organized format, making it ideal for meetings.

“Presentation software is used to create slide-based content that can be projected or shared in meetings to communicate ideas visually and effectively.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

An access point is a networking hardware device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or related standards. It helps extend the range of a wireless network by creating additional coverage areas. This is directly outlined in CompTIA ITF+ documentation:

“A wireless access point (AP) is a device that allows wireless clients to connect to a wired network. It serves to extend or broaden the wireless coverage.”

In contrast:

A modem connects to the internet via an ISP.

A server provides network services, not range.

A host firewall protects a single device or network; it does not expand connectivity.

Thus, the most appropriate answer is D.

When a system administrator needs to troubleshoot a user’s laptop remotely, especially over a VPN, they would use remote assistance software. This allows full or partial control over the target system for diagnostic and support tasks.

“Remote assistance software enables support personnel to remotely access and control another computer to perform diagnostics or provide help, often used in IT support scenarios.” — CompTIA ITF+ Guide

Correct answer: D

The most important consideration when opening a file on an Operating System Graphical User Interface (OS GUI) is the file extension. A file extension identifies the type of file and determines which software application can open it. In the official CompTIA ITF+ Student Guide, it is stated that:

“The last part of the file name represents an extension, which describes what type of file it is and is used by Windows to associate the file with an application.”

“Files are usually opened by double-clicking them. You may want to open a file in a software product other than the default, however. When you right-click a file, the shortcut menu displays a list of suitable choices, or you can choose Open With and browse for a different application. You can also use the Default Programs applet to configure file associations.”

“Do not change a file ' s extension if it is shown. If you delete or change the extension, the file will not be associated with the correct program for opening it.”

This means the OS uses the file extension to decide which application to use to open a file. Changing or deleting the extension can result in the file not opening properly because it no longer matches the program expected to open it.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly states:

“Assembly language is the lowest level of code in which people can write. It allows the developer to provide instructions directly to the hardware.”

Furthermore, in the Exam Essentials section of the same chapter, it emphasizes:

“Know which programming language is best for direct hardware access. For direct hardware access, a low-level programming language such as assembly is the best.”

Therefore, assembly (assembled) languages offer the highest level of hardware optimization because they operate closest to machine code and interact directly with CPU instructions.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Assembly Language” (pp. 356–357).

Chapter 6: Exam Essentials (p. 378).

Input devices allow users to interact with the computer by sending data to it. The most common input devices for a desktop PC setup are:

Mouse – allows the user to point, click, and interact with the GUI.

Keyboard – used to enter text and commands.

“Input devices such as the keyboard and mouse are essential for entering data into a computer.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options explained:

A. Printer – Output device

D. CPU – Core processing unit, not an input device

E. Speaker – Output device

F. SSD – Storage device

Correct answers: B and C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) defines hexadecimal as follows:

“The hexadecimal notational system, or base-16… In hex, the numbers 0 to 9 are used, just like in decimal. However, the letters A to F are used to represent decimal numbers 10 through 15.”

This directly confirms that hexadecimal uses digits 0–9 and letters A–F.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Notational Systems” (pp. 357–359).

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Remote support software allows technicians to connect to a user’s computer from another location, troubleshoot issues, install applications, and perform updates without physically being at the same site.”

Additionally, the review question section confirms:

“You are setting up a technical support help desk for a new app. What type of software should you get to help the technicians fix problems more effectively?

Answer: Remote support.”

Thus, the technician in another state uses remote support software to perform the installation.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Remote Support Software” (pp. 347–348).

For locations without cable or cellular towers, satellite internet is the most viable solution. Satellite does not require terrestrial infrastructure beyond a dish and has global coverage.

“Satellite is often used in remote or rural locations where wired and cellular connectivity is not available. It uses a dish to communicate with orbiting satellites for internet access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Fiber optic and IDSL require ground cabling.

Cellular requires nearby towers, which the scenario rules out.

Correct answer: D. Satellite

An e-reader is specifically designed for reading digital books using e-ink displays, which are easy on the eyes and readable in bright sunlight. They are lightweight, power-efficient, and ideal for book reading.

“E-readers use electronic ink displays for reading digital books, providing long battery life and excellent visibility in various lighting conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

Privacy involves protecting personal or sensitive information from being disclosed without consent. Sharing individuals’ birthdays and home addresses—even if they are public figures—violates the privacy principle.

“Privacy ensures that personal data is collected, used, and shared responsibly and legally. Exposing personal information in public forums can breach this principle.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Objectives

Correct answer: C

This scenario describes a situation where a user has already successfully logged into the system (i.e., has been authenticated) but cannot access a particular network resource (the shared folder). This falls under the concept of authorization, which determines what actions or resources a user is permitted to access after authentication.

“Authorization is the process of granting or denying access to network resources once the user has been authenticated.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Authentication verifies the identity of the user (e.g., username and password).

Authorization controls access rights (e.g., shared folders, files).

Accounting tracks user activity (e.g., audit logs).

Non-repudiation ensures actions or transactions cannot be denied later.

Therefore, the correct answer is B: Authorization.