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CTFL-Foundation ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? 1 credit

A.

Test planning and control

B.

Test implementation & execution

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

D.

Test project closure

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Question # 5

The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits

A.

Percentage of business requirements exercised

B.

Percentage of planned hours worked this week

C.

Percentage of countries that have test scenarios

D.

Percentage of test iterations completed

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Question # 6

Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

A.

Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources.

B.

Developers loose the sense of responsibility and independent testers may become a bottleneck.

C.

Independent testers need extra education and always cost more.

D.

Independent testers will become a bottleneck and introduce problems in incident management.

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Question # 7

A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.

i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.

ii. Testing is outsourced.

iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.

iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.

v. Testing is performed by the business.

vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.

Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit

A.

i, ii, iv, vi

B.

ii, i, v, vi

C.

ii, v, i, iii

D.

i, iv, v, vi

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Question # 8

Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? 1 credit

A.

Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.

B.

Testing is isolated from development.

C.

Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.

D.

Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.

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Question # 9

What is decision table testing?

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Question # 10

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Question # 11

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

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Question # 12

Which of the following would you least expect to form part of the analysis of initial tool costs? 1 credit

A.

Integration with other tools

B.

Learning time required to use the new tool

C.

Tool portability

D.

Evaluation of suitable tools

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Question # 13

Select THREE issues from the options provided that should at least be raised. 1 credit

A.

Has there been sufficient comparison of tools?

B.

What are the problems we are trying to address?

C.

Do we have a set of tool requirements to validate the tool against?

D.

How will the implementation be organized?

E.

Which project will be selected to perform the tool pilot?

F.

Is customized training available?

G.

How will the change process be managed?

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Question # 14

Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit

A.

Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution

B.

Percentage of requirements covered

C.

Lines of code written per developer per day

D.

Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing

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Question # 15

Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

A.

No priority or severity assigned

B.

Incident numbering is manual rather than automated

C.

No mentioning of reproduceability

D.

No classification on type of incident

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Question # 16

Given is the following defect removal chart reported at the end of system testing - showing total defects detected and closed defects (fixed and successfully retested). A number of open defects are classified as critical. All tests have been executed.

Based on the chart above, what is the most appropriate next test phase? 1 credit

A.

Acceptance testing to verify the business process

B.

Acceptance testing to verify operational requirements

C.

Requirements testing as part of testing regulatory compliance

D.

Another system test cycle to verify defect resolution

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Question # 17

Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

A.

All supported credit cards

B.

Language localization

C.

Valid and invalid advances

D.

Usability

E.

Response time

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Question # 18

During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.

What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

A.

The system will fail, causing a defect

B.

If the defect is executed, the system may fail

C.

Loss of money, time, or business reputation

D.

Contractual requirements have not been met by testing

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Question # 19

When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

A.

System and Component test levels only

B.

All 'Developement' test levels, i.e. those before Acceptance testing

C.

Component and Component integration test levels only

D.

All test levels

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Question # 20

A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.

What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

A.

Stress testing

B.

Maintenance testing

C.

Load testing

D.

Usability testing

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Question # 21

In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

A.

Test planning

B.

Test execution

C.

Test management

D.

Test design

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Question # 22

Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? 1 credit

A.

Quality of the specification

B.

Availability of end-users

C.

The costs of hardware and tools

D.

Unknown input quality due to third party development

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Question # 23

Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

A.

Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations

B.

Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system

C.

Activities to deploy the system in the user environment

D.

Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations

E.

Development activities for unit and integration testing

F.

Reviews on requirements documentation

G.

Defining test environment requirements for system testing

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Question # 24

Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits

A.

The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration.

B.

The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.

C.

The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community.

D.

The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.

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Question # 25

Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

A.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK

B.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK

C.

Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

D.

Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK

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Question # 26

Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.

ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.

iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.

iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

A.

(i) and (ii)

B.

(i) and (iv)

C.

(ii) and (iii)

D.

(ii) and (iv)

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Question # 27

Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits

A.

The skills and experience of developers to correct the failures.

B.

The standards used for the requirements specification.

C.

The metrics recorded from testing the capture-replay tool.

D.

The number of testers in the company and their grade.

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Question # 28

What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? 2 credits

A.

16

B.

2

C.

1

D.

63

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Question # 29

What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

A.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B.

Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing

C.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning

D.

Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

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Question # 30

Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

A.

In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.

B.

The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.

C.

The test cases do not cover the key requirements.

D.

The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.

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Question # 31

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test

b. strategy document

c. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource

d. requirements

e. A detailed schedule of testing activities

f. The development deliverables to be tested

g. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

h. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? 1 credit

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

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Question # 32

As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

A.

The expectation is that development testing is not adequate.

B.

Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing.

C.

Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.

D.

Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.

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Question # 33

Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans:

a. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document

b. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements

c. A detailed schedule of testing activities

d. The development deliverables to be tested

e. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when

f. Level of requirements coverage achieved

Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? 1 credit

A.

a

B.

b

C.

c

D.

d

E.

e

F.

f

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Question # 34

Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits

A.

Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis

B.

Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code

C.

Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder

D.

Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort

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Question # 35

Part of the testing strategy indicates that you are going to be using systematic test design techniques. Your manager has asked that you present the main advantages of using these techniques at the next board meeting. Identify THREE main benefits of using systematic test design techniques within this company. 2 credits (for 2 out of 3 correct 1 credit)

A.

Easier to quickly adapt testing to changing requirements compared to experienced-based testing

B.

Targets certain types of faults

C.

Will guide experienced testers to find defects

D.

Provides a way to differentiate depth of testing based on product risks by using different techniques

E.

More enhanced documentation and therefore higher repeatability and reproducibility

F.

Will make non-systematic testing redundant

G.

Will reduce the need for early reviews

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Question # 36

You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

A.

A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.

B.

A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project.

C.

A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects.

D.

A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.

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Question # 37

Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?

A.

Defects

B.

Trends analysis

C.

Test Effectiveness

D.

Time Spent Testing

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Question # 38

Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management..?

A.

Status accounting of configuration items

B.

Auditing conformance to ISO9001

C.

Identification of test versions

D.

Record of changes to documentation over time

E.

Controlled library access

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Question # 39

Which is not the fundamental test process?

A.

Planning and control

B.

Test closure activities

C.

Analysis and design

D.

None

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Question # 40

Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

A.

A person with the ability to complete tasks

B.

A quality assurance officer

C.

A person with in-depth technical skills

D.

A person who brings new ideas to the team

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Question # 41

In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation. Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits

A.

Provide more time for testing in the schedule

B.

Allow people to take some time off

C.

Introduce entry criteria to the testing phase

D.

Organize a meeting with senior management in which they address the importance of good testing for this project

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Question # 42

You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

A.

They are a cheap resource

B.

They have good testing skills

C.

This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system

D.

They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases

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Question # 43

The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit

A.

ISO 9126

B.

IEEE 829

C.

BS 7925/2

D.

DO-178B

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Question # 44

Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

A.

If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing.

B.

If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process.

C.

TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project.

D.

TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.

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Question # 45

A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits

A.

Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy

B.

Defined according to the maturity model used

C.

Most visible to stakeholders

D.

Low costs actions first

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