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DQ-1220 DAMA Data Quality Specialist Question and Answers

Question # 4

An application that attempts to predict future outcomes through probability estimates is called:

A.

Reactive analytics

B.

Descriptive analytics

C.

Predictive analytics

D.

Dimensional analytics

E.

Just-in-time reporting

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Question # 5

In 2009, ARMA International published GARP for managing records and information. GARP stands for:

A.

Generally Accepted Recordkeeping Principles

B.

Generally Available Recordkeeping Practices

C.

G20 Approved Recordkeeping Principles

D.

Global Accredited Recordkeeping Principles

E.

Gregarious Archive of Recordkeeping Processes

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Question # 6

In data modelling practice, entities are linked by:

A.

Indexes

B.

Triggers

C.

Cardinality

D.

Relationships

E.

Processes

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Question # 7

Three common interaction models for data integration are:

A.

Point to point, wheel and spoke, public and share

B.

Record and pass, copy and send, read and write

C.

Plane to point, harvest and seed, publish and subscribe

D.

Point to point, hub and spoke, publish and subscribe

E.

Straight copy, curved copy, roundabout copy

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Question # 8

Three source systems provide different telephone numbers for the same customer. An MDM hub selects one number according to approved source-priority rules. This is an example of:

A.

Survivorship

B.

Encryption

C.

Normalization

D.

Archiving

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Question # 9

Which of the following is the best example of a 'documented data quality rule'?

A.

Each transaction data file holding customer transactions must be kept confidential to the authorized users within the operations team

B.

Every transaction recorded must be processed by 12:05 am by authorized personnel who will validate balances and data delivery to branches

C.

All transaction data in the core banking systems need to be processed at 12:05 am each day regardless of the business calendar day and timezone

D.

The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to be ready by 12:05 am in order to feed the overnight batching window, to ensure branches have access to actual customer balances

E.

The transaction data from all satellite systems needs to reflect actual customer balances each morning

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Question # 10

Obfuscation or redaction of data is the practice of:

A.

Reducing the size of large databases

B.

Selling data

C.

Making information anonymous or removing sensitive information

D.

Making information available to the public

E.

Organizing data into meaningful groups

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Question # 11

A report displaying birth date contains possible, but incorrect values. What is a possible explanation?

A.

Birth date is populated from two source systems, both of which record the birth date in the birth date field

B.

Birth date is populated from a single source system, which does not contain birth date

C.

Birth date is populated from a single source system, which contains missing values

D.

Birth date is populated from a single source system, where the date field is an offset value of 1601

E.

Birth date is populated from two source systems, one of which stores marriage date in the birth date field

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Question # 12

Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:

A.

Create, read, normalization, user access

B.

Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality

C.

Create, read, update, delete

D.

Capacity, design, normalization, user access

E.

Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics

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Question # 13

The search function associated with a document management store is failing to return known artefacts. This is due to a failure of:

A.

Maintaining appropriate metadata on each document

B.

Maintaining public access to all documents in the document management store

C.

Effective data quality metrics

D.

Data privacy and confidentiality procedures

E.

Business intelligence implementation

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Question # 14

A customer table contains 50,000 records. Mandatory Tax Identification Number values are missing from 2,500 records. Which metric most directly measures the defect?

A.

Consistency percentage

B.

Completeness percentage

C.

Uniqueness percentage

D.

Reasonableness percentage

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Question # 15

Which of the following is a reason why organisations do not dispose of non-value-adding information?

A.

The organisation's data quality benchmark diminishes

B.

The metadata repository can not be updated

C.

The information is never out of date

D.

Storage is cheap and easily expanded

E.

Data modelling the content is hard to reproduce

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Question # 16

Multiple data warehouses, lakes, and swamps are an indicator that the organisation values:

A.

Data modelling over data architecture

B.

Data quality over master data management

C.

Technology acquisition over a single point of truth

D.

Processes over a single golden record

E.

Security over enterprise data management

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Question # 17

Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first month. The reason for this might be:

A.

The automatic deletion of all issues in the database

B.

There are no data issues in the enterprise

C.

Lack of credibility in the data governance process to effect changes

D.

The denial of overtime requests

E.

Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system

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Question # 18

Data Staging areas are populated from source databases using extract functions, transformed and then:

A.

Made ready for review by a data modeller, for physical modelling

B.

Made ready with advanced profiling and reported into a visualisation tool

C.

Made ready for metrics calculations and key performance indicators

D.

Made ready for metadata repository loading

E.

Made ready and loaded into the data warehouse

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Question # 19

A minimal super key is:

A.

Also known as a candidate key, it is a superkey without duplicated attributes.

B.

Any set of attributes without duplicates that uniquely identifies an entity instance.

C.

A synonym for a surrogate key.

D.

A type of advanced index key structure, in the same family as Hash, Heap, B-Tree and Inverted.

E.

Any set of attributes where each attribute that makes up the key is a foreign key in its own right.

F.

An artificial key, made up of several meaningful components to help the reader understand the nature of the entity from the key alone.

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Question # 20

The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom of:

A.

Multiple integration technologies

B.

Multiple data warehouses

C.

Multiple application coding languages

D.

Multiple data owners

E.

Multiple metadata tags

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Question # 21

An Orders table contains an order whose Customer_ID does not exist in the Customer table. Which Data Quality dimension is most directly violated?

A.

Reasonableness

B.

Completeness

C.

Integrity

D.

Currency

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Question # 22

A Data Quality rule states that every active supplier must have a valid tax identifier. Who should approve whether the rule is mandatory for the Supplier domain?

A.

Appropriate business governance/stewardship authority

B.

Any developer working on the database

C.

The network administrator

D.

The storage vendor

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Question # 23

A Data Quality team repeatedly corrects invalid postal codes in the warehouse, but the same errors reappear after every nightly load. What is the most appropriate long-term response?

A.

Increase the number of cleansing scripts in the warehouse

B.

Correct the source or integration process causing the defect

C.

Ignore the issue because cleansing already works

D.

Reduce the frequency of data loads

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Question # 24

A Data Quality incident affects several downstream systems. What should be determined before individual teams independently correct their copies?

A.

The root cause and authoritative point of remediation

B.

Which team has the largest budget

C.

Which system contains the most records

D.

Which copy is easiest to delete

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Question # 25

A Data Quality team finds that 78% of customer complaints are caused by four defect categories out of twenty recorded categories. Which tool is most appropriate for prioritizing improvement activity?

A.

Pareto analysis

B.

Encryption analysis

C.

Normalization analysis

D.

Network segmentation

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Question # 26

When a data quality team has more issues than they can manage, they should look to:

A.

Establish a program of quick wins targeting easy fixes over a short time period

B.

Delete any issue that is greater than 6 months old

C.

Establish a program of quick wins targeting easy fixes over a short time period

D.

Initiate data quality improvement cycles, focusing on achieving incremental improvements

E.

Hire more people

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Question # 27

Who should normally define the business meaning and acceptable quality requirements for a critical customer attribute?

A.

A Business Data Steward working with relevant stakeholders

B.

The network administrator alone

C.

The database optimizer alone

D.

The backup operator alone

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Question # 28

Discovering and documenting metadata about physical data assets provides:

A.

An estimation of balance sheet value of enterprise data

B.

Scoping boundaries of the data dictionary

C.

Insights into the temporal data quality

D.

Information on how data is transformed as it moves between systems

E.

Effective project scope management

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Question # 29

A source application is modified so that a mandatory product identifier can no longer be left blank. Which type of Data Quality action is this?

A.

Preventive control

B.

Detective control only

C.

Historical archiving

D.

Data obfuscation

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Question # 30

A business case for adding a new master data management solution is dependent on achieving greater value from:

A.

Mining golden records

B.

Decentralising shared data as it is closer to where the business needs it

C.

Centralised coordination of shared data vs the data management and integration cost of running another copy of the data.

D.

Avoiding reference data management

E.

Decommissioning all the other systems that manage this data

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Question # 31

What is the purpose of Data Governance?

A.

Ensure that financial performance of the company is improved

B.

Encompass the entire lifecycle of a data asset

C.

Ensure an organization gets value out of its data

D.

Establish processes and functions through which data can be enabled for use and also maintained

E.

To ensure that data is managed properly, according to policies and best practices

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Question # 32

Critical Data is most often used in:

A.

Regulatory, financial, or management reporting

B.

Business operational needs

C.

Measuring product quality and customer satisfaction

D.

Business strategy, especially efforts at competitive differentiation

E.

All of these

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Question # 33

What is Data Stewardship?

A.

A prioritized program of work with scoped boundaries

B.

The creation of compelling vision for Data Management across the enterprise

C.

Refers to the role responsible for creating policies, procedures, and rules that govern data in the organization

D.

A collection of tools that ensure an organization's privacy policy

E.

A position accountable and responsible for data and processes that ensure effective control and use of data assets

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Question # 34

Reference data is often a list of code values with their full names. One example is:

A.

Person age associated with accessibility requirements

B.

State or province associated with the related country

C.

Encrypted code values with the unencrypted data value

D.

Country codes associated with the country names

E.

Master data values encoded into reference values

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Question # 35

A Data Quality process has remained within statistical control limits for six months, but management wants the average defect rate reduced further. What is the most appropriate conclusion?

A.

A stable process may still require deliberate process improvement

B.

Statistical stability proves the process is perfect

C.

All monitoring should stop

D.

Every record outside the average must be deleted

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Question # 36

Two departments use the term "Active Customer" but apply different definitions. Which Data Management capability should be addressed first?

A.

Business glossary governance

B.

Storage compression

C.

Index rebuilding

D.

Network segmentation

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