Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?
Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts
Average time to provision user accounts
Password reset volume per month
Average account lockout time
The average time to provision user accounts is the most useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management (IAM) process, because it reflects how quickly and smoothly the process can grant access to the appropriate users. The average time to provision user accounts can be calculated by dividing the total time spent on provisioning user accounts by the number of user accounts provisioned in a given period. A lower average time indicates a more efficient IAM process, as it means that users can access the resources they need without unnecessary delays or errors. A higher average time may indicate problems or bottlenecks in the IAM process, such as manual steps, complex workflows, lack of automation, or insufficient resources. The average time to provision user accounts can also be compared across different applications, systems, or business units to identify areas for improvement or best practices. The other options are less useful indicators to measure the efficiency of an IAM process. The number of tickets for provisioning new accounts shows the demand for the IAM process, but not how well the process meets the demand. The password reset volume per month shows the frequency of password-related issues, but not how effectively the IAM process handles them. The average account lockout time shows the impact of account lockouts on user productivity, but not howefficiently the IAM process prevents or resolves them. References = Top Identity and Access Management MetricsÂ
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Improving risk awareness
Obtaining buy-in from risk owners
Leveraging existing metrics
Optimizing risk treatment decisions
 The main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs) is improving risk awareness, as it helps to communicate the risk exposure, appetite, and tolerance of the organization to the relevant parties. KRIs are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. By involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, the risk practitioner can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the stakeholder expectations, needs, and objectives, and that they reflect the most significant risks that affect the organization. This also helps to foster a risk culture and a shared understanding of risk among the stakeholders, which can enhance the risk management process and performance. The other options are not the main benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs, although they may be some of the outcomes or advantages of doing so. Obtaining buy-in from risk owners, leveraging existing metrics, and optimizing risk treatment decisions are all important aspects of risk management, but they are not the primary reason for involving stakeholders in the selection of KRIs. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide; The 10 Types of Stakeholders That You Meet in Business; What are Stakeholders? Stakeholder Definition | ASQ
A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….
event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?
The difference In the management practices between each company
The cloud computing environment is shared with another company
The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract
The organizational culture differences between each country
The most important risk consideration when the global company’s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information to a cloud computing environment in the event of a disaster is that the cloud computing environment is shared with another company. A cloud computing environment is a service model that provides on-demand access to a shared pool of computing resources, such as servers, storage, networks, and applications. A shared cloud computing environment means that the same computing resources are used by multiple customers or tenants, and that the data and activities of one customer may affect or be affected by the data and activities of another customer. This may pose a significant risk to the security, privacy, and availability of the customer information, as it may be exposed, accessed, modified, or deleted by unauthorized or malicious parties. The other options are not as important as the cloud computing environment being shared with another company, as they are related to the differences, agreements, or cultures of the company or the country, not the environment or the platform of the customer information transfer. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?
Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.
Update the risk register with the results.
Prepare a business case for the response options.
Identify resources for implementing responses.
The next step for the risk practitioner after identifying risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios is to update the risk register with the results. The risk register is a document that records the details of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, likelihood, impact, and responses. By updating the risk register with the results of the risk workshop, the risk practitioner can ensure that the risk information is current, accurate, and complete, and that the risk owners and responses are clearly defined and communicated. Developing a mechanism for monitoring residual risk, preparing a business case for the response options, and identifying resources for implementing responses are possible steps that may follow the updating of the risk register, but they are not the next step. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:
vulnerability scans.
recurring vulnerabilities.
vulnerabilities remediated,
new vulnerabilities identified.
 According to the Key Performance Indicators for Vulnerability Management article, the number of vulnerabilities remediated is a key performance indicator that measures the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program. This KPI indicates how many vulnerabilities have been successfully mitigated or fixed within a given time frame. A higher number can imply that the organization is effectively managing its exposures and reducing its risk level. The number of vulnerabilities remediated can also be compared with the number of new vulnerabilities identified to evaluate the progress and performance of the vulnerability remediation program. References = Key Performance Indicators for Vulnerability Management
The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:
assess effectiveness of different projects.
define the risk assessment methodology.
ensure assets have low residual risk.
account for identified key risk factors.
 A risk register is a tool used to identify, assess, and prioritize risks in an organization. It typically includes a detailed description of each identified risk, an assessment of its likelihood and potential impact, and a plan for managing or mitigating the risk1. A risk register is usually created at the beginning of a project or a process, and is updated regularly throughout the risk management life cycle2.
The main reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to account for identified key risk factors. This means that the risk register helps to:
Document and track all the relevant risks that may affect the project or the organization, and their sources, causes, and consequences
Provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk profile and exposure of the project or the organization
Support the decision-making and prioritization of the risk responses and controls, based on the risk appetite and tolerance of the project or the organization
Communicate and report the risk information and status to the stakeholders and regulators, and ensure transparency and accountability
Enable the continuous improvement and learning from the risk management process and outcomes3
References = What is a risk register and why is it important?, Purpose of a risk register: Here’s what a risk register is used for, Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2024], Risk Register - Wikipedia
The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:
ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.
benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.
facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.
IT control status reporting is the process of collecting and analyzing data about the effectiveness and efficiency of IT controls. IT controls are the policies, procedures, and practices that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information. IT control status reporting helps to monitor the performance of IT controls against the predefined objectives and criteria, and to identify any gaps or issues that need to be addressed. IT control status reporting also provides information to the stakeholders about the current status and progress of IT control implementation and improvement.
The primary purpose of IT control status reporting is to facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states of IT controls. This means that IT control status reporting helps to evaluate the gap between the actual and expected performance of IT controls, and to determine the actions and resources needed to close the gap. IT control status reporting also helps to align the IT controls with the business goals and strategies, and to ensure that the IT controls are delivering value to the organization. By comparing the current and desired states of IT controls, IT control status reporting enables continuous improvement and optimization of IT control processes and outcomes.
The other options are not the primary purpose of IT control status reporting, but rather some of the benefits or outcomes of it. IT control status reporting can help to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy,but it is not the main reason for doing it. IT governance is the framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and relationships among the stakeholders involved in ITdecision making and oversight. IT control status reporting can support IT governance by providing relevant and reliable information to the stakeholders, and by demonstrating the accountability and transparency of IT control activities. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as IT governance, and it is not the only way to ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.
IT control status reporting can also assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts, but it is not the main objective of it. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of IT controls, and provides recommendations for improvement. IT control status reporting can provide input and evidence to the internal audit process, and help to identify the areas of IT control that need further review or testing. IT control status reporting can also help to monitor and track the implementation of the audit findings and recommendations, and to verify the results of the remediation efforts. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as internal audit, and it is not the only source of information for internal audit.
Finally, IT control status reporting can benchmark IT controls with industry standards, but it is not the main goal of it. Industry standards are the best practices or guidelines that define the minimum requirements or expectations for IT control performance and quality. IT control status reporting can help to compare the IT controls with the industry standards, and to identify the areas of IT control that need to be enhanced or updated. IT control status reporting can also help to demonstrate the compliance or conformance of IT controls with the industry standards, and to provide assurance to the external parties or regulators. However, IT control status reporting is not the same as industry standards, and it is not the only way to benchmark IT controls. References =
Service Reporting in ITIL: Process, Objectives and Examples - KnowledgeHut
Anatomy of an effective status report - Project Management Institute
How to Create a Project Status Report [Template & Examples]
Communicating Document Control Progress on a Project
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:
ratio of disabled to active user accounts.
percentage of users with multiple user accounts.
average number of access entitlements per user account.
average time between user transfers and access updates.
The average time between user transfers and access updates is a trend that would cause the greatest concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization’s user access control processes, as it indicates thedelay or inefficiency in updating the user access rights and privileges according to the user’s current role and responsibilities. This can result in unauthorized or excessive access to the organization’s information assets, and increase the risk of data leakage, fraud, or misuse. The user access control processes should ensure that the user access rights and privileges are reviewed and modified regularly, and especially when the user’s role or status changes, such as transfer, promotion, demotion, or termination. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question241. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 241. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 241.
What are the MOST essential attributes of an effective Key control indicator (KCI)?
Flexibility and adaptability
Measurability and consistency
Robustness and resilience
Optimal cost and benefit
Measurability and consistency are the most essential attributes of an effective key control indicator (KCI), because they ensure that the KCI can be quantified, compared, and reported over time. A KCI should be able to measure the performance or effectiveness of a control in mitigating a risk and provide consistent results across different periods, sources, and methods. The other options are not the most essential attributes, although they may also be desirable for a KCI. Flexibility and adaptability are not the most essential attributes, because they may compromise the reliability and comparability of the KCI. Robustness and resilience are not the most essential attributes, because they are more relevant for the control itself, not the KCI. Optimal cost and benefit are not the most essential attributes, because they are more related to the value and feasibility of the KCI, not the quality and accuracy of the KCI. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers
Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?
Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite
The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios
merging risk scenarios have been identified
Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance
The best indicator that additional or improved controls are needed in the environment is when risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation in performance or outcomes relative to the achievement of objectives. Risk events and losses are the negative consequences of risk that have occurred or are expected to occur. When risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance, it means that the existing controls are not sufficient or effective to prevent or mitigate the risk, and that the organization is exposed to unacceptable levels of risk that could impair its ability to achieve its objectives. Therefore, additional or improved controls are needed to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. Management decreasing organizational risk appetite, the risk register and portfolio not including all risk scenarios, and emerging risk scenarios being identified are not as clear and direct indicators that additional or improved controls are needed in the environment, as they do not necessarily reflect the actual performance or outcomes of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 41.
When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following is the BEST way to promote a risk-aware culture?
Emphasize individual responsibility for managing risk.
Communicate incident escalation procedures.
Illustrate methods to identify threats and vulnerabilities.
Challenge the effectiveness of business processes.
Emphasizing individual responsibility ensures that every employee understands their role in managing risk, which is fundamental to cultivating a risk-aware culture.
Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?
The business case for the use of loT
The loT threat landscape
Policy development for loT
The network that loT devices can access
Risk scenarios: Narratives that describe potential risk events, their causes, consequences, and likelihood1.
Internet of Things (IoT): A network of interconnected devices, software, sensors, and other things that communicate and exchange data without human intervention2.
IoT threat landscape: The range and types of threats and attacks that target IoT devices, systems, and networks3.
The most helpful thing to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of IoT technology in an organization is the IoT threat landscape. The IoT threat landscape provides a comprehensive and current overview of the potential sources, methods, and impacts of cyberattacks on IoT devices, systems, and networks. Reviewing the IoT threat landscape can help an organization to:
Identify the most relevant and prevalent threats and vulnerabilities that affect IoT technology, such as weak passwords, insecure interfaces, insufficient data protection, poor device management, or lack of encryption4.
Assess the likelihood and impact of different types of attacks, such as malware infections, denial-of-service attacks, data breaches, unauthorized access, or sabotage4.
Prioritize the most critical and urgent risks that need to be addressed and mitigated.
Develop realistic and plausible risk scenarios that reflect the actual IoT threat environment and the organization’s specific context and objectives.
The other options are not as helpful as the IoT threat landscape when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of IoT technology in an organization, because they do not provide a comprehensive and current view of the potential threats and attacks that target IoT technology. The business case for the use of IoT, which is the justification and rationale for adopting IoT technology based on the expected benefits, costs, and risks, may help to understand the value and purpose of IoT technology for the organization, but it does not provide detailed information on the specific threats and vulnerabilities that affect IoT technology. Policy development for IoT, which is the process of creating and implementing rules and guidelines for the governance, management, and security of IoT technology, may help to establish the standards and expectations for IoT technology within the organization, but it does not provide an overview of the external threats and attacks that target IoT technology. The network that IoT devices can access, which is the infrastructure and system that enables the connectivity and communicationof IoT devices, may help to identify the potential entry points and attack vectors for IoT threats, but it does not provide a complete picture of the types and impacts of IoT threats.
References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, What is the Internet of Things (IoT)? With Examples | Coursera, Top IoT security issues and challenges (2022) – Thales, 8 Internet of Things Threats and Security Risks - SecurityScorecard
Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Engaging sponsorship by senior management
Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization
Including input from risk and business unit management
Developing in collaboration with internal audit
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics used by organizations to monitor and assess potential risks that may impact their objectives and performance. KRIs also provide early warning signals that help organizations identify, analyze, and address risks before they escalate into significant issues1. Effective KRIs are thosethat are relevant, measurable, predictable, comparable, and informational2. The most important factor for developing effective KRIs is including input from risk and business unit management, as they are the persons who have the best understanding of the risk environment, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk factors and impacts of the organization. By including input from risk and business unit management, the organization can ensure that the KRIs are aligned with the organization’s strategy, vision, and mission, and that they reflect the current and emerging risks and their potential consequences. Engaging sponsorship by senior management, utilizing data and resources internal to the organization, and developing in collaboration with internal audit are not the most important factors for developing effective KRIs, as they do not provide the same level of insight and relevance as including input from risk and business unit management. Engaging sponsorship by senior management is a factor that involves obtaining the support and approval of the senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance. Engaging sponsorship by senior management can help to promote the importance and value of KRIs, and to ensure their communication and implementation across the organization, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are appropriate and accurate for the organization’s risk profile. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization is a factor that involves using the information and assets that are available within the organization to support or enable the development of KRIs. Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization can help to enhance the quality and reliability of KRIs, and to reduce the cost and complexity of obtaining external data and resources, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are comprehensive and consistent with the organization’s risk environment. Developing in collaboration with internal audit is a factor that involves working with the internal audit function that provides independent and objective assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s risk management. Developing in collaboration with internal audit can help to improve the validity and compliance of KRIs, and to provide feedback and recommendations for improvement, but it does not ensure that the KRIs are relevant and realistic for the organization’s risk objectives and strategies. References = 1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture2: KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva3: [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Key Risk Indicators, pp. 181-185.]
An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:
increased inherent risk.
higher risk management cost
decreased residual risk.
lower risk management cost.
The risk appetite of an organization is the amount and type of risk that it is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives1. Technology risk is the risk related to the use of information and technology in theorganization2. If an organization has raised its risk appetite for technology risk, it means that it is willing to accept more risk in exchange for more potential benefits from technology initiatives. This would likely result in lower risk management cost, as the organization would spend less on implementing and maintaining controls to mitigate technology risk. The other options are not the most likely results of raising the risk appetite for technology risk. Increased inherent risk is the risk before considering the effect of controls3, and it is not directly affected by the risk appetite. Higher risk management cost would be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would reduce its risk management efforts. Decreased residual risk is the risk after considering the effect of controls3, and it would also be the opposite of the expected outcome, as the organization would accept more risk exposure. References = Organisations must define their IT risk appetite and tolerance; IT Risk Resources; CRISC | What Accurate CRISC Free Download Is
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses?
Incident reports
Cost-benefit analysis
Risk tolerance
Control objectives
Risk tolerance is the most useful input when evaluating the appropriateness of risk responses, as it defines the acceptable level of risk for the organization and guides the selection of the optimal risk response. Incident reports, cost-benefit analysis, and control objectives are also useful inputs, but they are not the most useful, as they provide information on the actual or potential impact, cost, and effectiveness of the risk responses, but not the desired level of risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of a risk awareness program?
To demonstrate senior management support
To enhance organizational risk culture
To increase awareness of risk mitigation controls
To clearly define ownership of risk
A risk awareness program is a set of activities and communication methods that aim to increase the understanding and knowledge of risk among the stakeholders of an organization. The primary objective of a risk awareness program is to enhance the organizational risk culture, which is the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that influence how risk is perceived and managed in the organization. A risk awareness program can help to promote a risk-aware culture by:
•Educating stakeholders on the concepts and benefits of risk management
•Aligning risk management with the organization’s vision, mission, and objectives
•Encouraging stakeholder participation and collaboration in risk management processes
•Fostering a positive attitude towards risk taking and learning from failures
•Reinforcing risk management roles and responsibilities
•Recognizing and rewarding good risk management practices
To reduce costs, an organization is combining the second and third tines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this situation?
The risk governance approach of the second and third lines of defense may differ.
The independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised.
Cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments.
The new structure is not aligned to the organization's internal control framework.
 The greatest concern with the situation of combining the second and third lines of defense in a new department that reports to a recently appointed C-level executive is that the independence of the internal third line of defense may be compromised. The second line of defense is the function that oversees and supports the risk management activities of the first line of defense, which is the function that owns and manages the risks. The third line of defense is the function that provides independent assurance of the risk management activities, such as the internal audit function. Combining the second and third lines of defense in a new department may compromise the independence of the internal third line of defense, as it may create a conflict of interest, bias, or influence among the functions, and impair the objectivity, credibility, and quality of the assurance activities. The independence of the internal third line of defense is essential for ensuring that the risk management activities are performed in a consistent and effective manner, and that the issues and gaps are identified and reported without fear or favor. The risk governanceapproach of the second and third lines of defense may differ, cost reductions may negatively impact the productivity of other departments, and the new structure may not be aligned to the organization’s internal control framework are also concerns, but they are not as great as the compromise of the independence of the internal third line of defense, as they do not directly affect the assurance and accountability of the risk management activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?
Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.
Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.
Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.
Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.
According to the CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards, the first thing that a risk practitioner should do when an organization decides to use a cloud service is to review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria. This is because the vendor selection process and vetting criteria are essential steps to ensure that the cloud service provider meets the organization’s requirements and expectations, and that the risks associated with the cloud service are identified and managed. By reviewing the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, the risk practitioner can evaluate the quality, reliability, security, and compliance of the cloud service provider, and determine if the cloud service is suitable and beneficial for the organization. The risk practitioner can also identify any gaps or weaknesses in the vendor selection process and vetting criteria, and recommend improvements or alternatives accordingly. References = CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG Flashcards
A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?
Mean time to restore (MTTR)
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Recovery point objective (RPO)
Mean time to detect (MTTD)
The recovery time objective (RTO) is the planned recovery time for a process or system which should occur before reaching the business process’s maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) or maximum allowable outage (MAO). The RTO must be aligned with the MAO to ensure that the continuity of the business process is not compromised by a prolonged outage. The RTO is determined by the business impact analysis (BIA) based on the criticality and urgency of the business process and its dependencies. The RTO also helps to select and implement appropriate recovery methods and procedures for the process or system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 6: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 6.2: ITRisk Reporting, Page 307; What is the difference between RPO, RTO, and MTD? - Tandem Blog.
Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?
Business management approval of change requests
Separation of development and production environments
Requirement of an implementation rollback plan
IT management review of implemented changes
The most essential factor for an effective change control environment is the separation of development and production environments. This ensures that changes are tested and verified in a controlled environment before being implemented in the live environment, reducing the risk of errors, failures, and unauthorized modifications. Business management approval of change requests, requirement of an implementation rollback plan, and IT management review of implemented changes are important elements of change control, but they are not as essential as the separation of environments. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1.2, page 123.
Implement a new risk assessment process.
Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.
Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).
Communicate the new risk profile.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Changes in organizational structure often affect risk appetite, which defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to accept. Revalidating the corporate risk appetite ensures that the organization’s risk-taking aligns with its new structure, strategic goals, and culture. While reviewing KRIs and communicating the risk profile are important, they follow after confirming risk appetite alignment. Implementing a new assessment process is not always necessary unless structural changes fundamentally affect risk assessment scopeã€5:83, 5:104†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?
Risk mitigation
Risk avoidance
Risk acceptance
Risk transfer
Risk transferinvolves shifting the responsibility for managing specific risks to a third party. By outsourcing the security function, the organization transfers the associated risk to a vendor specializing in security management.
Which of the following will be MOST effective to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices?
An acceptable use policy for personal devices
Required user log-on before synchronizing data
Enforced authentication and data encryption
Security awareness training and testing
The risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices is that the data may be accessed, disclosed, or modified by unauthorized parties, resulting in confidentiality, integrity, or availability breaches1. The most effective way to mitigate this risk is to enforce authentication and data encryption on the personal devices that store company data. Authentication is a process that verifies the identity of the user or device that is accessing the data, and prevents unauthorized access by requiring a password, a code, a biometric factor, or a combination of these2. Data encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable format, and requires a key to decrypt and restore the data to its original format3. By enforcing authentication and data encryption on the personal devices, the organization can ensure that only authorized users or devices can access the company data, and that the data is protected from unauthorized disclosure or modification even if the device is lost or stolen4. An acceptable use policy for personal devices, required user log-on before synchronizing data, and security awareness training and testing are not the most effective ways to mitigate the risk associated with the loss of company data stored on personal devices, as they do not provide the same level of protection asauthentication and data encryption. An acceptable use policy for personal devices is a document that defines the rules and guidelines for using personal devices for work purposes, such as the types of devices, data, and applications that are allowed, the security measures that are required,and the responsibilities and liabilities of the users and the organization5. An acceptable use policy for personal devices can help to establish acommon understanding and expectation for the use of personal devices, but it does not enforce or guarantee the compliance or effectiveness of the security measures. Required user log-on before synchronizing data is a technique that requires the user to enter their credentials before they can transfer or update the data between their personal device and the company network or system6. Required user log-on before synchronizing data can help to prevent unauthorized synchronization of data, but it does not protect the data that is already stored on the personal device. Security awareness training and testing is a process that educates and evaluates the users on the security risks and best practices for using personal devices for work purposes, such as the importance of using strong passwords, updating software, avoiding phishing emails, and reporting incidents7. Security awareness training and testing can help to increase the knowledge and behavior of the users, but it does not ensure or monitor the implementation or performance of the security measures. References = 1: BYOD security: What are the risks and how can they be mitigated?2: What is Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? | Duo Security3: [What is Data Encryption? | Definition and FAQs] 4: How to mitigate the risks of using personal devices in the workplace5: BYOD Policy Template - GetFree Sample6: How to Sync Your Phone With Windows 10 | PCMag7: Security Awareness Training: What Is It and Why Is It Important?
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?
Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.
Conduct a tabletop exercise.
Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.
Conduct a full functional exercise.
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that describes the procedures and actions that an organization will take to ensure the continuity of its critical functions and operations in the event of a disruption or disaster12.
Testing a business continuity plan is a method of evaluating the effectiveness and readiness of the BCP, and identifying and addressing any gaps or weaknesses in the plan34.
The most cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan is to conduct a tabletop exercise, which is a type of simulation that involves gathering the key stakeholders and participants of the BCP, and discussing and reviewing the roles, responsibilities, and actions that they will take in response to a hypothetical scenario of a disruption or disaster56.
A tabletop exercise is the most cost-effective way because it requires minimal resources and time, and can be conducted in a regular meeting room or online platform56.
A tabletop exercise is also the most cost-effective way because it provides a high-level overview and assessment of the BCP, and can identify and address the major issues or challenges that may arise in the implementation of the plan56.
The other options are not the most cost-effective ways, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may have different levels of complexity or cost. For example:
Conducting interviews with key stakeholders is a way of testing a business continuity plan that involves asking and answering questions about the BCP, and collecting feedback and suggestions from the people who are involved or affected by the plan78. However, this way is not the most cost-effective because it may not cover all the aspects or scenarios of the BCP, and may not facilitate the interaction or collaboration among the stakeholders78.
Conducting a disaster recovery exercise is a way of testing a business continuity plan that involves activating and executing the BCP in a realistic and controlled environment, and measuring the outcomes and impacts of the plan . However, this way is not the most cost-effective because it requires a lot of resources and time, and may disrupt or interfere with the normal operations of the organization .
Conducting a full functional exercise is a way of testing a business continuity plan that involves simulating and testing the BCP in a live and dynamic environment, and involving the external entities and stakeholders that are part of the plan . However, this way is not the most cost-effective because it requires the most resources and time, and may pose the highest risk or challenge to the organization . References =
1: Business Continuity Plan (BCP) Definition1
2: Business Continuity Planning - Ready.gov2
3: Testing, testing: how to test your business continuity plan4
4: Comprehensive Guide to Business Continuity Testing | Agility5
5: How to Conduct a Tabletop Exercise for Business Continuity3
6: Tabletop Exercises: A Guide to Success6
7: How to Conduct Testing of a Business Continuity Plan7
8: Business Continuity Plan Testing: Interviewing Techniques8
Disaster Recovery Testing: A Step-by-Step Guide
Disaster Recovery Testing Scenarios: A Guide to Success
Functional Exercises: A Guide to Success
Functional Exercise Toolkit
Which of the following provides the MOST up-to-date information about the effectiveness of an organization's overall IT control environment?
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Risk heat maps
Internal audit findings
Periodic penetration testing
The IT control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out IT internal control across the organization1. The IT control environment comprises the IT governance, IT policies and procedures, IT organizational structure, IT roles and responsibilities, IT competencies and training, and IT culture and ethics2. The effectiveness of the IT control environment can be measured by how well it supports the achievement of the organization’s IT objectives, such as IT reliability, security, compliance, and performance3.
One of the best ways to provide the most up-to-date information about the effectiveness of the organization’s overall IT control environment is to perform periodic penetrationtesting. Penetration testing is the process of simulating real-world cyberattacks on the organization’s IT systems, networks, and applications, to identify and exploit any vulnerabilities, weaknesses, or gaps in the IT control environment4. Penetration testing can help to:
Evaluate the current state and maturity of the IT control environment and its alignment with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance
Detect and prioritize the most critical and urgent IT risks and threats that may compromise the organization’s IT objectives or assets
Test and validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the existing IT controls and their ability to prevent, detect, or respond to cyberattacks
Provide recommendations and feedback for improving the IT control environment and enhancing the IT security posture and resilience of the organization
References = COSO – Control Environment - Deloitte, How to use COSO to assess IT controls - Journal of Accountancy, What is Penetration Testing?, [Penetration Testing: A Guide for Business Leaders]
If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7
Evaluate alternative controls.
Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.
Develop a plan to upgrade technology.
Define a process for monitoring risk.
If preventive controls cannot be implemented due to technology limitations, the first step to reduce risk is to evaluate alternative controls. Alternative controls are those that can achieve thesame or similar objectives as the original preventive controls, but using different methods or technologies. For example, if a firewall cannot be installed due to hardware compatibility issues, an alternative control could be a network segmentation or a proxy server. Evaluating alternative controls requires assessing their feasibility, effectiveness, efficiency, and cost-benefit. Redefining the business process, developing a plan to upgrade technology, and defining a process for monitoring risk are also possible actions to reduce risk, but they are not the first step, and they may not be feasible or desirable in some situations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-23.
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cost-benefit analysis
Attribute analysis
Root cause analysis
A cost-benefit analysis is a tool that compares the costs and benefits of different alternatives, such as implementing or not implementing a specific control. A cost-benefit analysis provides the most useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented, as it can show the potential savings, benefits, and risks of each option, and help the decision-makers choose the best course of action. A cost-benefit analysis can also include qualitative factors, such as security, compliance, performance, and customer satisfaction, that may be affected by thecontrol implementation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 256. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 256. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following BEST enables the identification of trends in risk levels?
Correlation between risk levels and key risk indicators (KRIs) is positive.
Measurements for key risk indicators (KRIs) are repeatable
Quantitative measurements are used for key risk indicators (KRIs).
Qualitative definitions for key risk indicators (KRIs) are used.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potential exposure and performance of an organization in relation to specific risks. KRIs can help to monitor and track the changes or trends in the risk level and the risk response over time, identify and alert the risk issues or events that require attention or action, evaluate and report the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and practices, and support and inform the risk decision making and improvement1.
The best way to enable the identification of trends in risk levels is to ensure that the correlation between risk levels and KRIs is positive, because it means that the KRIs are aligned with andreflective of the risk levels, and that they can capture and indicate the variations or movements in the risk levels accurately and reliably. A positive correlation between risk levels and KRIs can be achieved by:
Selecting and defining the KRIs that are relevant and appropriate for the specific risks that the organization faces, and that are consistent and comparable across different domains and contexts
Collecting and analyzing the data and information that are reliable and sufficient for the KRIs, and that are sourced from various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
Applying and using the tools and techniques that are suitable and feasible for the KRIs, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
Reviewing and updating the KRIs periodically or as needed, and ensuring that they reflect the current or accurate risk levels, which may change over time or due to external factors23
The other options are not the best ways to enable the identification of trends in risk levels, but rather some of the factors or aspects of KRIs. Measurements for KRIs are repeatable is a factor that can enhance the reliability and validity of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs can produce the same or similar results under the same or similar conditions. However, repeatability does not necessarily imply accuracy or sensitivity, and it may not capture or reflect the changes or trends in the risk levels. Quantitative measurements are used for KRIs is an aspect that can improve the objectivity and precision of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in numerical or measurable values, such as percentages, probabilities, or monetary amounts. However, quantitative measurements may not be suitable or feasible for all types of risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the complexity or uncertainty of the risk levels. Qualitative definitions for KRIs are used is an aspect that can enhance the understanding and communication of the KRIs, as it means that the KRIs are expressed in descriptive or subjective terms, such as high, medium, or low, based on criteria such as likelihood, impact, or severity. However, qualitative definitions may not be consistent or comparable across different risks or KRIs, and they may not capture or reflect the magnitude or variation of the risk levels. References =
Key Risk Indicators: What They Are and How to Use Them
Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
Key Risk Indicators: Types and Examples
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?
Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.
Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.
Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.
Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.
To make well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions, it is most important to determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios. A risk rating is a measure of the severity and priority of a risk, based on the combination of its impact and likelihood. A risk scenario is a description of a potential event or situation that could adversely affect the organization’s objectives, assets, or processes. By determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, the organization can identify the most critical and urgent risks, and select the appropriate risk response strategies accordingly. The other options are not as important as determining and understanding the risk rating of scenarios, because they do not provide a clear and comprehensive view of the risk, butrather focus on specific or partial aspects of the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 45.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?
To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles
To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets
To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets
To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets
 Understanding vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets is the primary reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization’s IT asset inventory, as it helps to identify and assess the potential threats and risks to the assets. The other options are not the primary reasons for a risk practitioner to review an organization’s IT asset inventory, although they may be related to the process.
What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?
Loss event frequency and magnitude
The previous year's budget and actuals
Industry benchmarks and standards
Return on IT security-related investments
The best information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls is the return on IT security-related investments, because this shows the value and benefits of the controls in relation to their costs. Return on IT security-related investments is a metric that measures the effectiveness and efficiency of IT security controls by comparing the amount of money saved or gained from preventing or mitigating IT-related risks with the amount of money spent on implementing and maintaining the controls. By presenting this information, business control owners can see how the controls contribute to the achievement of the business objectives, such as reducing losses, increasing revenues, enhancing customer satisfaction, or improving compliance. This information can also help business control owners to prioritize and allocate resources for the most critical and beneficial controls, and to optimize the balance between risk and return. References = Cost Control: How Businesses Use It to Increase Profits
Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in
to implement additional IT controls?
List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.
Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.
Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.
Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.
Presenting the impact of IT risks on organizational processes in monetary terms is effective for obtaining management buy-in because it directly relates to the organization's financial health and decision-making. It provides a clear and tangible understanding of the potential financialimplications of risks, making it easier for management to appreciate the need for additional controls.
Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?
KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.
KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.
KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization
KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.
The main benefit of using key risk indicators (KRIs) for an organization is that they provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. KRIs also help to trigger timely and appropriate risk responses, before the risk becomes unmanageable or unacceptable. The other options are not the main benefit of using KRIs, although they may be secondary benefits or outcomes. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?
Recovery time objective (RTO)
Cost-benefit analysis
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Cyber insurance coverage
Business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system, as it involves estimating the potential financial and operational losses resulting from the disruption or degradation of the system. Recovery time objective (RTO), cost-benefit analysis, and cyber insurance coverage are not the most helpful tools, as they are more related to the recovery, evaluation, andtransfer of the risk, respectively, rather than the identification of the loss magnitude. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
A vendor's planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?
IT infrastructure manager
Chief Risk Officer (CRO)
Business continuity manager
Business application owner
The business application owner is responsible for the operation and risk decisions related to the application. Since the loss of failover may impact business continuity, their approval is essential.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:
a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.
the likelihood of a given threat.
a function of the likelihood and impact.
the magnitude of an impact.
The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as a function of the likelihood and impact, as it helps to measure and quantify the residual risk level and exposure. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or risk treatments. Residual risk can be calculated by multiplying the likelihood and impact of a risk event, where likelihood is the probability or frequency of the risk event occurring, and impact is the consequence or severity of the risk event on the asset or objective. Residual risk can be expressed as:
ResidualRisk=Likelihood×Impact
Expressing the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied as a function of the likelihood and impact helps to provide the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk assessment and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk levels and exposure across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best ways to express the risk associated with an asset after controls are applied. A function of the cost and effectiveness of controls is a measure of the inputs or outputs of therisk management and control processes, but it does not indicate the risk level or exposure. The likelihood of a given threat is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the impact or consequence of the threat. The magnitude of an impact is a component of the risk calculation, but it does not reflect the likelihood or probability of the risk event.References=Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative,IT Risk Resources | ISACA,Residual Risk: Definition, Formula & Management - Video & Lesson …
An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish
risk scenarios
risk maps
risk appetite
risk ownership.
An IT risk threat analysis is best used to establish risk scenarios. A risk scenario is a description of a possible event or situation that may affect the achievement of the IT objectives. A riskscenario consists of three elements: a threat, a vulnerability, and an impact. A threat is a potential cause of an unwanted incident. A vulnerability is a weakness or flaw that can be exploited by a threat. An impact is the consequence or effect of the incident on the IT objectives. An IT risk threat analysis is a technique that identifies and evaluates the threats that may pose a risk to the IT assets and processes. An IT risk threat analysis can help to establish risk scenarios by providing the information and context for the threat element of the risk scenario. The other options are not as directly related to an IT risk threat analysis, as they are related to the outcomes, measures, or responsibilities of the IT risk management process, not the inputs or sources of the IT risk scenarios. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: IT Risk Scenarios, page 23.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?
Leading industry frameworks
Business context
Regulatory requirements
IT strategy
A risk taxonomy is a classification or categorization system that defines and organizes the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. It includes the risk domains, categories, subcategories, elements, attributes, etc., and the relationships and dependenciesamong them. A risk taxonomy can help the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, and communicate the risks, and to align them with the organization’s strategy and culture.
The most important consideration when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy is the business context, which is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that influence and shape the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. It includes the organization’s vision, mission, values, goals, stakeholders, resources, capabilities, processes, systems, etc., as well as the market, industry, regulatory, social, environmental, etc., factors and conditions that affect the organization.
Considering the business context when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy ensures that the risk taxonomy is relevant, appropriate, and proportional to the organization’s needs and expectations, and that it supports the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to ensure that the risk taxonomy is consistent and compatible with the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions, and that it reflects the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the most important considerations when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, because they do not address the fundamental question of whether the risk taxonomy is suitable and acceptable for the organization.
Leading industry frameworks are the established or recognized models or standards that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Leading industry frameworks can provide useful references and benchmarks when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s business context, and they may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values.
Regulatory requirements are the rules or obligations that the organization must comply with, as imposed or enforced by the relevant authorities or regulators. Regulatory requirements can provide important inputs and constraints when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but they are not the most important consideration, because they may not be comprehensive or sufficient for the organization’s business context, and they may not support the organization’s objectives and values.
IT strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its IT objectives and to align its IT resources and capabilities with its business objectives and needs. IT strategy canprovide important inputs and alignment when developing an organization’s risk taxonomy, but it is not the most important consideration, because it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the organization’s business context, and it may not reflect the organization’s objectives and values. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 175
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is MOST influential when management makes risk response decisions?
Risk appetite
Audit risk
Residual risk
Detection risk
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite is the most influential factor when management makes risk response decisions, as it helps to define the boundaries and thresholds for acceptable risk levels, and to align the risk responses with the organization’s strategy, goals, and culture. Risk appetite alsohelps to balance the potential benefits and costs of risk responses, and to communicate the risk expectations and preferences to the stakeholders. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 192.
During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?
Test system reliability and performance.
Adopt an Agile development approach.
Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).
Adopt a phased changeover approach.
Conducting User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is the best way for an organization to avoid situations where users voice concerns about missing functionality after a system implementation.
User Acceptance Testing (UAT):
Definition:UAT involves testing the system with actual users to ensure it meets their needs and requirements. It verifies that the system performs in real-world scenarios as expected by the users.
Involvement of Users:UAT includes the end-users in the testing process, ensuring that their feedback is incorporated and that the system functionalities align with their expectations.
Benefits:
Identifying Gaps:UAT helps in identifying gaps between the delivered system and user expectations. This early detection allows for adjustments before the system goes live.
Improved Satisfaction:By involving users in the testing process, the likelihood of the system meeting their needs increases, leading to higher user satisfaction and reduced post-implementation issues.
A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?
After user acceptance testing (UAT)
Upon approval of the business case
When user stories are developed
During post-implementation review
An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?
Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.
Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.
Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.
The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.
 In an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority, the risk practitioner’s greatest concern should be whether sufficient resources are assigned to IT development projects. Resources include human, financial, technical, and physical assets that are needed to plan, design, develop, test, and deliver high-quality software products in a timely manner. If the IT development projects are under-resourced, they may face challenges such as delays, errors, defects, rework, scope creep, or failure to meet customer expectations or requirements. These challenges can increase the risk of losing competitive advantage, market share, customer satisfaction, or reputation. The other options are less critical, as they are not directly related to the core business priority of reducing time-to-market for new softwareproducts. Customer support help desk staff training, email infrastructure rollback plans, and corporate email system phishing detection are important aspects of information security and customer service, but they are not the primary drivers of software product development anddelivery. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Options, p. 115-116.
An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:
a recognized industry control framework
guidance provided by the external auditor
the service provider's existing controls
The organization's specific control requirements
The best control criteria to evaluate the outsourced service provider would be based on a recognized industry control framework. A control framework is a set of best practices, guidelines, and methodologies that provide a comprehensive and consistent approach to designing, implementing, and assessing controls. A recognized industry control framework is a control framework that is widely accepted and adopted by the industry and the regulators, and that reflects the current and emerging standards andexpectations for the control environment. A recognized industry control framework can help to ensure that the outsourced service provider meets the minimum and acceptable level of control quality and effectiveness, and that the control evaluation is objective, reliable, and comparable. The other options are not as good as a recognized industry control framework, as they are related to the specific sources, aspects, or requirements of the control criteria, not the overall structure and quality of the control criteria. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
Which of the following is MOST important to determine when assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data?
The cost associated with incident response activitiesThe composition and number of records in the information asset
The maximum levels of applicable regulatory fines
The length of time between identification and containment of the incident
When assessing the potential risk exposure of a loss event involving personal data, the most important factor to determine is the composition and number of records in the information asset. The composition refers to the type and sensitivity of the personal data, such as name, address, phone number, email, social security number, health information, financial information, etc. The number of records refers to the quantity and scope of the personal data that is affected by the loss event. The composition and number of records in the information asset determine the severity and impact of the loss event, as they indicate the extent of the harm and damage that can be caused to the data subjects, the organization, and other stakeholders.The composition and number of records in the information asset also influence the cost of the incident responseactivities, the level of the regulatory fines, and the duration of the incident containment and recovery. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 159.
Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be:
reflective of the lowest organizational level.
a data feed taken directly from operational production systems.
reported to management the same day data is collected.
focused on providing a forward-looking view.
Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be focused on providing a forward-looking view, as they enable the organization to anticipate and prepare for the potential changes and impacts of the risk level and exposure, and to take proactive and appropriate actions toaddress the risk. The other options are not the characteristics of well-developed, data-driven risk measurements, as they may not reflect the strategic, comprehensive, or timely aspects of the risk measurements, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?
Key stakeholders are enrolled as members
Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management
Committee meets at least quarterly
Functional overlap across the business is minimized
The best way to ensure the effective decision-making of an IT risk management committee is to enroll key stakeholders as members. Key stakeholders are the individuals or groups who have an interest or influence in the IT risk management process, such as business owners, senior management, IT managers, auditors, regulators, customers, and suppliers. By involving key stakeholders in the IT risk management committee, the committee can benefit from their diverse perspectives, expertise, and experience, and ensure that the IT risk management decisions are aligned with the business objectives, priorities, and expectations. Key stakeholders can also provide valuable input, feedback, and support for the IT risk management activities, and help communicate and implement the IT risk management decisions across the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 36.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?
High percentage of lagging indicators
Nonexistent benchmark analysis
Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring
Ineffective methods to assess risk
The greatest concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) is using ineffective methods to assess risk. KRIs are metrics that measure the likelihood and impact of risks, and help monitor and prioritize the most critical risks. To establish effective KRIs, the risk assessment methods should be reliable, valid, consistent, and timely. Ineffective methods to assess risk could lead to inaccurate or misleading KRIs, which could result in poor risk management decisions and outcomes. The other options are not as significant as using ineffective methods to assess risk, although they may also affect the quality and usefulness of KRIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.4.1, page 4-36.
Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:
the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters
international law and a uniform set of regulations.
the laws and regulations of each individual country
international standard-setting bodies.
The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country. Legal and regulatory risk is the risk of non-compliance or violation of the applicable laws and regulations that govern the business activities, operations, or transactions. Business conducted over the Internet involves the use of the global network of interconnected computers and devices to exchange information, goods, or services across the geographic boundaries. Business conducted over the Internet may expose the enterprise to various legal and regulatory risks, such as data protection, privacy, security, intellectual property, consumer protection, taxation, or jurisdiction issues. The legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by the laws and regulations of each individual country, as each country may have different or conflicting laws and regulations that apply to the business conducted over the Internet, and that may change or vary over time. The laws and regulations of each individual country may also impose different or additional obligations, requirements, or restrictions on the enterprise, and may subject the enterprise to different or multiple enforcement actions, penalties, or disputes. The jurisdiction inwhich an organization has its principal headquarters, international law and a uniform set of regulations, and international standard-setting bodies are not the drivers of the legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet, as they do not reflect the diversity and complexity of the legal and regulatory landscape that the enterprise may face when conducting business over the Internet. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?
Preventive
Detective
Directive
Deterrent
A preventive control is a type of control that aims to avoid or reduce the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A preventive control can be implemented through technical, administrative, or physical means. A new policy that forbids copying of data onto removablemedia is an example of a preventive control, because it prevents unauthorized data exfiltration or leakage through removable devices, such as flash drives or external hard disk drives. A preventive control is different from the other types of controls, as explained below:
A detective control is a type of control that aims to discover or identify the occurrence of an undesirable event or risk. A detective control can be implemented through monitoring, auditing, or reporting activities. An example of a detective control is a log analysis tool that detects any unauthorized access or modification of data on a system.
A directive control is a type of control that aims to guide or instruct the behavior or actions of individuals or groups. A directive control can be implemented through policies, procedures, standards, or rules. An example of a directive control is a training program that teaches employees how to handle sensitive data securely and appropriately.
A deterrent control is a type of control that aims to discourage or dissuade individuals or groups from performing an undesirable event or risk. A deterrent control can be implemented throughsanctions, penalties, or consequences. An example of a deterrent control is a warning message that informs users of the legal implications of copying data onto removable media without authorization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 38.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system's validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?
Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.
Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.
Monitor the activity to collect evidence.
Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.
The best course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system’s validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions is B. Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, a whistleblower communication channel is a mechanism that allows employees to report suspected fraud or unethical behavior without fear of retaliation or reprisal. A whistleblower communication channel is part of an effective fraud detection and prevention framework, and it helps to promote a culture of integrity and accountability within the organization2
The other options are not as effective or appropriate as sharing the concern through a whistleblower communication channel, because:
•A. Implementing compensating controls to deter fraud attempts may not address the root cause of the problem, and it may also create additional complexity and cost for the system. Moreover, it may not prevent the colleague from finding other ways to bypass the controls or collude with external parties.
•C. Monitoring the activity to collect evidence may expose the system administrator to legal or ethical risks, especially if the monitoring is done without proper authorization or due process. Itmay also delay the reporting and resolution of the issue, and potentially allow more fraudulent transactions to occur.
•D. Determining whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts may be useful for understanding the context and the factors that contribute to the fraud risk, but it does not address the immediate concern of reporting the suspected fraud. It may also imply that the system administrator is trying to justify or rationalize the colleague’s behavior, rather than holding them accountable.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100002 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224
A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?
Methods of attack progression
Losses incurred by industry peers
Most recent antivirus scan reports
Potential impact of events
The potential impact of events is the estimated magnitude and likelihood of the consequences that may result from a risk scenario. The potential impact of events can help key stakeholders understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and prioritize the appropriate response actions. The potential impact of events can be expressed in quantitative or qualitative terms, such as financial loss, operational disruption, reputational damage, legal liability, etc. The potential impact of events is the most important information to include when reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry, as it can help stakeholders assess the level of risk exposure and the adequacy of the existing controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Analysis, p. 87-89.
A risk practitioner shares the results of a vulnerability assessment for a critical business application with the business manager. Which of the following is the NEXT step?
Develop a risk action plan to address the findings.
Evaluate the impact of the vulnerabilities to the business application.
Escalate the findings to senior management and internal audit.
Conduct a penetration test to validate the vulnerabilities from the findings.
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a risk action plan is a document that defines the specific actions, resources, responsibilities, and timelines for implementing the risk responses. A risk action plan should be developed after the results of a vulnerability assessment are shared with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business manager, to address the identified vulnerabilities and mitigate the associated risks. Developing a risk action plan is the next step in the risk management process, as it helps to ensure that the risk responses are executed effectively and efficiently, and that the residual risks are within the acceptable levels. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 201.
Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?
Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized
Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized
Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied
Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied
Residual riskrefers to the risk that remains after mitigation measures have been applied. It represents the exposure that an organization decides to accept, transfer, or further address, aligning with its risk appetite and tolerance.
A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?
Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance
Increased monitoring of executive accounts
Subscription to data breach monitoring sites
Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts
ï‚· Understanding the Question:
The question is about mitigating the impact of social engineering attacks that use AI technology to impersonate senior management personnel.
ï‚· Analyzing the Options:
A. Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance:This is the most proactive approach. Educating employees about the risks and signs of social engineering attacks enhances their ability to recognize and respond appropriately to such threats.
B. Increased monitoring of executive accounts:Useful but reactive; it doesn't prevent initial attempts.
C. Subscription to data breach monitoring sites:Helps detect breaches but doesn’t directly mitigate impersonation attacks.
D. Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts:Reactive measure and might not be immediate or comprehensive.
ï‚·
Importance of Training:Employees are often the first line of defense against social engineering attacks. Regular training ensures they are aware of the tactics used in such attacks, including those leveraging AI, and how to respond effectively.
Proactive Measure:Training increases vigilance and the likelihood of early detection, reducing the potential impact of the attack.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:
network operations.
the cybersecurity function.
application development.
the business function.
The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of the business function, because they are the primary stakeholder and beneficiary of the web application, and they are responsible for defining and achieving the business objectives and requirements that the web application supports or enables. Anoperational risk is a risk of loss or damage resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes, people, or systems, or from external events. An attack on a web application is a type of operational risk that involves a malicious or unauthorized attempt to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the web application, such as a denial-of-service attack, a SQL injection attack, or a cross-site scripting attack. A web application is an application that runs on a web server and can be accessed or used through a web browser, such as an online shopping site, a social media platform, or a web-based email service. A business function is a set of activities or tasks that support or enable the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, such as marketing, sales, or customer service. A risk owner is a person or role that has the authority and accountability to manage a specific risk, and to implement and monitor the risk response and controls. The individual in charge of the business function should be the risk owner, as they have the best understanding and interest of the web application and its business value and impact, and they have the ability and responsibility to manage the operational risk associated with the attacks on the web application. The individual in charge of network operations, the cybersecurity function, or application development are all possible candidates for the risk owner, but they are not the best choice, as they may not have the same level of stake and influence in the web application and its business objectives and requirements, and they may have different orconflicting priorities or perspectives on the operational risk and its management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, page 101
Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?
Assigning a data owner
Scheduling periodic audits
Implementing technical controls over the assets
Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution
Assigning a data owner ensures accountability and responsibility for classifying and protecting data according to its sensitivity. This role is critical in implementing effectiveData Governance Practices.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?
Stakeholder preferences
Contractual requirements
Regulatory requirements
Management assertions
Regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders, because they define the rules or standards that the organization must comply with to meet the expectations of the regulators, such as government agencies or industry bodies, and to avoid legal or reputational consequences. A risk event is an occurrence or incident that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a human error. An external stakeholder is a person or group that has an interest or influence in the organization or its activities, but is not part of the organization, such as customers, suppliers, partners, investors, or regulators. Disclosing information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders is a process of communicating or reporting the relevant facts or details of the risk events to the affected or interested parties. Disclosing information related to risk events may have benefits, such as maintaining trust, transparency, and accountability, but it may also have drawbacks, such as exposing vulnerabilities, losing competitive advantage, or inviting litigation. Therefore, regulatory requirements should be the primary basis for deciding whether to disclose information, as they provide the legal and ethical obligations and boundaries for the disclosure process. Stakeholder preferences, contractual requirements, and management assertions are all possible factors for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events, but they are not the primary basis, as they may vary or conflict depending on the situation or context, and may not override the regulatory requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?
Implementing record retention tools and techniques
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)
Sending notifications when near storage quota
Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy
According to the Risk and Information Systems Control documents, implementing record retention tools and techniques is the best solution in this scenario. Record retention involves managing the lifecycle of records, including their creation, usage, storage, and disposal. By implementing record retention policies, organizations can define how long emails and other data should be retained before being deleted. This helps in efficiently managing storage space and reducing unnecessary storage costs.
Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP) (Option B) focuses more on legal and compliance aspects and may not directly address the issue of reducing storage costs. Sending notifications when near storage quota (Option C) is a reactive approach and may not prevent the exponential increase in storage costs. Implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) policy (Option D) is unrelated to the issue of email storage costs.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual
Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?
The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.
The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.
The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.
The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.
The risk owner should be someone who has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risk effectively and align it with the organizational strategy and objectives. The risk owner should also be able to communicate the impact of the risk on the business operations and the value proposition of the risk response. Understanding the effect of loss events on business operations is a key criterion for assigning risk owners, as it helps to prioritize and mitigate the risks that matter most to the organization.
References
•Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right
•How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA
•What Everybody Ought To Know About Project Risk Owners
Which of the following will be MOST effective in uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions?
Digital signature
Edit checks
Encryption
Multifactor authentication
The most effective method for uniquely identifying the originator of electronic transactions is a digital signature. A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to authenticate the identity and integrity of the sender and the message. A digital signature is created by applying the sender’s private key to a hash of the message, and is verified by applying the sender’s public key to the signature and comparing it with the hash ofthe message. A digital signature ensures that the sender cannot deny sending the message (non-repudiation), and that the message has not been altered or tampered with during transmission (data integrity). References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.3, page 1301
Which of the following will BEST support management reporting on risk?
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Risk policy requirements
A risk register
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs) will best support management reporting on risk, as they help to measure and monitor the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management and control processes. KPIs are metrics or measures that provide information on the current or potentialperformance of a specific activity, process, or objective. KPIs can be classified into two types: leading and lagging. Leading KPIs are predictive indicators that provide early warning signals or trends of future performance. Lagging KPIs are outcome indicators that reflect the actual or historical performance.
KPIs help to support management reporting on risk by providing the following benefits:
They enable a data-driven and evidence-based approach to risk management and reporting, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
They facilitate a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating risk performance across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
They support the alignment of risk management and control activities with the organizational strategy and objectives, and help to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
They help to identify and prioritize the areas for improvement and enhancement of the risk management and control processes, and guide the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
They provide feedback and learning opportunities for the risk management and control processes, and help to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best choices to support management reporting on risk. Control self-assessment (CSA) is a process that involves the participation and involvement of the staff and managers in assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the internal controls within their areas of responsibility, but it does not provide a comprehensive or objective view of the risk performance. Risk policy requirements are the documents that define the principles, rules, and guidelines for the risk management and control processes, but they do not provide actual or potential information on the risk performance. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses, but it does not measure or monitor the risk performance. References = Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Risk Management - Resolver, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Risk Reporting - Open Risk Manual
Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?
Securing the network from attacks
Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender
Digitally signing individual messages
Encrypting data-in-transit
 Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender is a control that helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination, as it confirms the successful delivery of the data and allows the sender to resend the data in case of failure. Securing the network from attacks, digitally signing individual messages, and encrypting data-in-transit are controls that help toensure the integrity and confidentiality of the data, but not the availability or delivery of the data. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 199.
Which of the following BEST indicates how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker?
Failed login attempts
Simulating a denial of service attack
Absence of IT audit findings
Penetration test
A penetration test is a simulated cyberattack on a web infrastructure to evaluate its security posture and identify any vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by an attacker. A penetration test is the best indicator of how well a web infrastructure protects critical information from an attacker, as it mimics the real-world scenarios and techniques that an attacker would use, and measures the effectiveness of the existing security controls and countermeasures. A penetration test can also provide recommendations for improving the security of the web infrastructure and reducing the risk exposure. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 236. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 236. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10.
Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?
Tokenized personal data only in test environments
Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode
Anonymized personal data in non-production environments
Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments
 Anonymizing personal data in non-production environments means replacing the real data with fictitious but realistic data that does not allow identification of the individuals. This is a good way to mitigate the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment, as it reduces the exposure of the data to unauthorized access or misuse. Tokenizing personal data only in test environments is not sufficient, as the data may still be exposed in other non-production environments, such as development or staging. Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode may detect and report data leakage incidents, but they do not prevent them from happening. Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments may enhance the security of the access, but it does not protect the data from being leaked by authorized users or compromised by other means. References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), page 226; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, question 195.
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?
Evaluating risk impact
Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)
Conducting internal audits
Creating quarterly risk reports
The most effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios is to evaluate the risk impact. Risk impact is the extent of the potential consequences or losses that may result from arisk event. Evaluating the risk impact involves considering the stakeholder concerns, expectations, and perspectives, as they may have different views on the value of the assets, the severity of the threats, and the acceptability of the outcomes. Evaluating the risk impact can help to ensure that the risk scenarios reflect the stakeholder interests and priorities, and that the risk responses are aligned with the stakeholder objectives. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs), conducting internal audits, and creating quarterly risk reports are not as effective as evaluating the risk impact, as they are not directly related to the development of risk scenarios, and may not capture the stakeholder concerns adequately. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?
Detective control
Deterrent control
Preventive control
Corrective control
 A vulnerability is a system flaw or weakness that can be exploited by a threat actor, potentially leading to a security breach or incident. A vulnerability that has been exploited means that a threat actor has successfully taken advantage of the vulnerability and compromised the system or network. Implementing controls can help reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited, by limiting or preventing the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident. Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be classified into different types, depending on their purpose and function. The four types of controls mentioned in the question are:
Detective control: A control that monitors and detects the occurrence or attempt of a security breach or incident, and alerts the appropriate personnel or system. For example, a log analysis tool that identifies and reports any unauthorized access or activity on the system or network.
Deterrent control: A control that discourages or prevents a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by increasing the perceived difficulty, risk, or cost of doing so. For example, a warning message that informs the user of the legal consequences of unauthorized access or use of the system or network.
Preventive control: A control that blocks or stops a threat actor from exploiting a vulnerability or performing a malicious action, by eliminating or reducing the vulnerability or the opportunity.Forexample, a firewall that filters and blocks any unwanted or malicious traffic from entering or leaving the system or network.
Corrective control: A control that restores or repairs the system or network to its normal or desired state, after a security breach or incident has occurred, by fixing or removing the vulnerability or the impact. For example, a backup and recovery tool that restores the data or functionality of the system or network that has been corrupted or lost due to the security breach or incident.
The best type of control for reducing the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited is the corrective control, because it directly addresses the damage or loss caused by the security breach or incident, and restores the system or network to its normal or desired state. Corrective controls can help minimize the negative consequences of a security breach or incident, such as downtime, data loss, reputational harm, legal liability, or regulatory sanctions. Corrective controls can also help prevent or reduce the recurrence of the security breach or incident, by fixing or removing the vulnerability that has been exploited. References = Types of Security Controls, Security Controls: What They Are and Why You Need Them, Security Controls: Definition, Types & Examples.
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:
identification.
treatment.
communication.
assessment
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the results of a risk analysis in a matrix format, using colors and symbols to indicate the level and priority of the risks. A risk heat map can show the distribution and comparison of the risks based on various criteria, such as likelihood, impact, category, source, etc.
A risk heat map is most commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk assessment, which is the process of determining the significance and urgency of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their magnitude and importance.
A risk heat map can help to facilitate risk assessment by providing a visual and intuitive representation of the risk profile, and highlighting the most critical and relevant risks that need to be addressed or monitored. A risk heat map can also help to communicate and report the riskanalysis results to different stakeholders, and to support the decision making and planning for the risk response and treatment.
The other options are not the most common uses of a risk heat map as part of an IT risk analysis, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk heat map, which is to facilitate risk assessment.
Risk identification is the process of finding and describing the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk identification involves defining the risk sources, events, causes, and impacts, and documenting them in a risk register. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk identification, because it does not provide the detailed and comprehensive information that is needed to identify and describe the risks, and it may not cover all the relevant or potential risks that may exist or emerge.
Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate actions or plans to address the risks that have been identified, analyzed, and evaluated. Risk treatment involves choosing one of the following types of risk responses: mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk treatment, because it does not provide the specific and feasible information that is needed to select and implement the risk responses, and it may not reflect the cost-benefit or feasibility analysis of the risk responses.
Risk communication is the process of exchanging and sharing the information and knowledge about the risks and their responses among the relevant stakeholders. Risk communication involves informing, consulting, and involving the stakeholders in the risk management process, and ensuring that they understand and agree on the risk objectives, criteria, and outcomes. A risk heat map is not commonly used to facilitate risk communication, because it does not provide the complete and accurate information that is needed to communicate and share the risks and their responses, and it may not address the different needs, expectations, and perspectives of the stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 169
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?
Encryption policy
Organization risk profile
Digital rights management policy
Information classification policy
The information classification policy is the most important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data, because it defines the categories and criteria for classifying data according to their sensitivity, confidentiality, and value to the organization, and specifies the appropriate handling and protection measures for each category. Sensitive data are data that contain personal,proprietary, or confidential information that may cause harm or damage to the organization or its stakeholders if disclosed, modified, or destroyed without authorization. An information classification policy helps to ensure that sensitive data are identified and treated in a consistent and secure manner, and that the organization complies with the applicable laws andregulations regarding data protection and privacy. An encryption policy, an organization risk profile, and a digital rights management policy are all useful documents for the treatment of sensitive data, but they are not the most important document, as they do not directly address the classification and handling of sensitive data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?
Detective
Compensating
Corrective
Preventive
 A control is an action or measure that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level. Controls can be classified into different types based on their purpose or function, such asdetective, compensating, corrective, or preventive. Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of a preventive control. A preventive control is a control that aims to prevent the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by avoiding, removing, or reducing the risk sources, causes, or drivers. A background check is a process that verifies the identity, qualifications, and history of a potential employee, and helps to ensure that the employee is suitable and trustworthy for the job. A background check can prevent the risk of hiring an unqualified, fraudulent, or malicious employee, who could compromise the performance, security, or compliance of the enterprise. The other options are not examples of preventive controls, as they involve different types of controls:
A detective control is a control that aims to detect the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by monitoring, measuring, or reporting the risk events, indicators, or outcomes. An example of a detective control is a log review, which is a process that analyzes the records of the activities or transactions on the IT systems or applications, and helps to identify any anomalies, errors, or violations that could indicate a risk.
A compensating control is a control that aims to compensate for the weakness or deficiency of another control, such as by providing an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance. An example of a compensating control is a firewall, which is a device or software that filters the network traffic and blocks the unauthorized or malicious access to the IT systems or applications, and helps to compensate for the lack or failure of other security controls, such as encryption, authentication, or authorization.
A corrective control is a control that aims to correct the occurrence or manifestation of a risk, such as by restoring, repairing, or improving the affected assets, processes, or functions. An example of a corrective control is a backup, which is a copy or replica of the data or informationon the IT systems or applications, and helps to correct the loss or damage of the data or information due to a risk, such as a hardware failure, a software error, or a cyberattack. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?
The impact of the risk
The replacement cost of the business asset
The cost of risk mitigation controls
The classification of the business asset
The primary basis for prioritizing risk responses is the impact of the risk. The impact of the risk is the consequence or effect of the risk on the organization’s objectives or operations, such as financial loss, reputational damage, operational disruption, or legal liability. The impact of therisk is one of the key dimensions of risk analysis, along with the likelihood of the risk. The impact of the risk helps to determine the severity and priority of the risk, and to select the most appropriate and effective risk response. The impact of the risk also helps to evaluate the cost-benefit and trade-off of the risk response, and to measure the residual risk and the risk performance. The other options are not the primary basis for prioritizing risk responses, although they may be considered or influenced by the impact of the risk. The replacement cost of the business asset, the cost of risk mitigation controls, and the classification of the business asset are all factors that could affect the value or importance of the business asset, but they do not necessarily reflect the impact of the risk on the business asset or the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.1, page 4-25.
A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?
Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours
Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches
Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold
Percentage of servers not patched per policy
Monitoring the number of incidents with downtime exceeding the contract threshold is a critical KRI for assessing the effectiveness of infrastructure upgrades aimed at enhancing service availability. This metric directly reflects the provider's ability to meet agreed-upon service levels and helps identify areas requiring further improvement.
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Management approval
Annual review
Relevance
Automation
The most important factor to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs) is relevance. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives or the performance of the processes. Relevance means that the KPIs are aligned with and support the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they reflect the current and desired state of the outcomes or outputs. Relevance also means that the KPIs are meaningful and useful for the decision makers and stakeholders, and that they provide clear and actionable information for improvement or optimization. The other options are not as important as relevance, as they arerelated to the approval, review, or automation of the KPIs, not the quality or value of the KPIs. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
Which of the following is a detective control?
Limit check
Periodic access review
Access control software
Rerun procedures
 A detective control is a type of internal control that seeks to uncover problems in a company’s processes once they have occurred. Examples of detective controls include physical inventory checks, reviews of account reports and reconciliations, as well as assessments of current controls1. A periodic access review is a detective control that involves verifying the access rightsand privileges of users to ensure that they are appropriate and authorized. A periodic access review can help to detect any unauthorized or inappropriate access, such as excessive or redundant permissions, segregation of duties violations, or dormant ororphaned accounts23. The other options are not detective controls, but rather preventive controls, which are designed to prevent errors or fraud from occurring in the first place. A limit check is a preventive control that validates the input data against a predefined range or limit, and rejects any data that falls outside the acceptable range4. Access control software is a preventive control that restricts the access to information systems or resources based on the identity, role, or credentials of the user5. Rerun procedures are preventive controls that ensure the accuracy and completeness of data processing by repeating the same process and comparing the results6. References = Detective Control: Definition, Examples, Vs. Preventive Control; Detective Control - What Is It, Examples, Vs Preventive Control; Limit Check - an overview |ScienceDirect Topics; Access Control Software - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics; Rerun Procedures - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?
Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis
Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.
Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.
Include information security control specifications in business cases.
Information security risk factors are the sources of uncertainty that may affect the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information assets within an organization. Information security risk factors can include threats, vulnerabilities, or impacts that may compromise the security of information assets. Information security risk factors should be mitigated when developing in-house applications, which are software applications that are designed, developed, and maintained by the organization itself, rather than by external vendors or providers. Mitigating information security risk factors when developing in-house applications canhelp prevent or reduce the occurrence or consequences of security incidents, such as data breaches, cyberattacks, unauthorized access, or data loss. The best way to ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications is to identify information security controls in the requirements analysis. The requirements analysis is the stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC) where the business needs and expectations of the application are defined and documented. The requirements analysis should include the functional and non-functional requirements of the application, such as the features, functions, performance, quality, reliability, and security of the application. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can help ensure that the security requirements of the application are clearly specified and agreed upon by the stakeholders, and that they are aligned with the organization’s security policies, standards, and regulations. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can also help ensure that the security requirements are integrated into the design, development, testing, and deployment of the application, and that they are verified and validated throughout the SDLC. Identifying information security controls in the requirements analysis can also help ensure that the security requirements are traceable, measurable, and manageable, and that they can be monitored and reviewed for effectiveness and efficiency. References = THE SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE (SDLC), p. 2-3, System Development Life Cycle - GeeksforGeeks, 7.3: Systems Development Life Cycle - Engineering LibreTexts, What Is SDLC? 7 Phases of System Development Life Cycle - Intetics.
Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?
To benchmark against a risk management framework
To predict external regulatory changes
To adapt to emerging threats
To reduce the cost of performing control activities
As the threat landscape evolves, reporting on IT risk profile trends enables the organization tostay proactive. It helps ensure controls and strategies remain effective againstnew or increasing threats.
Where is the FIRST place a risk practitioner should look to identify accountability for a specific risk?
Risk register
Risk scenario
RACI matrix
Risk response plan
A RACI matrix clearly defines roles and responsibilities, making it the primary reference for identifying accountability. This aligns withRisk Governance Practicesfor clarifying ownership.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?
Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed
Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle
Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources
Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information
The best way is toassess the loss impactif information is compromised. This aligns with ISACA’s risk management approach, which prioritizes the potential impact on business objectives and regulatory compliance when valuing information assets.
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A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?
Internal audit
Control owner
Senior management
Risk manager
A purchase order approval process is a set of procedures that companies use to authorize the purchase of goods or services from suppliers1. This process typically involves multiple levels of approvals, ensuring that purchases are compliant with company regulations and policies, and within budget limitations1. Sometimes, a department may be granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders, for example, due to urgency, emergency, or special circumstances2. However, such exceptions should not compromise the effectiveness and integrity of the purchase order approval process, and should be properly documented and justified2. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the exception has been approved by senior management, as they are ultimately responsible for setting and overseeing the purchase order approval process, and for ensuring that the exceptions are reasonable and aligned with the company’s objectives and risk appetite3. Internal audit is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Internal audit’s role is to provide independent assurance and advice on the adequacy and effectiveness of thepurchase order approval process and its controls, and to report any issues or recommendations for improvement4. Control owner is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Control owner’s role is to design, implement, and operate the controls that support the purchase order approval process, and to monitor and report on the performance and compliance of the controls5. Risk manager is not the correct answer, as they are not involved in approving the purchase order approval process or its exceptions. Risk manager’s role is to identify, assess, and mitigate the risks associated with the purchase order approval process, and to communicate and report on the risk status and issues6. References = 1: A Step-by-Step Guide to a Purchase Order Approval Process2: Purchase Order Exceptions | Fordham3: Purchase Order (PO) Approval Process and Approval Workflow - ProcureDesk4: IT Risk Resources | ISACA5: CRISC Resources [updated 2021] | Infosec6: Riskand Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk appetite is decreased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after applying controls or other risk treatments. A critical patch is a type of control that aims to reduce the risk of a known vulnerability being exploited by attackers. If the patch implementation fails, the control is ineffective and the risk is not reduced. Therefore, the residual risk is increased, as the organization is still exposed to the potential negative consequences of the vulnerability.
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?
Evaluate the security architecture maturity.
Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.
Charter a privacy steering committee.
Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).
The best way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations is to conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA). A PIA is a systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the privacy risks and impacts of a new or existing system, process, program, or initiative that involves the collection, use, storage, or disclosure of personal information. A PIA can help to ensure that the enterprise complies with the emerging privacyregulations, and that the privacy rights and expectations of the individuals are respected and protected. A PIA can also help to identify the gaps, weaknesses, and opportunities for improvement in the enterprise’s privacy policies, procedures, and controls. Evaluating the security architecture maturity, mapping the new requirements to the existing control framework, and chartering a privacy steering committee are not as comprehensive and effective as conducting a PIA, as they do not address the specific privacy risks and impacts of the enterprise’s activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 192.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?
Ongoing training
Timely notification
Return on investment (ROI)
Cost minimization
The best way to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners is to provide timely notification of the changes in the risk exposure. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By providing timely notification of the KRI values, the risk owners can be alerted of the risk situation and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Ongoing training, return on investment (ROI), and cost minimization are other possible ways to ensure KRIs provide value, but they are not as effective as timely notification. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?
Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.
Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.
Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.
Transfer a read-only version of the data.
Using a VPN ensures the secure transmission of sensitive data over a public network by encrypting the communication channel. This mitigates risks such as interception or unauthorized access, aligning withData Protection and Privacy Standards.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?
Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions
Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options
Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options
Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.
 The greatest benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners is that accountability is established for risk treatment decisions. Risk owners are the individuals or groups who are responsible and accountable formanaging a specific risk and its associated actions and outcomes. By identifying appropriate risk owners, the organization can ensure that the risk treatment decisions are made by the people who have the authority, knowledge, and interest in the risk. Stakeholders beingconsulted, risk owners being informed, and responsibility being established are other possible benefits, but they are not as great as accountability being established. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?
To align with board reporting requirements
To assist management in decision making
To create organization-wide risk awareness
To minimize risk mitigation efforts
Risk tolerance and appetite are the expressions of the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that the organization is willing to allow for the outcome of its risk decisions. Riskappetite is the broad-based amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in its activities. The primary objective of establishing an organization’s risk tolerance and appetite is to assist management in decision making, as they provide guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. By establishing the risk tolerance and appetite, the organization can align its risk exposure with its strategic goals, optimize its risk-return trade-off, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 61.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy?
Cost of controls
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Probability definition
Risk response strategy is the approach that an organization takes to address the risks that it faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. Risk response strategy involves selecting and implementingthe appropriate risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance, for each risk, based on the risk level, the risk appetite, and the cost-benefit analysis1.
The most important consideration for senior management when developing a risk response strategy is the risk appetite of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk attitude and its willingness to take on risk in specific scenarios. Risk appetite is usually expressed in a qualitative statement approved by the board of directors2.
Considering the risk appetite of the organization is essential for developing a risk response strategy, because it can help to:
Align the risk response strategy with the overall business strategy and vision, and ensure that the risk response options support the achievement of the organizational objectives
Balance the risk response strategy with the expected benefits and opportunities, and ensure that the risk response options do not eliminate or reduce the potential value or performance of the organization
Enhance the risk response strategy with the stakeholder expectations and requirements, and ensure that the risk response options meet the needs and interests of the customers, suppliers, partners, regulators, and other parties
Optimize the risk response strategy with the available resources and capabilities, and ensure that the risk response options are feasible and cost-effective for the organization34
The other options are not as important as the risk appetite of the organization for developing a risk response strategy, but rather some of the factors or outcomes of it. Cost of controls is the amount of resources and funds that are required to implement and maintain the risk response controls, such as policies, procedures, or technologies, that aim to prevent or reduce the negative effects of the risks. Cost of controls is a factor that can affect the selection and implementation of the risk response options, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is a factor that can measure the risk analysis and guide the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. Probability definition is the process of estimating the likelihood or frequency of the risk events, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. Probability definition is anoutcome of the risk analysis that can inform the risk response, but it is not the primary consideration for developing the risk response strategy. References =
Risk Response - ISACA
Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference? - ISACA
Risk Response Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template)
Risk Response Strategy - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?
Designing compensating controls
Determining if KRIs have been updated recently
Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan
Determining what has changed in the environment
The primary focus of management when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds is to determine what has changed in the environment. KRIs are metrics that provide information and insight on the current level and trend of the risk exposure, and help to monitor and report the risk status and performance. Defined thresholds are the values or rangesof the KRIs that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable level of the risk exposure, and trigger the risk response actions. When KRIs begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds, it means that the risk exposure is increasing or decreasing significantly, and that the risk situation and status may have changed. Therefore, the primary focus of management is to determine what has changed in the environment, which is the internal or external context that influences or affects the risk exposure and impact. Determining what has changed in the environment helps to identify and analyze the causes, drivers, or factors of the risk change, and to evaluate the implications and consequences of the risk change. Determining what has changed in the environment also helps to update and adjust the risk assessment and response, and to communicate and escalate the risk change to the relevant stakeholders. Designing compensating controls, determining if KRIs have been updated recently, and assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan are not the primary focus of management, as they are either the outputs or the inputs of the risk change analysis, and they do not address the primary need of understanding the risk change. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?
The number of threats to the system
The organization's available budget
The number of vulnerabilities to the system
The level of acceptable risk to the organization
Determining Controls:
Acceptable Risk Level: The level of acceptable risk to the organization is the most important consideration because it directly influences the type and extent of controls implemented. Controls must be designed to keep risk within acceptable levels.
Risk Management Strategy: Aligning controls with the organization's risk appetite ensures that resources are used effectively and that critical information systems are adequately protected.
Comparison with Other Options:
Number of Threats: Important for understanding risk exposure but secondary to determining acceptable risk levels.
Available Budget: Budget constraints are important but should not compromise the implementation of necessary controls.
Number of Vulnerabilities: Identifying vulnerabilities is part of the risk assessment process, but controls are prioritized based on the acceptable risk level.
Best Practices:
Risk Assessment: Conduct thorough risk assessments to understand the potential impact of threats and vulnerabilities.
Control Effectiveness: Implement controls that are both cost-effective and capable of reducing risk to acceptable levels.
Continuous Monitoring: Regularly monitor and review controls to ensure they remain effective and aligned with the organization's risk tolerance.
Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.
Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.
Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.
Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The risk management function acts as a consultant and facilitator in IT projects, helping the project team identify, assess, and respond to risks effectively. It does not directly control project status or costs but supports decision-making. Updating risk registers is an operational task often handled by the project team with guidance from risk management. Eliminating all risk is impractical; instead, risks are managed within appetite levels.
After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?
To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices
The add new controls to mitigate the risk
The recommend changes to the IoT policy
To confirm the impact to the risk profile
 The primary reason to report the information about the new risk scenarios identified after the implementation of Internet of Things (IoT) devices to risk owners is to confirm the impact to the risk profile. The risk profile is a summary of the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces or may face in the future. The risk profile reflects the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, and guides the risk management decisions and actions. The implementation of IoT devices may introduce new risks or increase the likelihood or impact of existing risks, such as data privacy, security, or interoperability issues. Therefore, the information about the new risk scenarios should be reported to the risk owners, who have the authority and responsibility for managing the risks and their responses, to confirm the impact to the risk profile and to determine the appropriate risk treatment plans. The other options are not asprimary as confirming the impact to the risk profile, as they are related to the reevaluation, mitigation, or recommendation of the IoT devices, not the confirmation or assessment of the risk profile. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.2: IT Risk Register, page 19.
After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:
Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?
External audit
Internal audit
Vendor performance scorecard
Regulatory examination
An external audit is the most reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor’s control environment, as it provides an independent and objective assessment of the vendor’s financial systems and processes. An external audit is conducted by a third party, such as a certified public accountant (CPA) or a professional auditing firm, that follows the generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) and the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP). An external audit can help to verify the accuracy and completeness of the vendor’s financial statements, identify any material misstatements or errors, and evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the vendor’s internal controls. An external audit can also provide assurance and confidence to the organization and other stakeholders that the vendor is complying with the relevant laws, regulations, and contractual obligations.
The other options are not the most reliable inputs to evaluate residual risk in the vendor’s control environment. An internal audit is conducted by the vendor itself, which may introduce bias or conflict of interest. An internal audit may also have a different scope, methodology, or quality than an external audit. A vendor performance scorecard is completed by the organization, which may not have the sufficient access, expertise, or authority to assess the vendor’s control environment. A vendor performance scorecard may also focus more on the service level agreement (SLA) compliance, rather than the financial systems and processes. A regulatory examination is conducted by a regulator, such as a government agency or a standard-settingbody, which may have a different purpose, criteria, or perspective than the organization. A regulatory examination may also have a limited scope, frequency, or transparency. References = Guide to VendorRisk Assessment | Smartsheet, Understanding Inherent Vs. Residual Risk Assessments - Resolver, Assessing Internal Controls over Compliance - HCCA Official Site
An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?
Data classification schemes
Industry data breach reports
Data storage locations
Data flow documentation
Data flow documentation provides insight into how and where data moves, stored, or processed. It helps identify vulnerable points in the data lifecycle where data loss can occur.
Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:
inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions
keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal
adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance
initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency
The best course of action for the risk practitioner upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold is to inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions. This would help the risk practitioner to understand the root causes of the problem, the progress of the remediation efforts, and the expected timeline for resolution. It would also help the risk practitioner to provide guidance and support to the responsible parties, and to escalate the issue if necessary. Inquiring about the status of any planned corrective actions would demonstrate the risk practitioner’s proactive and collaborative approach to riskmanagement, and ensure that the risk exposure is reduced to an acceptable level as soon as possible. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.3, page 2371
An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?
Risk profile
Risk tolerance
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The risk profile is the most important thing to reassess when an organization implements new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation (RPA). The risk profile is a comprehensive and dynamic view of the organization’s risks, their ratings, responses, and status. RPA can introduce new risks or change the existing risks related to the organization’s objectives, operations, and performance. For example, RPA can create risks such as system failures, databreaches, compliance violations, human errors, or ethical dilemmas. Therefore, the organization should reassess its risk profile to identify, assess, treat, monitor, and review the risks associated with RPA, and to ensure that the risk management strategy is aligned with the business needs and expectations.
An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?
The number of users who can access sensitive data
A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data
The reason some databases have not been encrypted
The cost required to enforce encryption
 According to the CRISC Review Manual, a list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data would be the most important information for assessing the risk impact, because it would help to determine the extent and severity of the potential data breach or loss. The risk impact is the effect or consequence of the risk occurrence on the business objectives and operations. A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data would indicate the scope and magnitude of the risk exposure and the potential damage to the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. The other options are not the most important information for assessing the risk impact, as they are less relevant or less specific than a list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data. The number of users who can access sensitive data would indicate the level of access control and the likelihood of unauthorized access, but it would not indicate thetype and value of the data. The reason some databases have not been encrypted would indicate the cause and rationale of the risk, but it would not indicate the effect or consequence of the risk. The cost required to enforce encryption would indicate the feasibility and affordability of the risk response, but it would not indicate the potential loss or harm of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 78.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?
The type of shared data
The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented
The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified
The impact to affected stakeholders
The impact to affected stakeholdersis the most critical factor when considering risks tied to re-identification. ISACA notes that risk is ultimately measured by how it affects stakeholders—including customers, partners, and regulators—particularly when personal data is involved.
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A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
invoke the established incident response plan.
Inform internal audit.
Perform a root cause analysis
Conduct an immediate risk assessment
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the first course of action when a risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet is to invoke the established incident response plan, which is a set of policies, procedures, and resources that enable the organization to respond to and recover from an incident that affects the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of its IT assets and processes. Invoking the incident response plan helps to:
Contain and isolate the incident and prevent further damage or loss
Identify and analyze the source, cause, and impact of the incident
Eradicate and eliminate the incident and restore normal operations
Communicate and coordinate the incident response activities and roles with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owner, the risk owner, the senior management, and the external parties
Learn and improve from the incident and update the incident response plan and the risk register
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 219-2201
The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is
to review:
change logs.
configuration settings.
server access logs.
anti-malware compliance.
Reviewing configuration settings is the best way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy, because it helps to check and verify that the servers are configured and maintained according to the established security standards and guidelines, and that any deviations or violations are identified and corrected. A configuration setting is a parameter or option that defines the behavior or functionality of a server, such as a system, an application, or aservice. A security policy is a document that outlines the security objectives, principles, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of non-compliance. Reviewing configuration settings is the best way, as it helps to ensure that the servers are secure and compliant, and that any security risks or issues are detected and resolved. Reviewing change logs, server access logs, and anti-malware compliance are all possible ways to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy, but they are not the best way, as they do not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the configuration settings and their compliance status. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2, page 200
An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?
Feedback from end users
Results of a benchmark analysis
Recommendations from internal audit
Prioritization from business owners
 A benchmark analysis is a process of comparing the organization’s performance, practices, and processes with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector. A benchmark analysis can provide the most useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments, because it can help the organization to identify the best practices, standards, and expectations for security risk management in its industry. A benchmark analysis can also help the organization to assess its current level of maturity, capability, and compliance in relation to security risk management, and to determine the gaps and areas for improvement. By conducting a benchmark analysis, the organization can establish a realistic and appropriate frequency of risk assessments that aligns with its industry norms and its own risk profile. The other options are not as useful as a benchmark analysis, because they do not provide a comprehensive and relevant view of the security risk management landscape, but rather focus on specific or partial aspects of the organization’s situation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.2, page 18.
Which group has PRIMARY ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization?
Board of directors
Human resources (HR)
Risk management committee
Audit committee
The group that has primary ownership of reputational risk stemming from unethical behavior within the organization is A. Board of directors. According to the CFA Institute, the board of directors is responsible for setting the tone at the top and ensuring that the company adheres to high ethical standards and values. The board of directors also oversees the company’s culture, governance, and risk management practices, and holds the management accountable for any misconduct or breach of trust1 The board of directors may delegate some of its oversight functions to other committees, such as the human resources, risk management, or audit committee, but ultimately, the board of directors bears the ultimate responsibility for the company’s reputation and integrity
Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?
Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies
Creation of a cloud access risk management policy
Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution
Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services
 A cloud access security broker (CASB) solution is the best way to enforce access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies, as it provides a centralized and consistent platform to manage and monitor the access to various cloud services and applications. A CASB solution can help to implement and enforce the enterprise’s access policies and standards, as well as to detect and prevent unauthorized or malicious access attempts. Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies, creation of a cloud access risk management policy, and expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services are not the best ways to enforce access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies, as they do not provide the technical capabilities or tools to manage and monitor the access to various cloud services and applications. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 210; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 210.
Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?
To support regulatory requirements
To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment
To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario
To track historical risk assessment results
 A risk register is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and status. A risk register can help manage and communicate risks throughout the risk management process. A risk register should be updated regularly to reflect the current state of risks and their responses. Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario may no longer require mitigation, as the risk level may have decreased or the risk may have been eliminated. However, the risk should remain in the risk register, as the most important reason is to monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario. This means keeping track of the internal and external factors that may affect the risk scenario, such as new threats, vulnerabilities, opportunities, or controls. Monitoring for potential changes to the risk scenario can help identify and respond to any emerging or reoccurring risks, and ensure that therisk register is accurate and complete. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.3: Risk Register, p. 41-43.
A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?
Business continuity director
Disaster recovery manager
Business application owner
Data center manager
 The business application owner should have the authority to accept the associated risk, because they are responsible for the performance and outcomes of the critical application, and they understand the business requirements, expectations, and impact of the application. The business application owner can also evaluate the trade-offs between the potential benefits and costs of the application, and the potential risks and consequences of a disruption or failure of the application. The business application owner can also communicate and justify their risk acceptance decision to the senior management and other stakeholders, and ensure that the risk is monitored and reviewed regularly. The other options are less appropriate to have the authority to accept the associated risk. The business continuity director is responsible for overseeing the planning and execution of the business continuity strategy, which includes ensuring the availability andresilience of the critical business processes and applications. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. The disaster recovery manager is responsible for managing the recovery and restoration of the IT systems and applications in the event of a disaster or disruption. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. The data center manager is responsible for managing the operation and maintenance of the data center infrastructure, which includes providing the physical and environmental security, power, cooling, and network connectivity for the IT systems and applications. However, they are not the owner of the application, and they may not have the full knowledge or authority to accept the risk on behalf of the business. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 181
Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?
Lack of robust awareness programs
infrequent risk assessments of key controls
Rapid changes in IT procedures
Unavailability of critical IT systems
Unavailability of critical IT systems poses the greatest risk to an organization’s operations during a major IT transformation, because it can disrupt the business continuity, productivity, and performance of the organization. Unavailability of critical IT systems can also cause financial, reputational, or legal damages to the organization, and affect the quality and delivery of products or services to the customers. The other options are not the greatest risks, although they may also pose some challenges or threats to the organization during a major IT transformation. Lack of robust awareness programs, infrequent risk assessments of key controls, and rapid changes in IT procedures are examples of management or process risks that can affect the planning, execution,or monitoring of the IT transformation, but they do not have the same impact or severity as the unavailability of critical IT systems. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?
Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.
Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.
Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.
Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.
 The most concerning issue for a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register is that several risk action plans have missed target completion dates. This indicates that the risk responses are not being implemented effectively or timely, and that the risk exposure may not be reduced as expected. Senior management accepting more risk than usual, risk associated with many assets being expressed in qualitative terms, and many risk scenarios being owned by the same senior manager are not as concerning as the missed deadlines, as they may reflect the risk appetite, tolerance, and culture of the organization. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Sensitive information classification and handling policies
Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices
Regular employee security awareness training
An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Regular employee security awareness training is the most effective method to reduce unintentional disclosure of sensitive information. Training educates employees on risks, policies, and best practices, thus changing behavior and reducing human error. Classification policies provide guidelines, and technical controls like IDS and anti-malware detect or prevent some risks but do not address the human factor as directly as awareness trainingã€5:517, 5:527†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
An organization mandates the escalation of a service ticket when a key application is offline for 5 minutes or more due to potential risk exposure. The risk practitioner has been asked by management to prepare a report of application offline times using both 3- and 5-minute thresholds. What does the 3-minute threshold represent?
Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Key Risk Indicator (KRI)
Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Key Performance Indicator (KPI)
The 3-minute threshold is a KRI designed to act as an early warning before a more critical limit (5 minutes) is breached, helping prevent risk realization.
What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?
Accountable
Informed
Responsible
Consulted
Senior management’s role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners is accountable, as it means that they have the ultimate authority and responsibility to approve or reject the risk management decisions and actions, and to oversee the risk management performance and outcomes. The other options are not the correct roles, as they imply different levels or types of involvement or participation in the risk management process, such as being informed, responsible, or consulted, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite?
Gap analysis
Risk assessment
Heat map
Risk register
The best way to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite is to use a risk register, which is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses1. A risk register can help to:
Define the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2. The risk register can include the risk appetite statement, which is a clear and concise expression of the enterprise’s risk preferences and boundaries3.
Communicate the risk appetite, which is the process of sharing and informing the risk appetite to the relevant stakeholders, such as the board, the management, the employees, or the customers4. The risk register can be used as a communication tool, which can provide a consistent and transparent view of the enterprise’s risk profile and performance5.
The other options are not the best ways to help an enterprise define and communicate its risk appetite, because:
Gap analysis is a technique that compares the current state and the desired state of a process, system, or organization, and identifies the gaps or differences between them6. Gap analysis can help to assess the alignment or misalignment of the enterprise’s risk appetite with its risk level, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Risk assessment is a process that estimates the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizes the risks based on their significance and urgency. Risk assessment can help to identify andanalyze the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
Heat map is a graphical representation that uses colors to indicate the level or intensity of a variable, such as risk. Heat map can help to visualize and compare the risks based on their probability and impact, but it does not help to define or communicate the risk appetite itself.
References =
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite Statement - CIO Wiki
Risk Communication - CIO Wiki
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Gap Analysis - CIO Wiki
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Heat Map - CIO Wiki]
[Risk and Information Systems Control documents and learning resources by ISACA]
Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?
Chief information officer (CIO)
Executive management team
Audit committee
Business process owner
Strategic decisions on risk management are the decisions that involve setting the direction, objectives, and priorities for risk management within an organization, as well as aligning them with the organization’s overall strategy, vision, and mission1. Strategic decisions on riskmanagement also involve defining the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and level of risk that the organization is willing and able to accept to achieve its goals2. The responsibility for strategic decisions on risk management should belong to the executive management team, which is the group of senior leaders who have the authority and accountability for the organization’s performance and governance3. The executive management team has the best understanding of the organization’s strategic context, environment, and stakeholders, and can make informed and balanced decisions that consider the benefits and costsof risk-taking4. The executive management team also has the ability and responsibility to communicate and cascade the strategic decisions on risk management to the rest of the organization, and to monitor and evaluate their implementation and outcomes5. The chief information officer (CIO), the audit committee, and the business process owner are not the best choices for being responsible for strategic decisions on risk management, as they do not have the same level of authority and accountability as the executive management team. The CIO is the senior leader who oversees the organization’s information andtechnology strategy, resources, and systems6. The CIO may be involved in providing input and feedback to the executive management team on the strategic decisions on risk management, especially those related to IT risk, but they do not have the final say or the overall responsibility for them. The audit committee is a subcommittee of the board of directors that oversees the organization’s financial reporting, internal controls, and external audits7. The audit committee may be involved in reviewing and approving the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as ensuring their compliance with the relevant laws and standards, but they do not have the authority or the expertise to make or implement them. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for a business process that supports or enables the organization’s objectives and functions. The business process owner may be involved in executing and reporting on the strategic decisions on risk management, as well as identifying and mitigating the risks related to their business process, but they do not have the perspective or the influence to make or communicate them. References = 1: Strategic Risk Management: Complete Overview (With Examples)2: [Risk Appetite and Tolerance - ISACA] 3: [Senior Management - Definition, Roles andResponsibilities] 4: Stanford Strategic Decision and Risk Management | Stanford Online5: A 7-Step Process for Strategic Risk Management — RiskOptics - Reciprocity6: [Chief Information Officer (CIO) - Gartner ITGlossary] 7: [Audit Committee - Overview, Functions, and Responsibilities] : [Business Process Owner - Gartner IT Glossary] : [Business Process Owner - Roles and Responsibilities] : [Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Concepts, pp. 17-19.]
Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?
Risk management treatment plan
Risk assessment results
Risk management framework
Risk register
The most helpful source in providing an overview of an organization’s risk management program is the risk management framework. The risk management framework is a set of components that provide the foundations and organizational arrangements for designing, implementing, monitoring, reviewing, and continually improving risk management throughout the organization. The framework includes the risk management principles, policies, processes, procedures, roles, responsibilities, and resources that enable the organization to manage risk effectively. Risk management treatment plan, risk assessment results, and risk register are other sources that may provide some information about the risk management program, but they are not as comprehensive as the risk management framework. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
A business unit is updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project. Which of the following is MOST important to capture in the register?
The methodology used to perform the risk assessment
Action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment
Date and status of the last project milestone
The individuals assigned ownership of controls
Updating a risk register with assessment results for a key project must primarily capture action plans to address risk scenarios requiring treatment.
Risk Register Purpose:
Documentation of Risks:The risk register is a central repository for all identified risks and their respective treatment plans. It ensures that all risks are documented, tracked, and managed throughout the project lifecycle.
Action Plans:It is crucial to document action plans for risks that require treatment. This ensures that there are clear strategies in place to mitigate or manage these risks.
Importance of Action Plans:
Mitigation and Management:Action plans detail the steps necessary to mitigate identified risks, providing a clear path for risk management. This is vital for ensuring that risks do not negatively impact the project.
Accountability and Tracking:Including action plans in the risk register assigns responsibility and timelines for risk treatment, which is essential for accountability and tracking progress.
An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?
Classification of the data
Type of device
Remote management capabilities
Volume of data
The most important factor when assessing the risk of allowing users to access company data from their personal devices is the classification of the data, as it indicates the level of sensitivity, confidentiality, and criticality of the data. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate level of protection and controls that are needed to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of the data. Data classification also helps to define the roles and responsibilities of the data owners, custodians, and users, and the acceptable use of the data. The other options are not the most important factors, although they may be relevant or influential in the risk assessment. The type of device may affect the security features and vulnerabilities of the device, but it does not determine the value or impact of the data. The remote management capabilities may affect the ability to monitor, control, or wipe the device in case of theft or loss, but they do not reflect the nature or purpose of the data. The volume of data may affect the storage capacity or performance of the device, but it does not indicate the importance or significance of the data. References = What is BYOD (Bring-Your-Own-Device) - CrowdStrike; Understanding BYOD Policy - Get Certified Get Ahead; Addressing cyber security concerns on employees’ personal devices; Personal Devices at Work – Nonprofit Risk Management Center; 10 Keys to an Effective BYOD and Remote Access Policy
Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?
Perform annual risk assessments.
Interview process owners.
Review the risk register.
Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).
Control processes are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations12.
The ongoing efficiency of control processes is the degree to which the control processes achieve their intended results with minimum resources, costs, or waste34.
The best way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes is to analyze key performance indicators (KPIs), which are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome56.
Analyzing KPIs is the best way because it provides a systematic and consistent method of evaluating the performance of the control processes, and identifying the areas of improvement or optimization56.
Analyzing KPIs is also the best way because it enables the organization to monitor and report the efficiency of the control processes to the relevant stakeholders, and to take corrective or preventive actions when necessary56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible sources of information or inputs that may support or complement the analysis of KPIs. For example:
Performing annual risk assessments is a way to identify and evaluate the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, and to determine the adequacy and effectiveness ofthe control processes in mitigating those risks12. However, this way is not the best because it is periodic rather than continuous, and may not capture the changes or trends in the efficiency of the control processes12.
Interviewing process owners is a way to collect and verify the information and feedback from the people who are responsible for designing, implementing, and operating the control processes12. However, this way is not the best because it is subjective and qualitative, and may not provide reliable or comparable data on the efficiency of the control processes12.
Reviewing the risk register is a way to examine and update the documentation and status of the risks and the control processes that are associated with them12. However, this way is not the best because it is descriptive rather than analytical, and may not measure or evaluate the efficiency of the control processes12. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: The Control Process | Principles of Management4
4: Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
5: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik1
6: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org2
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:
minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.
aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.
build a threat profile of the organization for management review.
provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors primarily helps to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions, which are the decisions that are made based on the consideration and evaluation of the risks and their responses. Providing a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions helps to ensure that the decisions are consistent, appropriate, and proportional to the level and nature of the risks, and that they support the organization’s objectives and values. It also helps to optimize the balance between risk and return, and to create and protect value for the organization and its stakeholders.
The other options are not the primary benefits of periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of a risk register, which is to provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.
Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment means reducing the scope and depth of risk analysis and reporting, and impairing the organization’s ability to identify and respond to emerging or changing risks. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details onidentified risk factors does not necessarily minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment, and it may not be a desirable or beneficial outcome for the organization.
Aggregating risk scenarios identified across different business units means combining or consolidating the risks that are identified by different parts or functions of the organization, and creating a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units, and it may not be a sufficient or effective way to achieve a holistic or integrated view of the organization’s risk profile.
Building a threat profile of the organization for management review means creating or developing a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and presenting or reporting it to the senior management for their awareness and approval. Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors does not necessarily build a threat profile of the organization for management review, and it may not be a comprehensive or reliable way to create or develop a summary or representation of the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 172
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:
implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.
suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.
revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.
evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.
The best course of action when a risk practitioner finds that the risk level of an emerging IT risk has increased, despite having an action plan to mitigate it, is to evaluate whether the selected controls are still appropriate. This is because the increase in the risk level may indicate that the current controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or that the risk environment has changed and new threats or vulnerabilities have emerged. By evaluating the appropriateness of the selected controls, the risk practitioner can identify the gaps or weaknesses in the control design or implementation, and determine the need for corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not the best course of action, because they do not address the root cause of the problem, but rather assume or ignore the effectiveness of the controls, as explained below:
A. Implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the planned controls are adequate and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased. Implementing the planned controls without evaluating their appropriateness may result in wasting resources, exposing the organization to more risk, or missing opportunities to enhance the risk mitigation effectiveness.
B. Suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk is not the best course of action, because it ignores the effectiveness of the current controls, which may still provide some level ofrisk mitigation, even if they are not optimal. Suspending the current action plan may also delay the risk response and increase the risk exposure, especially if the risk is time-sensitive or dynamic. Reassessing the risk without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may also lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk information and analysis.
C. Revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the current controls are ineffective or insufficient, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased due to other factors, such as changes in the risk environment or the organization’s objectives. Revising the action plan without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may result in overcompensating, duplicating, or conflicting the controls, which may affect the risk mitigation efficiency and performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130. How to Mitigate Emerging Technology Risk - ISACA, Risk Mitigation Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template), 5 Key Risk Mitigation Strategies (With Examples) | Indeed.com
Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?
Common attacks in other industries.
Identification of risk events.
Impact on critical assets.
Probability of disruptive risk events.
Identifying specific risk events provides the foundational input for creating relevant and actionable risk scenarios. These scenarios form the basis of assessing potential impacts and determining effective controls. This is a key step in theRisk Identification and Assessmentprocess.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?
Standards-based policies
Audit readiness
Efficient operations
Regulatory compliance
The greatest benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place is efficient operations, as EA provides a holistic view of the organization’s business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure, and enables alignment, integration, and optimization of these components. Standards-based policies, audit readiness, and regulatory compliance are also benefits of EA, but they are not the greatest benefit. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 145.
An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:
The region in which the organization operates.
Established business culture.
Risk appetite set by senior management.
Identified business process controls.
Risk appetite determined by senior management reflects the enterprise's willingness to accept certain levels of risk, including noncompliance. This decision underscores the strategic trade-offs made in risk management, a key element inGovernance and Risk Policy Alignment.
Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?
IT management
Internal audit
Process owners
Senior management
 Process owners are the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of business processes. Process owners are also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their processes, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of IT-related events on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives. IT management is responsible for the delivery and support of IT services and solutions, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business objectives and processes. Internal audit is responsible for providing independent and objective assurance and consulting services on the effectiveness and efficiency of governance, risk management, and control processes, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business objectives and processes. Senior management is responsible for settingthe strategic direction and objectives of the organization, but they maynot have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business processes and their risks and controls. References = IT Risk Manager: Skills and Roles & Responsibilities, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Managing information technology risk | Business Queensland
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?
Cost and benefit
Security and availability
Maintainability and reliability
Performance and productivity
 The most important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners is the cost and benefit of the risk response options. Technology end-of-life is the situation when a technology product or service is no longer supported by the vendor or manufacturer, and may pose security, compatibility, or performance issues. The risk practitioner should communicate the cost and benefit of the possible risk responses, such as replacing, upgrading, or maintaining the technology, to the business owners, and help them to make informed and rational decisions. Security and availability, maintainability and reliability, and performance and productivity are other possible considerations, but they are not as important as the cost and benefit. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?
Audit engagement letter
Risk profile
IT risk register
Change control documentation
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the IT risks that have been identified and assessed by the risk practitioner. It contains information such as the risk description, the risk owner, the risk level, the risk response, the risk status, and the risk monitoring and reporting activities. An IT risk register is a dynamic document that needs to be updated regularly to reflect the changes in the IT environment and the risk landscape. When a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective, the risk practitioner should update the IT risk register to indicate the new risk level, the new risk response, and the new risk monitoring and reporting activities. This will ensure that the IT risk register remains accurate, relevant, and useful for IT risk management. Updating the IT risk register is more important than updating the audit engagement letter, the risk profile, or the change control documentation, because the IT risk register is the primary source of information and guidance for managing IT risks. The audit engagement letter is a formal agreement between the auditor and the auditee that defines the scope, objectives, and terms of the audit. The risk profile is a summary of the organization’s risk appetite, risk tolerance, and risk exposure. The change control documentation is a record of the changes that have been made to the IT systems and processes. These documents are important for IT risk management, but they are not as critical as the IT risk register for updating when a key controlbecomes ineffective. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: Risk Register, pp. 69-711
What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?
Review regular control testing results.
Recommend a penetration test.
Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.
Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).
A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses or gaps in an application that may expose it to potential threats or attacks.
When vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application, the first thing that a risk practitioner should do is to assess the risk to determine mitigation needed. This means that the risk practitioner should analyze the likelihood and impact of the weakness being exploited, the existing controls that are in place to prevent or reduce the exploitation, and the residual risk that remains after applying the controls.
Assessing the risk to determine mitigation needed helps to prioritize the actions that are required to address the weakness, such as implementing new or additional controls, accepting the risk, transferring the risk, or avoiding the risk.
The other options are not the first things that a risk practitioner should do when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application. They are either secondary or not essential for risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 18
Information Technology & Security, page 12
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 10
Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?
Testing control design
Accepting residual risk
Establishing business information criteria
Establishing the risk register
 Accepting residual risk is the most important responsibility of a risk owner, as it implies that the risk owner is accountable for the risk and its impact on the enterprise’s objectives and operations. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls, and it should be aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise. The risk owner is responsible for implementing the risk response strategies and monitoring the risk status and outcomes, as well as for reporting and escalating the risk issues and incidents. Testing control design, establishing business information criteria, and establishing the risk register are not the most important responsibilities of a risk owner, but rather the tasks or activities that the risk owner may performor delegate as part of the risk management process. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question218; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 218.
During which phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) should information security requirements for the implementation of a new IT system be defined?
Monitoring
Development
Implementation
Initiation
Information security requirements should be defined during theInitiationphase of the SDLC. This ensures that security is integrated into the design from the beginning, minimizing vulnerabilities and aligning security measures with business requirements. Early identification of security needs reduces rework and costs associated with later stages.
Using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile PRIMARILY helps to:
communicate risk trends to stakeholders.
assign ownership of emerging risk scenarios.
highlight noncompliance with the risk policy
identify threats to emerging technologies.
 The primary purpose of using key risk indicators (KRIs) to illustrate changes in the risk profile is to communicate risk trends to stakeholders. KRIs are metrics that provide an early warning of increasing risk exposure in various areas of the organization. By using KRIs to illustrate changes in the risk profile, the organization can communicate the risk trends to the stakeholders, such as the board, senior management, business units, and external parties, and enable them to take appropriate actions to manage the risk. Assigning ownership of emerging risk scenarios, highlighting noncompliance with the risk policy, and identifying threats to emerging technologies are other possible purposes, but they are not as important as communicating risk trends to stakeholders. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control(CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?
Obsolete response documentation
Increased stakeholder turnover
Failure to audit third-party providers
Undefined assignment of responsibility
The most significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan is the undefined assignment of responsibility. An incident response plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for responding to an incident that could disrupt the normal operations of the organization, or compromise its assets, reputation, or compliance. An incident response plan should clearly assign the responsibility for each task and activity involved in the incident response process, such as detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting. Undefined assignment of responsibility could lead to confusion, duplication, conflict, or omission among the stakeholders, and impair the effectiveness and efficiency of the incident response process. Undefined assignment of responsibility could also increase the risk of escalation, recurrence, or impact of the incident, and affect the accountability and performance of the organization. Obsolete response documentation, increased stakeholder turnover, and failure to audit third-party providers are also risks, but they are not as significant as undefined assignment of responsibility, as they do not directly affect the execution and outcome of the incident response process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 130.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?
Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee
Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings
Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep
Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants
The percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO), as it reflects the ability of the PMO to identify, assess, and respond to the risk of project scope changes that may affect the project objectives, budget, and schedule. The other options are not the best KPIs, as they do not directly measure the effectiveness of risk management practices in the PMO, but rather the outcomes or consequences of risk management decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?
Enterprise architecture (EA)
Control environment
IT objectives
Organizational objectives
The most important factor for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register is the organizational objectives. The organizational objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the organization aims to accomplish. The organizational objectives should be aligned with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the stakeholder expectations and needs. The organizational objectives should also reflect the desired outcomes and benefits of the organization, such as increasing revenue, reducing costs, improving quality, or enhancing customer satisfaction. Understanding the organizational objectives is the most important factor when creating an initial IT risk register, because it provides the context, scope, and criteria for identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the IT risks that may affect or be affected by the organizational objectives.Understanding the organizational objectives also helps to align the IT risk management process with the organizational risk management process, and to communicate the value and impact of the IT risks and the IT risk responses to the senior management and other stakeholders. The other options are not the most important factor, although they may be relevant or influential to the IT risk register. Enterprise architecture (EA) is a conceptual blueprint that defines the structure and operation of an organization. EA describes the current and future state of the organization in terms of its business processes, information systems, and technology infrastructure, and the relationships and dependencies among them. EA also provides the principles, standards, and guidelines for designing, developing, and implementing the organization’s solutions and services. EA can help to understand the IT risk sources, causes, and effects, as well as the IT risk mitigation options and opportunities, but it does not define the purpose or the scope of the IT risk register. Control environment is the set of policies, procedures, and mechanisms that ensure the reliability, security, and quality of the organization’s activities and information. Control environment includes the tone and culture at the top, the roles and responsibilities for governance and oversight, the internal control framework and methodology, and the monitoring and reporting systems. Control environment can help to assess the IT risk levels and the IT risk responses, as well as to ensure the compliance and accountability of the IT risk management process, but it does not provide the context or the criteria for the IT risk register. IT objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the IT function aims to accomplish. IT objectives should be aligned and consistent with the organizational objectives, as well as the IT strategy and IT governance. IT objectives should also reflect the expected outcomes and benefits of the IT function, such as delivering value, enabling innovation, or supporting transformation. IT objectives can help to identify and prioritize the IT risks that may affect or be affected by the IT objectives, but they are not the same as or more important than the organizational objectives. References = Three Steps to Creating a Simple IT Risk Register - Gartner, Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk, IT Resources | Knowledge & Insights | ISACA
Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?
A control self-assessment
A third-party security assessment report
Internal audit reports from the vendor
Service level agreement monitoring
A third-party security assessment report is the most helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, because it provides an independent and objective evaluation of the cloud provider’s security posture, policies, and practices. A third-party security assessment report can help to verify and validate the cloud provider’s compliance with the relevant standards, regulations, and best practices, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, NIST, or CSA. A third-party security assessment report can also help to identify and address any gaps, weaknesses, or vulnerabilities in the cloud provider’s security controls, and to provide recommendations and guidance for improvement. A third-party security assessment report can also help to increase the trust and confidence of the cloud customers, and to facilitate the due diligence and risk management processes. The other options are less helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider. A control self-assessment is a process that enables the cloud provider to assess its own security controls, using a predefined framework or questionnaire. However, a control self-assessment may not be as reliable or comprehensive as a third-party security assessment report, as it may be biased, incomplete, or inaccurate, and it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of security. Internal audit reports from the vendor are documents that provide the results and findings of the internal audits conducted by the cloud provider’s ownauditors, to verify and validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the securitycontrols. However, internal audit reports from the vendor may not be as credible or trustworthy as a third-party security assessment report, as they may be influenced by the cloud provider’s interests, objectives, or agenda, and they may not follow the same standards or criteria as the external auditors. Service level agreement monitoring is a process that measures and evaluates the performance and availability of the cloud services, based on the predefined metrics and targets agreed between the cloud provider and the cloud customer. However, service level agreement monitoring may not be sufficient or relevant to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider, as it may not address the security aspects or requirements of the cloud services, such as confidentiality, integrity, or accountability, and it may not reflect the actual security risks or incidents that may occur in the cloud environment. References = Cloud Security Controls: Key Elements and 4 Control Frameworks 1
IT stakeholders have asked a risk practitioner for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments to allocate resources for risk mitigation. The BEST way to address this request would be to use:
the cost associated with each control.
historical risk assessments.
key risk indicators (KRls).
information from the risk register.
 The best way to address the request for IT risk profile reports associated with specific departments would be to use key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to allocate resources for risk mitigation by prioritizing the risks that pose the greatest threat to the business objectives and performance of each department. The other options are not the best ways to address the request, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. The cost associated with each control may indicate the efficiency of the risk mitigation, but not the effectiveness or the necessity. Historical risk assessments may provide some baseline data, but not the current or future risk trends. Information from the risk register may include too much detail or irrelevant information, and not the key risk factors that need to be monitored and reported. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:
control is ineffective and should be strengthened
risk is inefficiently controlled.
risk is efficiently controlled.
control is weak and should be removed.
 Risk is inefficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending more on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. This indicates that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and that the organization should consider alternative or complementary controls that can lower the cost or increase the benefit of the risk management. Control is ineffective and should be strengthened when the control does not reduce the likelihood or impact of the risk to an acceptable level, regardless of the cost. Risk is efficiently controlled when the annual cost of the control is equal to or less than the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk, as this means that the organization is spending less or equal on the control than the potential loss that the control is supposed to prevent or reduce. Control is weak and should be removed when the control does not provide any benefit or value to the risk management,regardless of the cost. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question205; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 205.
An organization's risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?
Top-down analysis
Event tree analysis
Control gap analysis
Bottom-up analysis
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the most comprehensive approach to capture the risk scenario of collecting and storing credit card information is event tree analysis (ETA). ETA is a forward, top-down, logical modeling technique that explores the responses and outcomes of a single initiating event, such as a data breach or a cyberattack. ETA can help to identify all possible consequences of the scenario, such as financial losses, reputational damages, legal liabilities, regulatory penalties, and customer dissatisfaction. ETA can also help to assess the probabilities of the outcomes and the effectiveness of the controls and mitigation strategies12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?
Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system
Frequency of business impact
Cost of the Information control system
 Residual risk is the risk that remains after security controls have been implemented on a system. Residual risk can be accepted, transferred, avoided, or further mitigated. The most important consideration when deciding whether to accept residual risk is the cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls. This means comparing the potential impact of the residual risk with the cost and effectiveness of implementing more controls to reduce it. If the cost of additional controls outweighs the benefit of reducing the residual risk, then it may be acceptableto accept the residual risk. However, if the benefit of additional controls exceeds the cost, then it may be advisable to implement more controls to lower the residual risk to an acceptable level. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.4: Risk Response Selection, p. 156-157.
The PRIMARY objective for requiring an independent review of an organization's IT risk management process should be to:
assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategic focus.
confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact.
verify implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization.
ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk.
 The primary objective for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process should be to assess gaps in IT risk management operations and strategicfocus, as this helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the current process, and to provide recommendations for improvement and alignment with the enterprise’s objectives and environment. An independent review is an objective and unbiased evaluation of the IT risk management process by a qualified and competent party that is not involved in the process. An independent review can help to ensure the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of the IT risk management process, as well as to enhance the credibility and confidence of the process. Confirming that IT risk assessment results are expressed as business impact, verifying implemented controls to reduce the likelihood of threat materialization, and ensuring IT risk management is focused on mitigating potential risk are not the primary objectives for requiring an independent review of an organization’s IT risk management process, but rather the expected outcomes or benefits of the independent review. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question219; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 219.
The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:
evaluate how risk conditions are managed.
determine threats and vulnerabilities.
estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.
establish risk response options.
The primary objective of a risk identification process is to determine threats and vulnerabilities, which are the sources and causes of the risks that may affect the organization’sobjectives. Threats are any events or circumstances that have the potential to harm or exploit the organization’s assets, such as people, information, systems, processes, or infrastructure1. Vulnerabilities are any weaknesses or gaps in the organization’s capabilities, controls, or defenses that may increase the likelihood or impact of the threats2. By determining threats and vulnerabilities, the organization can:
Identify and document all possible risks, regardless of whether they are internal or external, current or emerging, or positive or negative3.
Understand the nature and characteristics of the risks, such as their sources, causes, consequences, and interrelationships4.
Provide the basis for further risk analysis and evaluation, such as assessing the probability and severity of the risks, and prioritizing the risks according to their significance and urgency5.
References =
Threat - CIO Wiki
Vulnerability - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification and Analysis - The National Academies Press
Risk Analysis - CIO Wiki
As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?
An assessment of threats to the organization
An assessment of recovery scenarios
industry standard framework
Documentation of testing procedures
As part of business continuity planning, the most important thing to include in a business impact analysis (BIA) is an industry standard framework. A BIA is a process of identifying and analyzing the potential effects of disruptions to the critical business functions and processes. An industry standard framework is a set of best practices, guidelines, and methodologies that provide a consistent and comprehensive approach to conducting a BIA. An industry standard framework can help to ensure that the BIA is complete, accurate, and reliable, and that it covers all the relevant aspects, such as the scope, objectives, criteria, methods, data sources, and reporting. An industry standard framework can also help to benchmark the BIA results against the industry norms and expectations, and to align the BIA with the business continuity strategy and plan. The other options are not as important as an industry standard framework, as they are related to the specific steps, activities, or outputs of the BIA, not the overall structure and quality of the BIA. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.4: Key Control Indicators, page 211.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?
Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.
Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.
Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.
Implement controls to prevent future risk events.
Conducting root cause analyses for risk events is the first recommendation that a risk practitioner should make when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified, as this helps to identify the underlying causes and sources of the risk events, and to determine the appropriate actions to address them. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of collecting and analyzing data, finding the root causes, and implementing solutions to prevent recurrence or reduce the impact of the risk events. Educating personnel on risk mitigation strategies, integrating the risk event and incident management processes, and implementing controls to prevent future risk events are not the first recommendations, but rather the possible outcomes or actions of conducting root cause analyses for risk events. References = CRISC Certified in Riskand Information Systems Control – Question208; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 208.
Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?
Cost-benefit analysis
Penetration testing
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Security assessment
ï‚· Understanding Business Impact Analysis (BIA):
BIA is a process used to identify and evaluate the potential effects (impact) of interruptions to critical business operations as a result of a disaster, accident, or emergency.
It helps quantify the potential loss impact of cyber risks by assessing the financial and operational consequences of disruptions.
ï‚· Quantifying Loss Impact:
BIA involves determining the value of business processes and the impact of their loss. This includes evaluating factors such as revenue loss, additional operational costs, legal penalties, and reputational damage.
By analyzing the criticality of business functions and their dependencies, BIA provides a detailed understanding of potential impacts, aiding in the development of risk mitigation strategies.
ï‚· Comparing Other Techniques:
Cost-Benefit Analysis:Useful for evaluating the cost-effectiveness of controls but does not provide a comprehensive assessment of potential loss impacts.
Penetration Testing:Identifies vulnerabilities but does not quantify the business impact of exploiting those vulnerabilities.
Security Assessment:Evaluates security controls but is not focused on the broader business impact of potential disruptions.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the role of BIA in assessing the impact of risks on business operations and quantifying potential losses (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.7 Business Impact Analysis)​​.
Which of the following IT key risk indicators (KRIs) provides management with the BEST feedback on IT capacity?
Trends in IT resource usage
Trends in IT maintenance costs
Increased resource availability
Increased number of incidents
IT capacity is the ability of an IT system or network to handle the current and future workload and performance demands. IT capacity can be affected by various factors, such as the numberand type of users, applications, devices, data, transactions, etc. IT capacity management is the process of planning, monitoring, and optimizing the IT resources to ensure that they meet the business needs and objectives. IT capacity management can help prevent issues such as system slowdowns, outages, errors, or failures, and improve the efficiency, reliability, and security of the IT system or network. One of the IT key risk indicators (KRIs) that provides managementwith the best feedback on IT capacity is the trends in IT resource usage. IT resource usage is the measure of how much of the IT resources, such as CPU, memory, disk, bandwidth, etc., are being consumed by the IT system or network. Trends in IT resource usage can help monitor and analyze the changes in the IT capacity over time, and identify the patterns, peaks, and bottlenecks in the IT resource consumption. Trends in IT resource usage can also help forecast the future IT capacity requirements, and plan for the appropriate IT resource allocation, optimization, or expansion. Trends in IT resource usage can provide management with valuable information on the current and potential IT capacity risks, and support the decision making and risk response for IT capacity management. References = Integrating KRIs and KPIs for Effective Technology Risk Management, p. 3-4.
Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?
Countermeasures analysis
Best practice assessment
Gap analysis
Risk assessment
A gap analysis is the best approach to identify information systems control deficiencies, as it helps to compare and evaluate the current and desired states of the information systems and their controls, and to identify and prioritize the gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. A gap analysis is a process of assessing and measuring the difference between the actual and expected performance or outcomes of a system or a process, such as an information system or a control process. A gap analysis can help to identify information systems control deficiencies by providing the following benefits:
It enables a data-driven and evidence-based approach to information systems control assessment and improvement, rather than relying on subjective or qualitative judgments.
It facilitates a consistent and standardized way of measuring and communicating information systems control performance and quality across the organization and to the external stakeholders.
It supports the alignment of information systems and their controls with the organizational strategy and objectives, and helps to evaluate the achievement of the desired outcomes.
It helps to identify and prioritize the root causes and contributing factors of information systems control deficiencies, and to develop and implement appropriate strategies and actions to address them.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the information systems and their controls, and helps to foster a culture of continuous improvement and innovation.
The other options are not the best approaches to identify information systems control deficiencies. Countermeasures analysis is a method of identifying and evaluating the potential countermeasures or solutions to mitigate or eliminate a specific threat or risk, but it does not directly address the information systems control deficiencies. Best practice assessment is a method of comparing and benchmarking the information systems and their controls against the industry standards or best practices, but it does not provide a comprehensive or customized analysis of the information systems control deficiencies. Risk assessment is a method ofidentifying and analyzing the potential risks and their impacts on the information systems and their objectives, but it does not measure or evaluate the information systems control performance or quality. References = Gap Analysis: A Practical Guide | Smartsheet, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, How to Perform a Gap Analysis: Step-By-Step Guide & Template
Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?
Results of risk remediation team interviews
Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes
Vulnerability assessment results
Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios
“Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios is a metric that measures the proportion of risk scenarios that have been reduced or eliminated by the risk responses and actions. However, this metric is not the most useful tool because it does not provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the risk landscape…â€
To truly measure progress,an up‑to‑date risk registerprovides the full context and current status of risk treatments—capturing what’s been done and what remains.
===========
Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?
The recovery time objective (RTO)
The likelihood of a recurring attack
The organization's risk tolerance
The business significance of the information
 According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the business significance of the information is the most important criterion when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data, as it determines the impact and severity of the attack on the organization’s objectives and performance. The business significance of the information helps to:
Assess the value and sensitivity of the data that is compromised or at risk of compromise
Evaluate the potential losses or damages that the organization may incur due to the data compromise
Prioritize the data recovery and restoration activities based on the criticality and urgency of the data
Communicate and coordinate the data breach response and notification with the relevant stakeholders, such as the data owners, the customers, the regulators, and the media
Enhance the data protection and security measures to prevent or mitigate future data compromise incidents
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.
Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.
Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.
Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.
The risk practitioner’s first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls should be A. Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite1
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and values2
When an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, it means that the controls are not providing the expected level of protection or assurance for the information assets or processes. This may result in increased exposure or vulnerability to threats, or reduced ability to achieve objectives. Therefore, the risk practitioner should first determine whether the impact of the ineffective controls is outside the risk appetite, as this would indicate the need for urgent action or escalation3
The other options are not the first course of action when an assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls, because:
•B. Requesting a formal acceptance of risk from senior management may be appropriate if the impact of the ineffective controls is within the risk appetite, and the organization decides to accept the risk as it is. However, this should not be the first course of action, as it may not address the root cause of the ineffective controls, or the potential consequences or opportunities for improvement4
•C. Reporting the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report may be part of the risk communication and reporting process, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may delay the resolution or mitigation of the issue, or the implementation of corrective actions. Moreover, the next audit report may not be timely or relevant for the decision-makers or stakeholders who need to be informed of the ineffective controls5
•D. Deploying a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies may be a possible risk response option, but it should not be the first course of action, as it may require further analysis, evaluation, and approval. Moreover, deploying a compensating control may not be the most effective or efficient solution, as it may introduce additional complexity, cost, or risk.
1: CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, Question ID: 100003 2: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 28 3: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 223 4: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 224 5: CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 225 : CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 226
Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?
The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.
The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.
The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.
The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.
The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location to ensure that the data is protected by the applicable data protection laws of the EU or the country where the data originates. This is especially important for SaaS customers who transfer personal data from the EU to third countries, as they need to comply with the GDPR and the new Standard Contractual Clauses (SCCs) that regulate such transfers. The vendor must also provide adequate security measures and guarantees to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or loss. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: IT Risk Mitigation, Section 5.3: IT Risk Mitigation Strategies and Approaches, Page 253; Data Protection – New EU Standard Contractual Clauses - Bodle Law.
Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?
Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.
Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.
Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.
Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract
Specifying cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract is the most effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud, because it establishes the roles and responsibilities of the cloud service provider and the customer in case of a data breach, and defines the compensation or remediation measures that the cloud service provider should provide. This control also creates an incentive for the cloud service provider to implement adequate security measures to protect the customer’s data and comply with the relevant laws and regulations. The other options are not the most effective controls, although they may also be helpful in reducing the risk of data privacy breaches. Establishing baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider, requiring the cloud service provider to disclose past data privacy breaches, and ensuring the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment are examples of preventive or detective controls that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of a data breach, but they do not address the accountability or liability of the cloud service provider in case of a data breach. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
All business units within an organization have the same risk response plan for creating local disaster recovery plans. In an effort to achieve cost effectiveness, the BEST course of action would be to:
select a provider to standardize the disaster recovery plans.
outsource disaster recovery to an external provider.
centralize the risk response function at the enterprise level.
evaluate opportunities to combine disaster recovery plans.
Disaster recovery plans are essential for ensuring the continuity and resilience of business operations in the event of a disruption or disaster. However, creating and maintaining separatedisaster recovery plans for each business unit may not be cost-effective or efficient, as it may result in duplication, inconsistency, or gaps in the plans. Therefore, the best course of action would be to evaluate opportunities to combine disaster recovery plans across the business units, where possible and appropriate. This would help to achieve economies of scale, standardization, and alignment of the plans, as well as reduce complexity and costs. However, this does not mean that all disaster recovery plans should be identical or centralized, as different business units may have different risk profiles, recovery objectives, and requirements. Therefore, the combined disaster recovery plans should still be tailored and customized to suit the specific needs and characteristics of each business unit. References = ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2, page 71.
Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?
Batch job failure monitoring
Periodic network scanning
Annual penetration testing
Risk assessments
The best method for identifying vulnerabilities is periodic network scanning. Network scanning is a process of scanning and probing the network devices, systems, and applications to discover and analyze their security weaknesses, such as configuration errors, outdated software, or open ports. Network scanning can help to identify the vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, compromise data, or disrupt services. Periodic network scanning is the best method, because it can provide a regular and comprehensive view of the network security posture, and it can detect and address the new or emerging vulnerabilities in a timely manner. Periodic network scanning can also help to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements and standards for network security, such as the ISO/IEC 27001, the NIST SP 800-53, or the PCI DSS123. The other options are not the best method, although they may be useful or complementary to periodic network scanning. Batch job failure monitoring is a process of monitoring and reporting the failures or errors that occur during the execution of batch jobs, such as data processing, backup, or synchronization. Batch job failure monitoring can help to identify the operational or technical issues that affect the performance or availability of the network services, but it does not directly identify the security vulnerabilities or the potential threats. Annual penetration testing is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network devices, systems, and applications to evaluate their security defenses and resilience. Penetration testing can help to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities that could be used by attackers to compromise the network security, and to provide recommendations for improvement. However, annual penetration testing is not the best method, because it is not frequent or consistent enough to keep up with the changing and evolving network security landscape, and it may not cover all thenetwork components or scenarios. Risk assessments are a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks associated with the network devices, systems, and applications. Risk assessments can help to estimate the probability and impact of the vulnerabilities and the threats, and to prioritize and respond to the risks accordingly. However, risk assessments are not the same as or a substitute for vulnerability identification, as they rely on the vulnerability information as an input, rather than an output. References = Vulnerability Testing: Methods, Tools, and 10 Best Practices, ISO/IEC 27001 Information Security Management, NIST SP 800-53 Rev. 5
Read" rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the:
business process owner.
database administrator.
chief information officer.
systems administrator.
Read rights: The permission to view or access the content of a file or a folder1.
Application files: The files that contain the code, data, or resources of an application or a program2.
Controlled server environment: A server environment that is managed and secured by a set of policies, procedures, and tools3.
Business process owner: The person who is responsible for the design, execution, and performance of a business process.
Read rights to application files in a controlled server environment should be approved by the business process owner. The business process owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the business process that uses or depends on the application files. The businessprocess owner should approve the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment to:
Ensure that the read rights are aligned with the business needs and objectives
Prevent unauthorized or unnecessary access to the application files
Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application files
Comply with the relevant laws and regulations that govern the access to the application files
The other options are not the best choices for approving the read rights to application files in a controlled server environment, because they do not have the same level of authority, responsibility, or knowledge as the business process owner. The database administrator, who is the person who manages and maintains the database systems and data, may have the technical skills and access to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business insight or approval to do so. The chief information officer, who is the person who oversees the IT strategy and operations of the organization, may have the executive power and oversight to approve the read rights to application files, but they may not have the specific or detailed knowledge of the business process or the application files. The systems administrator, who is the person who configures and maintains the server systems and networks, may have the administrative privileges and tools to grant the read rights to application files, but they may not have the business understanding or authorization to do so.
References = Read Permission - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics, What is an Application File? - Definition from Techopedia, What is a Server Environment? - Definition from Techopedia, [Business Process Owner: Definition, Roles, and Responsibilities]
Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?
Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.
Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.
Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.
Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.
Assigning ownership to each risk scenario is fundamental in risk management. Without designated owners, there is a lack of accountability, which can lead to risks not being adequately managed or mitigated. The absence of assigned owners means that no one is responsible for monitoring, reporting, or addressing the risk, increasing the likelihood of adverse outcomes.
Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?
Enforcing employees’ sanctions
Conducting phishing exercises
Enforcing segregation of dunes
Reviewing the organization's risk appetite
Conducting phishing exercises would best help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats, because they can help to raise awareness and educate employees about the common techniques and tactics used by social engineers, such as sending deceptive emails or text messages that ask for sensitive information or direct users to malicious websites. Phishing exercises are simulated attacks that test the employees’ ability to recognize and respond to social engineering attempts, and provide feedback and guidance on how to improve their security behavior. By conducting phishing exercises, the organization can measure and improve the employees’ level of security awareness and resilience, and reduce the likelihood and impact of falling victim to social engineering attacks. The other options are less effective ways to minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats. Enforcing employees’ sanctions can help to deter and punish employees who violate the security policies or procedures, but it may not prevent or reduce the occurrence of social engineering attacks, as they may target employees who are unaware, careless, or coerced by the attackers. Enforcing segregation of duties can help to prevent or limit the damage caused by social engineering attacks, by restricting the access and authority of employees to perform certain tasks or functions, but it may not address the root cause or source of the attacks, which is the human factor. Reviewing the organization’s risk appetite can help to define and communicate the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives, but it may not directly affect or influence the employees’ behavior or attitude toward social engineering threats, which may depend on their individual or situational factors. References = How to Prevent and Mitigate Social Engineering Attacks 1
Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line of defense in the three lines of defense model?
Performing duties independently to provide assurance
Alerting operational management to emerging issues
Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies
Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss
The second line (risk management, compliance) provides oversight and support to the first line (operations). It monitors risk-related activities, issues alerts, and helps ensure controls are properly designed and implemented, but does not own the risk.
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?
Establishing policies and procedures
Periodically reviewing control design
Measuring trends in control performance
Obtaining management control attestations
The best way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness is to measure trends in control performance. This will help to monitor and evaluate how well the controls are achieving their objectives, and to identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate control failures or weaknesses. Measuring trends in control performance also helps to provide feedback and assurance to the stakeholders and decision makers, and to support continuous improvement andoptimization of the control environment. Establishing policies and procedures, periodically reviewing control design, and obtaining management control attestations are good practices, but they are not the best way to ensure control effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 650.
Which of the following is the MOST important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization?
Prioritize risk response options
Reduce likelihood.
Address more than one risk response
Reduce impact
The most important objective from a cost perspective for considering aggregated risk responses in an organization is to address more than one risk response. Aggregated risk responses are risk responses that can affect multiple risks or objectives simultaneously. By addressing more than one risk response, the organization can achieve cost efficiency and effectiveness in risk management. Prioritizing risk response options, reducing likelihood, and reducing impact are other possible objectives, but they are not as important from a cost perspective as addressing more than one risk response. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 10; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 140.
Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?
Balanced scorecard
Risk management framework
Capability maturity model
Risk scenario analysis
The most useful tool for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state is the capability maturity model, as it provides a structured and standardized way to assess the current and target levels of maturity, performance, and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to identify the gaps and improvement opportunities. The balanced scorecard, the risk management framework, and the risk scenario analysis are not the most useful tools, as they are more related to the evaluation, design, or identification of the risk management process, respectively, rather than the measurement of the risk management process. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?
Risk classification
Risk policy
Risk strategy
Risk appetite
ï‚· Risk Appetite:
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to take in order to meet its objectives. It reflects the organization’s risk tolerance and guides decision-making at all levels.
ï‚· Impact of Market Changes:
A change in the market situation can alter the risk landscape, potentially affecting the organization’s ability to achieve its objectives. This might necessitate a reassessment of what level of risk is acceptable.
Senior management needs to ensure that the risk appetite remains aligned with the new market conditions and organizational goals.
ï‚· Reevaluation Process:
Reevaluating the risk appetite involves assessing the organization's capacity to bear risk and determining if the current acceptable risk levels are still appropriate.
This might involve more conservative or aggressive risk-taking strategies based on the new market dynamics.
ï‚· Other Considerations:
Risk Classification:This categorizes risks but does not directly address changes in acceptable risk levels.
Risk Policy:While important, the policy outlines the approach to managing risk and is influenced by the risk appetite.
Risk Strategy:This defines how risks are managed but should be aligned with the risk appetite.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of aligning risk appetite with the organization’s strategic objectives and market conditions (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 1: Governance, Section 1.10 Risk Appetite, Tolerance, and Capacity) .
A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:
mitigated
accepted
avoided
deferred
The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been deferred, as this means that the risk response has been postponed or delayed due to lack of resources or other constraints. Deferring a risk response implies that the risk owner acknowledges the risk and intends to implement the risk mitigation action plan at a later stage, when the resources or conditions are available. The other options are not correct, as they do not reflect the actual status of the risk response. Mitigating a risk means that the risk response has been implemented and the risk level has been reduced. Accepting a risk means that the risk response has been rejected or waived, and the risk level has been accepted as it is. Avoiding a risk means that the risk response has beenimplemented and the risk level has been eliminated or transferred. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 146.
An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:
reduce the risk to an acceptable level.
communicate the consequences for violations.
implement industry best practices.
reduce the organization's risk appetite
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the primary goal of a risk awareness program is to reduce the risk to an acceptable level by increasing the knowledge and understanding of the risk among the stakeholders. A risk awareness program should:
Educate the stakeholders about the sources, types and impacts of IT-related risks
Explain the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders in the risk management process
Promote a risk-aware culture that supports the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the organization
Provide guidance and tools for identifying, assessing, responding and monitoring IT-related risks
Encourage the reporting and escalation of risk issues and incidents
Reinforce the benefits and value of effective risk management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: IT Risk Reporting, pp. 224-2251
Which of the following would BEST ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed?
Reviewing the implementation of the risk response
Creating a separate risk register for key business units
Performing real-time monitoring of threats
Performing regular risk control self-assessments
The best way to ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed is to review the implementation of the risk response. The risk response is the action or plan that is taken to reduce, avoid, transfer, or accept the risk, depending on the chosen risk treatment option1. Reviewing the implementation of the risk response means checking whether the risk response actions are executed as planned, whether they are effective and efficient in mitigating the risk, and whether they are aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite2. Reviewing the implementation of the risk response helps to monitor and control the risk, identify any gaps or issues, and make any necessary adjustments or improvements. The other options are not the best ways to ensure that identified risk scenarios are addressed, as they are either less comprehensive or less specific than reviewing the implementation of the risk response. Creating a separate risk register for key business units is a way of documenting and tracking the risks that affect different parts of the organization. However, this is not the same as addressing the risk scenarios, as it does not indicate how the risks are treated or resolved. Performing real-time monitoring of threats is a way of detecting and responding to any changes or events that may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks. However, this is not the same as addressing theriskscenarios, as it does not measure the effectiveness or efficiency of the risk response actions. Performing regular risk control self-assessments is a way of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. However, this is not the same as addressing the risk scenarios, as it does not cover the other aspects of the risk response, such as risk avoidance, transfer, or acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.7, Page 59.
Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?
Perform an m-depth code review with an expert
Validate functionality by running in a test environment
Implement a service level agreement.
Utilize the change management process.
The risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development is that the vendor may introduce unauthorized or harmful code into the enterprise’s system, which could compromise its security, integrity, or performance.
To mitigate this risk, the enterprise should perform an in-depth code review with an expert who can verify that the code meets the specifications, standards, and quality requirements, and that it does not contain any malicious or unwanted functionality.
A code review is a systematic examination of the source code of a software program, which can identify errors, vulnerabilities, inefficiencies, or deviations from best practices. A code review can also ensure that the code is consistent, readable, maintainable, and well-documented.
An expert is someone who has the knowledge, skills, and experience to perform the code review effectively and efficiently. An expert may be an internal or external resource, depending on the availability, cost, and independence of the reviewer.
A code review should be performed before the code is deployed to the production environment, and preferably at multiple stages of the development life cycle, such as design, testing, and integration.
A code review can also be complemented by other techniques, such as automated code analysis, testing, and scanning tools, which can detect common or known issues in the code. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, p. 143
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 143
Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increased volume of online transactions on a retailer website?
Hot backup site
Transaction limits
Scalable infrastructure
Website activity monitoring
Scalable infrastructure ensures the system can handle increased load without failure, thus minimizing the risk of downtime or degraded performance during traffic spikes.
In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:
Review and evaluate the risk management program.
Ensure risk and controls are effectively managed.
Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.
Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.
The second line of defense provides oversight functions, ensuring that risks and controls are effectively managed. This includes policy enforcement, compliance monitoring, and risk program evaluation, aligning with the organizational risk governance structure as described in the CRISC framework.
The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:
Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.
Lagging indication of major information security incidents.
Early indication of changes to required risk response.
Insight into the performance of a monitored process.
Key risk indicators are designed to provide early warnings about increasing risk exposure, enabling timely risk mitigation efforts. This supports proactive risk management, as outlined in theRisk Monitoring and Reportingdomain of CRISC.
A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.
Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.
Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.
Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action when the residual risk is now within the organization’s defined appetite and tolerance levels is to verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans. Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and reviewing the risk status and performance, and ensuring that the risk responses are effective and efficient1. Risk monitoring plans are the documents that specify the objectives, scope, methods, roles, and responsibilities for the riskmonitoring activities2. By verifying the adequacy of risk monitoring plans, the risk practitioner can:
Ensure that the risk monitoring plans are aligned with the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and policies, and that they comply with the relevant standards and regulations3.
Evaluate whether the risk monitoring plans are comprehensive and consistent, and that they cover all the key aspects and indicators of the risks and the risk responses4.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the implementation or outcome of the risk monitoring plans, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions5.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Identifying new risk entries to include in ERM is not a relevant or necessary course of action, as it is not directly related to the residual risk or the risk responses. ERM is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and managing the risks that may affect the organization’s strategic, operational, financial, or reputational objectives6. Identifying new risk entries is a part of the risk identification process, which is the first step in ERM. It should be performedperiodically or when there are significant changes in the internal or external environment, not when the residual risk is within the appetite and tolerance levels7.
Removing the risk entries from the ERM register is not a valid or advisable course of action, as it may create a false sense of security or complacency. The ERM register is a tool that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses. Removing the risk entries from the ERM register may imply that the risks no longer exist or matter, which is not true. The risks may still occur or change, and the risk responses may still fail or become obsolete. Therefore, the risk entries should be kept and updated in the ERM register, unless the risks are completely eliminated or transferred.
Re-performing the risk assessment to confirm results is not an efficient or effective course of action, as it may be redundant or unnecessary. Risk assessment is the process of estimating the probability and impact of the risks, and prioritizing the risks based on their significance and urgency. Re-performing the risk assessment may not provide any new or useful information or insights, and may waste time and resources. Instead, the risk practitioner should verify and validate the risk assessment results, and ensure that they are accurate and reliable.
References =
Risk Monitoring - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring and Reporting - ISACA
Risk Monitoring and Control - Project Management Institute
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Enterprise Risk Management - CIO Wiki
Risk Identification - CIO Wiki
[Risk Register - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Register: How to Use It in Project Management - ProjectManager.com]
[Risk Assessment - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Assessment Process - ISACA]
Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?
Obtaining management support
Benchmarking against industry standards
Assessing compliance requirements
Identifying threats and vulnerabilities
The most important thing when implementing an organization’s security policy is to obtain management support. Management support means that the senior management and the board of directors endorse, approve, and fund the security policy and its implementation. Management support also means that the management communicates, promotes, and enforces the security policy across the organization. Management support can help to ensure that the security policy is aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives, and that it is effective, consistent, and sustainable. The other options are not as important as obtaining management support, as they are related to the specific aspects or components of the security policy implementation, not the overall success and acceptance of the security policy implementation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?
Directives from legal and regulatory authorities
Audit reports from internal information systems audits
Automated logs collected from different systems
Trend analysis of external risk factors
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that help organizations monitor and evaluate the level of risk they are exposed to. They provide early warning signals of potential issues that could affect the achievement of organizational goals12.
The most important data source for monitoring KRIs is automated logs collected from different systems, which are records that capture and store the details and history of the transactions or activities that are performed by the organization’s processes, systems, or controls34.
Automated logs collected from different systems are the most important data source because they provide timely and accurate data and information on the performance and status of the organization’s operations, and enable the detection and reporting of any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a risk event34.
Automated logs collected from different systems are also the most important data source because they support the accountability and auditability of the organization’s operations, and facilitate the investigation and resolution of any risk event34.
The other options are not the most important data sources, but rather possible inputs or factors that may influence or affect the KRIs. For example:
Directives from legal and regulatory authorities are documents that provide the expectations and obligations of the external authorities or bodies that govern or oversee the organization’s activities and operations, such as laws, regulations, standards, or contracts5 . However, these documents are not the most important data source becausethey do not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the criteria or framework for risk compliance5 .
Audit reports from internal information systems audits are documents that provide the findings and recommendations of the independent and objective assessment of the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s information systems, processes, and controls . However, these documents are not the most important data source because they do not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the assurance or improvement for risk management .
Trend analysis of external risk factors is a technique that involves analyzing and forecasting the changes and impacts of the external factors that influence the organization’s operations, such as technology, competition, regulation, or customer behavior . However, this technique is not themost important data source because it does not directly measure or monitor the level of risk exposure, but rather provide the insight or prediction for risk identification . References =
1: Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture1
2: Key risk indicator - Wikipedia2
3: Database Activity Monitoring - Wikipedia3
4: Database Activity Monitoring (DAM) | Imperva4
5: Regulatory Compliance - Wikipedia5
Regulatory Compliance Management Software | MetricStream
IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
Trend Analysis - Investopedia
Trend Analysis: A Definition and Examples
Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?
Average bandwidth usage
Peak bandwidth usage
Total bandwidth usage
Bandwidth used during business hours
Peak bandwidth usage is the most helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth. Peak bandwidth usage is the maximum amount of data that istransferred over a network connection at a given time. It indicates the highest demand and stress on the network resources and capacity. By monitoring the peak bandwidth usage, the organization can identify the potential bottlenecks, slowdowns, and disruptions that may occur due to insufficient network bandwidth. The organization can also plan and allocate the network bandwidth accordingly to meet the peak demand and avoid service degradation. The other options are not as helpful as peak bandwidth usage, as they do not reflect the actual or potential network performance issues that may arise due to insufficient network bandwidth. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.3: Key Risk Indicators, page 197.
A newly incorporated enterprise needs to secure its information assets From a governance perspective which of the following should be done FIRST?
Define information retention requirements and policies
Provide information security awareness training
Establish security management processes and procedures
Establish an inventory of information assets
The first thing that should be done from a governance perspective to secure the information assets of a newly incorporated enterprise is to establish an inventory of information assets. An inventory of information assets is a document that lists and categorizes all the information assets that the organization owns, uses, or manages, such as data, documents, systems, applications, and devices. An inventory of information assets helps to identify and classify the information assets based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and control for each asset. An inventory of information assets also helps to support the development and implementation of other information security activities, such as risk assessment, policy formulation, awareness training, and incident response. The other options are not the first thing that should be done, although they may be important steps or components of the information security governance. Defining information retention requirements and policies, providing information security awareness training, and establishing security management processes and procedures are all activities that can help to secure the information assets, but theyrequire the prior knowledge and understanding of the information assets. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, page 3-3.
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner
recommend be done NEXT?
Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.
Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.
Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.
Reduce the risk tolerance level.
A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. This means that the potential benefits of BYOD outweigh the potential risks, and that the controls in place are adequate to mitigate those risks.
The next step for the risk practitioner is to identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact. Log sources are records of events or activities that occur in a system or network, such as file access, network traffic, user behavior, etc. Log sources can provide valuable information about how BYOD devices are used, what data they access, what applications they run, what threats they encounter, etc.
By monitoring log sources, the risk practitioner can track and measure the actual performance and security of BYOD devices, compare them with the expected outcomes and standards,identify any deviations or anomalies that may indicate a breach or a vulnerability, and take appropriate actions to address them.
Therefore, identifying log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact is a recommended action after a successful risk assessment.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 10
Information Technology & Security, page 4
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 2
Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?
Organizational structure and job descriptions
Risk appetite and risk tolerance
Industry best practices for risk management
Prior year's risk assessment results
The best way to enable a risk practitioner to understand management’s approach to organizational risk is to know the risk appetite and risk tolerance of the organization. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to pursue, retain, or take in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in relation to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk appetite and risk tolerance reflect the management’s attitude, preferences, and expectations towards risk, and guide the risk management process, such as risk identification, assessment, response, and monitoring. The other options are not as effective as knowing the risk appetite and risk tolerance, although they may provide some input or context for understanding the management’s approach to organizational risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Alignment to risk responses
Alignment to management reports
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached
Identification of trends
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are quantifiable measures of progress toward an intended result, such as a strategic objective or a desired outcome12.
The most important factor when developing KPIs is the alignment to risk responses, which are the actions taken to address the risks that may affect the achievement of the intended result12.
Alignment to risk responses means that the KPIs should reflect the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk responses, and provide feedback and guidance for improving the risk responses12.
Alignment to risk responses also means that the KPIs should be consistent and compatible with the risk responses, and support the risk management process and objectives12.
The other options are not the most important factor, but rather possible aspects or features of KPIs that may vary depending on the context and purpose of the KPIs. For example:
Alignment to management reports is an aspect of KPIs that relates to the communication and presentation of the KPIs to the relevant stakeholders, such as senior management,board members, or external parties12. However, this aspect does not determine the quality or validity of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Alerts when risk thresholds are reached is a feature of KPIs that relates to the monitoring and control of the KPIs, and the triggering of actions or decisions when the KPIs exceed or fall below a certain level or range12. However, this feature does not define the content or scope of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12.
Identification of trends is a feature of KPIs that relates to the analysis and interpretation of the KPIs, and the identification of patterns or changes in the KPIs over time or across different dimensions12. However, this feature does not specify the criteria or methodology of the KPIs, or the alignment to the intended result12. References =
1: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? Guide & Examples - Qlik3
2: What is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)? - KPI.org4
Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?
Evaluate past policy review reports.
Conduct regular independent reviews.
Perform penetration testing.
Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.
Conducting regular independent reviews will provide the best measure of compliance with IT policies, as this ensures that the policies are implemented and followed consistently and effectively across the organization. Independent reviews can also identify any gaps, weaknesses, or violations in the compliance process, and recommend corrective actions or improvements.Independent reviews can be performed by internal or external auditors, regulators, or consultants, depending on the scope and purpose of the review. Evaluating past policy review reports, performing penetration testing, and testing staff on their complianceresponsibilities are not the best measures of compliance with IT policies, although they may be useful or complementary methods. Evaluating past policy review reports can provide some historical and comparative data, but it may not reflect the current or accurate situation of the compliance status. Performing penetration testing can assess the security and vulnerability of the IT systems and networks, but it does not measure the compliance with all the IT policies, such as those related to governance, operations, or quality. Testing staff on their compliance responsibilities can evaluate the awareness and knowledge of the staff, but it does not measure the actual behaviour or performance of the staff in complying with the IT policies. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 187.
An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?
Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.
List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.
Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.
Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.
Mapping granular scenarios to high-level register items ensures consistency and alignment across different levels of risk management. This approach supportsIntegrated Risk Management Frameworks.
When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?
Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer
Remove risk that management has decided to accept
Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment
Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels
The standard operating procedure (SOP) statement that best illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance is to remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response or mitigation has been applied. Tolerance levels are the acceptable or allowable ranges of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels, it means that the risk has been reduced or managed to an acceptable or satisfactory level, and that no further action or monitoring is required. Therefore, the risk can be removed from the risk register, as it is no longer a significant or relevant risk for the organization. The other options are not as appropriate as removing risk when mitigation resultsin residual risk within tolerance levels, as they are related to the transfer, acceptance, or change of the risk, not the removal of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Response, page 87.
Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?
Cable lock
Acceptable use policy
Data encryption
Asset tag with GPS
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, a cable lock is a physical security device that attaches a laptop to a fixed object, such as a desk or a wall, to prevent unauthorized removal or theft. A cable lock is the best option to reduce the probability of laptop theft, as it acts as a deterrent and a barrier for potential thieves. A cable lock also helps to protect the confidentiality, integrity, andavailability of the data stored on the laptop, as well as the laptop itself. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 253.
Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?
An email from the user accepting the account
Notification from human resources that the account is active
User privileges matching the request form
Formal approval of the account by the user's manager
 According to the CRISC Review Manual, formal approval of the account by the user’s manager is the best evidence that a user account has been properly authorized, because it ensures that the user’s role and access rights are consistent with the business needs and the principle of least privilege. The user’s manager is responsible for verifying the user’s identity, job function, and access requirements, and for approving or rejecting the account request. The other options are not the best evidence of proper authorization, because they do not involve the user’s manager’s approval. An email from the user accepting the account is a confirmation of the account creation, but it does not indicate that the account was authorized by the user’s manager. Notification from human resources that the account is active is an administrative process that does not verify the user’s access rights and role. User privileges matching the request form is a verification of the account configuration, but it does not ensure that the request form was approved by the user’s manager. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.2, page 163.
Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?
Reviewing risk-related process documentation
Conducting periodic risk assessments
Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)
Performing frequent audits
Risk management is the process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating the risks that may affect the achievement of an organization’s objectives. The activity that best facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization is conducting periodic risk assessments, which are the systematic and structured methods of identifying and analyzing the potential sources and consequences of risk events. By conducting periodic risk assessments, an organization can proactively identify and prioritize the risks that pose the greatest threat or opportunity, and implement theappropriate risk responses to optimize the risk exposure and align it with the risk appetite and tolerance. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 63.
Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?
Compliance manager
Data privacy manager
System administrator
Human resources (HR) manager
The data privacy manager is the best person to an application system used to process employee personal data, because they are responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable data protection laws and regulations, and that the personal data of employees are collected, stored, processed, and disposed of in a secure and ethical manner. The data privacy manager is also responsible for establishing and maintaining the data privacy policies, procedures, and controls, and for conducting data privacy impact assessments and audits. The compliance manager, the system administrator, and the human resources (HR) manager are all involved in the of the application system, but they are not the best person to it, as they do not have the primary accountability and expertise for data privacy. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 158
A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
The network security policy
Potential business impact
The WiFi access point configuration
Planned remediation actions
A risk assessment is a process of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the enterprise’s objectives and operations. It involves determining the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency.
A WiFi access point is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using radio signals. It can provide convenience and flexibility for users, but it can also introduce security risks, such as unauthorized access, data leakage, malware infection, or denial of service attacks.
If departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network, without proper authorization, configuration, or monitoring, it means that they have bypassed the network security policy and controls, and created potential vulnerabilities and exposures for the enterprise.
The most important information to include in a report to senior management is the potential business impact of this risk, which is the estimated loss or damage that the enterprise may suffer if the risk materializes. The potential business impact can be expressed in terms of financial, operational, reputational, or legal consequences, and it can help senior management to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because they do not convey the magnitude and significance of the risk, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
The network security policy is the set of rules and guidelines that define the security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities for the enterprise network. It is important to have a clear and comprehensive network security policy, and to ensure that it is communicated, enforced, and monitored across the enterprise, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not reflect the current or desired state of the network security.
The WiFi access point configuration is the set of parameters and settings that define the functionality, performance, and security of the WiFi access point. It is important to have a secure and consistent WiFi access point configuration, and to follow the best practices and standards for wireless network security, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be relevant or understandable for senior management.
The planned remediation actions are the steps and measures that are intended to mitigate, transfer, avoid, or accept the risk, and to restore the normal operation and security of the enterprise network. It is important to have a feasible and effective plan for remediation actions, and to implement and monitor them in a timely and efficient manner, but it is not the most important information to include in a report to senior management, because it does not indicate the actual or potential impact of the risk, and it may not be feasible or appropriate without senior management’s approval or support. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 146
The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:
help an organization identify emerging threats.
benchmark the organization's risk profile.
identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.
enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given risk. They enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk by alerting the organization when the risk level exceeds thepredefined threshold or tolerance. By using KRIs, the organization can track the changes in the risk environment and take timely and appropriate actions to mitigate or avoid the risk.
Helping an organization identify emerging threats, benchmarking the organization’s risk profile, and identifying trends in the organization’s vulnerabilities are all possible uses of KRIs, but they are not the primary benefit. The primary benefit is to enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk, which encompasses all these aspects and more. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, page 27-281
Which of the following is MOST helpful in reducing the likelihood of inaccurate risk assessment results?
Involving relevant stakeholders in the risk assessment process
Updating organizational risk tolerance levels
Reviewing the applicable risk assessment methodologies
Having internal audit validate control effectiveness
Involving stakeholders ensures all perspectives are considered, leading to more accurate risk identification, assessment, and prioritization.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?
Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.
Review the software development life cycle.
Involve the development team in planning.
Assign more developers to the project team.
Involve the development team in planning is the best recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project. This is because involving the development team in planning can help ensure that the project scope, requirements, resources, and timeline are realistic, feasible, and agreed upon by all stakeholders. It can also help improve the communication, collaboration, and commitment of the development team, as well as identify and mitigate potential risks and issues early in the project life cycle. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk identification techniques for IT projects is to involve the project team and other relevant parties in the risk assessment process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, involving the development team in planning is the correct answer to this question2.
Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables, reviewing the software development life cycle, and assigning more developers to the project team are not the best recommendations to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns. These are possible actions that can be taken during or after the planning phase, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of involvement of the development team in planning. Implementing a tool to track the development team’s deliverables can help monitor the project progress and performance, but it does not guarantee that the deliverables are aligned with the project objectives and expectations. Reviewing the software development life cycle can help ensure that the project follows a structured and standardized process, but it does not account for the specific needs and challenges of the project. Assigning more developers to the project team can help increase the project capacity and productivity, but it can also introduce new risks such as coordination, communication, and quality issues.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using a risk profile?
It promotes a security-aware culture.
It enables vulnerability analysis.
It enhances internal risk reporting.
It provides risk information to auditors.
A risk profile consolidates information about risks across the enterprise, enhancing internal reporting and facilitating informed decision-making. This aligns withRisk Governanceobjectives by providing a comprehensive view of risk for management and stakeholders.
Which of the following should be included in a risk assessment report to BEST facilitate senior management's understanding of the results?
Benchmarking parameters likely to affect the results
Tools and techniques used by risk owners to perform the assessments
A risk heat map with a summary of risk identified and assessed
The possible impact of internal and external risk factors on the assessment results
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the level of risk for each risk area based on the impact and likelihood of occurrence. It also provides a summary of the risk assessment results, such as the number and severity of risks, the risk appetite and tolerance, and the risk response strategies. A risk heat map can help senior management to understand the risk profile of the organization, prioritize the risks that need attention, and allocate resources accordingly. A risk heat map is more effective than the other options because it can communicate complex information in a simple and visual way, and it can highlight the key risk areas and trends. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 97.
An organization operates in a jurisdiction where heavy fines are imposed for leakage of customer data. Which of the following provides the BEST input to assess the inherent risk impact?
Number of customer records held
Number of databases that host customer data
Number of encrypted customer databases
Number of staff members having access to customer data
The best input to assess the inherent risk impact of leakage of customer data is the number of customer records held. Inherent risk impact is a measure of the potential severity or consequence of a risk event, before considering the existing controls. Inherent risk impact can be based on quantitative or qualitative factors, such as financial, operational, reputational, or legal factors.The number of customer records held is the best input, because it directly reflects the amount and type of data that could be leaked, and the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. The number of customer records held can also help to estimate the probability and frequency of the leakage, as well as the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls. The more customer records the organization holds, the higher the inherent risk impact of leakage, and the more controls the organization needs to implement and maintain. The other options are not the best input, although they may be related or influential to the inherent risk impact. The number of databases that host customer data is a measure of the complexity or diversity of the data storage and management systems, but it does not directly indicate the amount or type of data that could be leaked, or the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. The number of databases that host customer data may also vary depending on the design and configuration of the systems, which may not reflect the inherent risk impact. The number of encrypted customer databases is a measure of the security or protection of the data storage and management systems, but it is not an input to the inherent risk impact, rather it is an output or a result of the control implementation. The number of encrypted customer databases may also depend on the quality and reliability of the encryption methods and keys, which may not indicate the inherent risk impact. The number of staff members having access to customer data is a measure of the exposure or vulnerability of the data to internal threats, such as unauthorized or malicious actions by the staff members. The number of staff members having access to customer data can affect the inherent risk impact, but it is not the best input, as it does not account for the external threats, such as hackers or competitors, or the amount or type of data that could be leaked, or the potential harm or loss that could result from the leakage. References = What is Inherent Risk? You Could Be at Risk of a Data Breach | UpGuard, Data leakage: A data leak is an unintentional exposure of sensitive data on the internet. For example, an employee might upload customer data files to an unsecured server. Lack of encryption: This is the storing, sending, or transferring information without converting it into ciphertext first.
A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:
develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision
make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation
insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers
ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider
A noncompliant control is a control that does not meet the requirements or standards of an audit, regulation, or policy. A noncompliant control can expose the organization to risks such as errors, fraud, or breaches. When a noncompliant control is identified, the service provider and the client should work together to resolve the issue as soon as possible. However, sometimes the resolution may not be feasible or cost-effective, and the client may decide to accept the risk associated with the noncompliant control.
In this case, the service provider’s most appropriate action would be to ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider. This means that the client should acknowledge the existence and consequences of the noncompliant control, and provide a written justification for accepting the risk. The risk acceptance document should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the service provider and the client, and the duration and conditions of the risk acceptance. The risk acceptance document should be signed by the client’s senior management and the service provider’s management, and kept as part of the audit evidence.
The other options are not appropriate actions for the service provider. Developing a risk remediation plan overriding the client’s decision would be disrespectful and unprofessional, as it would ignore the client’s authority and preference. Making a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation would be insufficient and misleading, as it would imply that the issue is still unresolved and that the service provider is responsible for it. Insisting that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers would be unreasonable and impractical, as it woulddisregard the client’s business needs and constraints, and potentially harm the relationship between the service provider and the client. References =
Risk Acceptance - Institute of Internal Auditors
New Guidance on the Evaluation of Non-compliance with the Risk Assessment Standard and its Peer Review Impact - REVISED
The Impact of Non-compliance: Understanding The Risks And Consequences
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?
Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced
Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy
Listing alternative causes for risk events
Illustrating changes in risk trends
The most important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making is illustrating changes in risk trends, as it provides a clear and timely indication of the direction and magnitude of the risk level and exposure, and enables the stakeholders to take proactive andappropriate actions to address the risk. The other options are not the most important characteristics, as they are more related to the monitoring, measurement, or identification of the risk, respectively, rather than the illustration of the risk trends. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 110.
Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?
Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations
Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit
Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value
Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance
Effective risk reporting to the board of directors requires communication that aligns with the organization's strategic goals and business value. By correlating risk information to corporate objectives, the board can better understand the implications of risks on the organization's performance and make informed decisions. This approach ensures that risk discussions are relevant and meaningful at the executive level.​
An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?
Scale of technology
Risk indicators
Risk culture
Proposed risk budget
The risk practitioner’s primary consideration when participating in development of a new IT risk strategy should be the risk culture of the organization. Risk culture is the set of values, beliefs, attitudes, and behaviors that shape how the organization perceives, manages, and responds to risks. Risk culture influences the organization’s risk appetite, risk objectives, risk policies, risk processes, and risk performance. The risk practitioner should consider the risk culture whendeveloping a new IT risk strategy, because it helps to align the IT risk strategy with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and to ensure that the IT risk strategy is supported and accepted by the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, employees, customers, regulators, etc. The risk practitioner should also consider the risk culture when developing a new IT risk strategy, because it helps to identify and addressany gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the implementation and effectiveness of the IT risk strategy, such as lack of awareness, communication, coordination, or accountability. The other options are not the primary consideration for the risk practitioner, although they may be related to the IT risk strategy. Scale of technology, risk indicators, and proposed risk budget are all factors that could affect the feasibility and sustainability of the IT risk strategy, but they do not necessarily reflector influence the organization’s risk culture. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-9.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?
Time between backups for critical data
Sensitivity of business data involved
Cost of downtime due to a disaster
Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the maximum acceptable length of time that a system can be down after a failure or disaster. Determining the RTO involves assessing the cost of downtime and its impact on business operations to ensure that recovery strategies are cost-effective and aligned with business needs.
When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?
Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee
List of compensating controls
IT audit follow-up responses
A memo indicating risk acceptance
The strongest evidence to support a risk response decision is a memo indicating risk acceptance. A memo is a formal and written document that can clearly communicate the rationale, criteria, and approval of the risk acceptance decision. Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee, list of compensating controls, and IT audit follow-up responses are weaker evidence, as they may not be documented, verified, or aligned with the risk response decision. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 11; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 144.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?
Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).
Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).
Interview the risk owner.
Conduct a gap analysis
The best way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization is to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that provide information on the level of exposure to a given operational risk1. KRIs can help to monitor the changes in risk levels over time, identify emerging risks, and trigger risk response actions when the risk exceeds the acceptable thresholds2. KRIs can also help to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives and context. The other options are not the best ways to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization, as they do not provide the same level of insight and guidance as KRIs. Monitoring key performance indicators (KPIs) may show the results or outcomes of the business processes, but not the risks or uncertainties that affect them. Interviewing the risk owner may provide some subjective or qualitative information on the risk perception or attitude, but not the objective or quantitative data on the risk exposure or impact. Conducting a gap analysis may show the difference between the current and desired state of the organization, but not the causes or sources of the risk. References = Key Risk Indicators; Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide
Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Recommend the business change the application.
Recommend a risk treatment plan.
Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.
Implement compensating controls.
A risk treatment plan typically includes the following elements2:
Risk description: A brief summary of the risk, its causes, and its consequences.
Risk owner: The person or entity who is responsible for managing the risk and implementing the risk treatment plan.
Risk response: The strategy or method chosen to deal with the risk, such as avoid, reduce, transfer, or accept.
Risk actions: The specific tasks or steps that need to be performed to execute the risk response.
Risk resources: The human, financial, technical, or other resources that are required or available to support the risk actions.
Risk timeline: The schedule or deadline for completing the risk actions and achieving the desired risk level.
By recommending a risk treatment plan, the risk practitioner can help the organization to:
Analyze and prioritize the vulnerabilities detected on the systems, and determine their impact and likelihood.
Evaluate and compare the possible risk responses, and select the most suitable and feasible one for each vulnerability.
Define and assign the roles and responsibilities for the risk treatment process, and ensure the accountability and collaboration of the stakeholders.
Monitor and measure the progress and effectiveness of the risk treatment process, and report the results and outcomes to the management.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Recommending the business change the application is not a realistic or practical option, as it may be costly, time-consuming, or technically challenging to modify the application to make it compatible with the updated servers. It may also create other issues or risks, such as compatibility problems with other systems, performance degradation, or user dissatisfaction.
Including the risk in the next quarterly update to management is not a proactive or timely option, as it may delay or defer the risk treatment process and increase the exposure or vulnerability of the systems. It may also indicate a lack of urgency or importance of the risk, and undermine the credibility or trust of the management.
Implementing compensating controls is not a sufficient or comprehensive option, as it may not address the root cause or the source of the risk. Compensating controls are alternative or additionalcontrols that are implemented when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective3. They may reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, but they may not eliminate or resolve the risk.
References =
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan Template - ISACA
Compensating Control - CIO Wiki
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm once a risk action plan has been completed?
The risk register has been updated.
The risk tolerance has been recalibrated.
The risk has been mitigated to the intended level.
The risk owner has reviewed the outcomes.
Confirming that the risk has been mitigated to the intended level is paramount to ensure that the risk response was effective. This ties toRisk Mitigation and Treatment, ensuring that controls implemented have reduced the risk to within the organization's appetite. Updating registers or recalibrating tolerances comes secondary to verifying the effectiveness of mitigation.
Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?
Review of user access logs
Frequent password expiration
Separation of duties
Entitlement reviews
What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?
To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations
To identify important business processes in the organization
To estimate resource requirements for related business processes
To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption
 The primary purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA) is to evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption. A BIA is a process that identifies and analyzes the potential effects of various types of disruptions on the enterprise’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps to determine the recovery objectives, such as the recovery time objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO), for each business operation, based on the impactof disruption on the enterprise’s objectives, reputation, compliance, and stakeholders. A BIA also helps to identify the dependencies, resources, and interdependencies of the business operations, and to rank them according to their importance and urgency. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 671
An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Perform an impact assessment.
Perform a penetration test.
Request an external audit.
Escalate the risk to senior management.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action when an organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system is to perform an impactassessment, as it involves estimating the potential consequences or damage that the vulnerability may cause to the system and its related business processes, and prioritizing the risk response accordingly. The other options are not the best courses of action, as they may not address the urgency or severity of the vulnerability, or may require the prior knowledge of the impact or risk level, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:
maximum tolerable downtime.
maximum tolerable loss of data.
need of each business unit.
type of business.
IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:
B. maximum tolerable loss of data.
RPOs are determined by how much data loss an organization can withstand in the event of a disaster. It’s a measure of the maximum age of files that an organization must recover from backup storage for normal operations to resume after a disaster. Therefore, RPOs are directly related to the maximum tolerable loss of data.
To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:
Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.
Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.
Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.
Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.
Effective risk governance requires senior management to have a clear understanding of business risks and the associated ownership. This understanding enables them to make informed decisions, allocate resources appropriately, and establish accountability for risk management activities throughout the organization.
An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?
Risk profile
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk tolerance
A risk profile is a summary of the nature and level of risk that an organization faces. It includes information such as the sources, causes, and consequences of the risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. A risk profile is influenced by various factors, such as the organization’s objectives, strategies, activities, processes, resources, capabilities, culture, etc. When an organization configures a new business division, the factor that is most likely to be affected is the risk profile, as the new business division may introduce new or change existing risks, opportunities, and uncertainties that may affect the achievement of the organization’s objectives. Therefore, the organization should update its risk profile to reflect the currentand potential risks associated withthe new business division, and implement the appropriate risk management actions to optimize the risk exposure and performance. References = 4
Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?
Audit and compliance management
The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)
Enterprise risk management and business process owners
Executive management and the board of directors
The stakeholders who are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite are the executive management and the board of directors, because they are the ones who set thestrategic direction and objectives of the enterprise, and who define the acceptable level of risk exposure and tolerance for achieving those objectives. The other options are not the primary stakeholders, because:
Option A: Audit and compliance management are responsible for providing assurance and oversight on the effectiveness of the risk management process and the compliance with internal and external requirements, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option B: The CIO and the CFO are responsible for managing the IT resources and the financial resources of the enterprise, respectively, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite.
Option C: Enterprise risk management and business process owners are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks that affect their domains, but they do not determine the enterprise IT risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 83.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?
Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.
New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.
The risk environment is subject to change.
The information security budget must be justified.
The primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments is that the risk environment is subject to change. The risk environment is the external and internal factors that influence the level and nature of the risks that the organization faces1. These factors include economic, political, social, technological, legal,and environmental aspects, as well as the organization’s objectives, strategies, culture, and resources2. The risk environment is dynamic and unpredictable, and may change due to various events, trends, ordevelopments that create new or modify existing risks3. Therefore, it is important to perform ongoing risk assessments to identify, analyze, and evaluate the changes in the risk environment, and to adjust the risk response and management accordingly. Ongoing risk assessments help to ensure that the organization’s risk profile is up to date and reflects the current reality, and that the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are aligned with the changing risk environment4. The other options are not the primary reason to perform ongoing risk assessments, as they are either less comprehensive or less relevant than the changing risk environment. Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management. This option is a consequence or outcome of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a reason for doing so. Emerging risk is a new or evolving risk that has the potential to affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance5. Ongoing risk assessments can help to identify and monitor emerging risks, and to report them to management for decision making and action. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not cover the existing or modified risks that may also change due to the risk environment. Newsystem vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals. This option is a specific or narrow example of a changing risk environment, not a general or broad reason for performing ongoing risk assessments. System vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the design, implementation, or operation of information systems that can be exploited by threats to cause harm or loss6. Ongoing risk assessments can help to discover and assess new system vulnerabilities that may emerge due to technological changes, cyberattacks, or human errors. However, this is not the primary reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not encompass the other types or sources of risks that may also change due to the risk environment. The information security budget must be justified. This option is a secondary or incidental benefit of performing ongoing risk assessments, not a primary or essential reason for doing so. The information security budget is the amount of money that the organization allocates for implementing and maintaining information security measures and controls7. Ongoing risk assessments can help tojustify the information security budget by demonstrating the value and effectiveness of the security measures and controls in reducing the risks, and by identifying the gaps or needs for additional or improved security measures and controls. However, this is not the main reason for performing ongoing risk assessments, as it does not address the purpose or objective of risk assessment, which is to identify, analyze, and evaluate the risks and their impact on the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1, Page 47.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?
Benchmark of industry standards
Internal and external risk reports
Recommendations from IT risk experts
Outcome of control self-assessments
The primary input when designing IT controls should be internal and external risk reports. IT controls are specific activities performed by persons or systems to ensure that business objectives are met, and thatthe confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and the overall management of the IT function are ensured1. Designing IT controls means creating and implementing the appropriate measures or actions to reduce the likelihood or impact of the IT risks that may affect the organization2. Internal and external risk reports are documents that provide information and analysis on the current and potential IT risks that the organization faces, as well as their sources, drivers, consequences, and responses3. Internal risk reports are generated by the organization itself, such as by the IT risk management function, the internal audit function, or the business units. External risk reports are obtained from external sources, such as regulators, industry associations, or third-party service providers. Internal and external risk reports are the primary input when designing IT controls, because they help to:
Identify and prioritize the IT risks that need to be addressed by the IT controls;
Evaluate the likelihood and impact of the IT risks, and compare them against the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance;
Determine the most suitable and effective IT control objectives and activities to mitigate the IT risks;
Align the IT control design and implementation with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and values;
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the IT controls in reducing the IT risks. The other options are not the primary input when designing IT controls, as they are either less relevant or less specific than internal and external risk reports. Benchmark of industry standards is a comparison of the organization’s IT control practices and performance with those of other organizations in the same industry or sector4. Benchmark of industry standards can help to improve the quality and consistency of the IT control design and implementation, as well as to identify the best practices and gaps. However, benchmark of industry standards is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not address the specific IT risks that the organization faces, or the IT control objectives and activities that are appropriate and effective for the organization. Recommendations from IT risk experts are the suggestions or advice from the professionals or specialists who have the knowledge and experience in IT risk management and IT control design and implementation5. Recommendations from IT risk experts can help to enhance the IT control design and implementation, as well as to provide guidance and support to the organization. However, recommendations from IT risk experts are not the primary inputwhen designing IT controls, as they are based on the opinions and perceptions of the experts, and may not reflect the actual or objective level and nature of the IT risks, or the IT control objectives and activities that are suitable and efficient for the organization. Outcome of control self-assessments is the result or conclusion of the evaluation and testing of the design and operation of the existingIT controls by the organization itself, such as by the IT control owners, the IT risk management function, or the business units6. Outcome of control self-assessments can help to improve the IT control design and implementation, as well as to detect and correct any issues or deficiencies. However, outcome of control self-assessments is not the primary input when designing IT controls, as it does not cover the new or emerging IT risks that the organization may face, or the IT control objectives and activities that are relevant and necessary for the organization. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, Page 189.
Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software
Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software
Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization
Lack of professional support for open source software
Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software should be the greatest concern for an organization that uses open source software applications, as it may expose the organization to legal, security, and operational risks. Open source software is software that is freely available and can be modified and distributed by anyone, subject to certain conditions and licenses. An organizational policy regarding open source software should define the criteria and procedures for selecting, acquiring, using, and maintaining open source software, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the stakeholders involved. Lack of reliability, lack of monitoring, and lack of professional support are not the greatest concerns, as they can be addressed by implementing quality assurance, configuration management, and community engagement practices for open source software. References = CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, question 214; CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 214.
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:
exposures are reduced to the fullest extent
exposures are reduced only for critical business systems
insurance costs are minimized
the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.
The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss. The cost of controls is the amount of resources and efforts required to implement and maintain the controls that are designed to reduce the risk exposure. The expected loss is the estimated amount of loss or harm that may result from a risk event. Therisk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite, the organization can optimize the balance between the cost of controls and the expected loss, and avoid over- or under-investing in controls. Exposures being reduced to the fullest extent,exposures being reduced only for critical business systems, and insurance costs being minimized are other possible objectives, but they are not as relevant as the cost of controls not exceeding the expected loss. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC)Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:
determine the risk appetite.
determine the budget.
define key performance indicators (KPIs).
optimize resource utilization.
Optimizing resource utilization is the main reason for prioritizing IT risk responses, as it helps to allocate resources to the most critical and urgent risks. The other options are not the main reasons for prioritizing IT risk responses, although they may be related to the process.
When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:
insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.
service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.
a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.
accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.
According to the FIC Article by FSCA, accountable institutions remain fully accountable, responsible and liable for any compliance failures that may result from or be associated with an outsourcing arrangement and as such, liability and/or culpability for non-compliance with the FIC Act obligations cannot be transferred to a third-party service provider2. Therefore, even if a business process is outsourced to a cloud service provider, the organization still has the ultimate responsibility and accountability for the risk associated with the outsourced process. The other options are not correct, as they imply that the cloud service provider can take over the accountability or responsibility for the risk, or that the organization can mitigate the risk by acquiring insurance, which is not the case.
A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.
Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.
Outsource the process for updating the risk register.
Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.
 The best course of action for a newly hired risk practitioner who finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year is to identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews. This would help the risk practitioner to update the risk register with the current and relevant information on the risks facing the enterprise, such as their sources, drivers, indicators, likelihood, impact, and responses. It would also help the risk practitioner to evaluate the effectiveness of the existing controls, and to identify any new or emerging risks that need to be addressed. Identifying changes in risk factors and initiating risk reviews would enable the risk practitioner to maintain the accuracy and completeness of the risk register, and to provide valuable input for the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1, page 2271
An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?
Variances in recovery times
Ownership assignment for controls
New potentially disruptive scenarios
Contractual changes with customers
When an organization restructures its business processes, the first step in revising the BCP is to identify new potentially disruptive scenarios that may affect the continuity of the critical functions and processes. This can be done by conducting a risk assessment or a business impact analysis (BIA) to determine the likelihood and impact of various threats and vulnerabilities onthe organization’s objectives and operations. By identifying new potentially disruptive scenarios, the organization can then update its recovery strategies, objectives, and plans accordingly.
Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?
Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management
Review of internal audit and third-party reports
Management review and sign-off on system documentation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation
First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation is the best way to confirm the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls because it provides the auditor with the most reliable and persuasive evidence. Direct observation involves inspecting the physicaland logical aspects of the controls, such as the hardware, software, network, data, procedures, and personnel involved in the information systems. Direct observation also allows the auditor to verify that the controls are functioning as intended, and to identify any deviations or weaknesses that may affect the reliability of the information systems. Direct observation can be performed by using various techniques, such as walkthroughs, inquiries, inspections, reperformance, and analytical procedures1. References = Auditing Standard No. 13, The Auditor’s Responses to the Risks of Material Misstatement, PCAOB, 20101
Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?
Risk register
Risk appetite
Risk dashboard
Risk action plans
A risk dashboard provides a visual, real-time overview of risk levels, trends, and key metrics, making it easier for executive management to understand and act upon. It integrates data from various sources, making it comprehensive.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of stakeholder involvement in risk scenario development?
Ability to determine business impact
Up-to-date knowledge on risk responses
Decision-making authority for risk treatment
Awareness of emerging business threats
Risk scenario development is a process that involves identifying and describing the potential risk events that can affect an organization’s objectives and operations. Risk scenario development requires the input and participation of various stakeholders, such as the management, the staff, the customers, the suppliers, the regulators, and the competitors. The primary benefit of stakeholder involvement in risk scenario development is that it increases the awareness of emerging business threats, meaning that it helps to identify and anticipate the new or changingsources and impacts of risk that may not be captured by theexisting risk assessment methods or tools. Stakeholder involvement can also help to improve the quality and completeness of the risk scenarios, as well as to enhance the communication and collaborationamong the stakeholders regarding the risk management process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1.1, p. 66-67
Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?
External audit findings
Feedback from focus groups
Self-assessment reports
Changes in senior management
 An IT risk appetite statement is a document that expresses the amount and type of IT risk that an organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. An IT risk appetite statement can help guide the IT risk management process, by setting the boundaries, criteria, andtargets for IT risk identification, assessment, response, and reporting. An IT risk appetite statement should be aligned with the organization’s overall risk appetite and strategy, and should be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect the changes in the internal and external environment. One of the factors that would most likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement is changes in senior management. Senior management is the group of executives who have the authority and responsibility for the strategic direction and performance of the organization. Changes in senior management can affect the IT risk appetite statement, as they may introduce new perspectives, priorities, expectations, or preferences for IT risk taking or avoidance. Changes in senior management can also affect the IT risk appetite statement, as they may require new or revised IT objectives, goals, or initiatives, which may entail different levelsor types of IT risk. Therefore, changes in senior management should trigger a review and update of the IT risk appetite statement, to ensure that it is consistent and compatible with the new leadership and direction of the organization. References = Organisations must define their IT risk appetite and tolerance, Risk Appetite Statements - Institute of Risk Management, Develop Your Technology Risk Appetite - Gartner.
Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?
Preventive
Directive
Detective
Compensating
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), establishing an organizational code of conduct is an example of a directive control, which is a type of control that guides or steers the behavior of individuals or processes to achieve desired outcomes. A directive control aims toinfluence or encourage compliance with the organization’s policies, standards, procedures, and guidelines. A directive control can also communicate the organization’s values, ethics, and expectations to its stakeholders. A directive control can take various forms, such as:
Codes of conduct or ethics
Policies or manuals
Training or awareness programs
Job descriptions or roles and responsibilities
Performance appraisals or incentives
Supervision or oversight
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.4: IT Risk Scenarios, pp. 105-1061
Which of the following provides the BEST evidence of the effectiveness of an organization's account provisioning process?
User provisioning
Role-based access controls
Security log monitoring
Entitlement reviews
An organization’s account provisioning process is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for the organization’s information systems and resources. It involves defining the access requirements, policies, and standards, and implementing and enforcing them across the organization.
The best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process is entitlement reviews, which are the periodic or regular reviews and validations of the user accounts and access rights that are granted or assigned to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s information systems and resources. Entitlement reviews can provide assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
Entitlement reviews can be performed using various techniques, such as automated tools, reports, audits, surveys, etc. Entitlement reviews can also be integrated with the organization’s governance, risk management, and compliance functions, and aligned with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of an organization’s account provisioning process, because they do not provide the same level of assurance and verification that the account provisioning process is accurate, consistent, and compliant, and that it meets the organization’s security and business objectives and requirements.
User provisioning is the process of creating, modifying, or deleting user accounts and access rights for a specific user or entity, based on their identity, role, or function in the organization. User provisioning is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the user accounts and access rights are appropriate and authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Role-based access controls are the controls that grant or restrict user accounts and access rights based on the predefined roles or functions that the users or entities perform or assume in the organization. Role-based access controls are an important part of the account provisioningprocess, but they are not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because they do not indicate whether the roles or functions are defined and assigned correctly and consistently, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
Security log monitoring is the process of collecting, analyzing, and reporting on the security events or activities that are recorded or logged by the organization’s information systems and resources. Security log monitoring is an important part of the account provisioning process, but it is not the best evidence of the effectiveness of the account provisioning process, because it does not indicate whether the security events or activities are legitimate or authorized, and whether they comply with the organization’s policies and standards. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 173
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:
system architecture in target areas.
IT management policies and procedures.
business objectives of the organization.
defined roles and responsibilities.
 In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is most important for the emergency response team members to understand their defined roles and responsibilities. This can help to ensure that the team members know what they are expected to do, how they should coordinate and communicate with each other, and how they should report the progress and outcome of therisk response. The system architecture in target areas, IT management policies and procedures, and business objectives of the organization are other important factors, but they arenot as important as the defined roles and responsibilities. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?
The organization's strategic risk management projects
Senior management roles and responsibilities
The organizations risk appetite and tolerance
Senior management allocation of risk management resources
The organization’s risk appetite and tolerance are the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the level of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is prepared to accept. Senior management plays a key role in defining and communicating the risk appetite and tolerance, as well asensuring that they are aligned with the organization’s strategy, culture, and values. By covering these topics in the training session, the risk practitioner can help senior management understand and articulate the risk preferences and boundaries of the organization, as well as monitor andadjust them as needed. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a risk awareness training for senior management, although they may be relevant and useful. The organization’s strategic risk management projects are specific initiatives or activities that aim to identify, assess, and treat risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Senior management roles and responsibilities are the duties and expectations that senior management has in relation to risk management, such as providing leadership, oversight, and support. Senior management allocation of risk management resources is the process of assigning and prioritizing the human, financial, and technical resources that are needed to implement and maintain risk management activities. These topics are more operational and tactical than strategic and may vary depending on the context and scope of the risk management function. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 732
Who should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users?
Information security officer
Information security manager
Information custodian
Information owner
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the information owner is the official with statutory or operational authority for specified information and responsibility for establishing the controls for its generation, collection, processing, dissemination, and disposal. The information owner is also responsible for authorizing access to the information within their domain, based on the principle of least privilege and the need toknow. Therefore, the information owner should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following is the BEST method of creating risk awareness in an organization?
Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders
Ensuring senior management commitment to risk training
Providing regular communication to risk managers
Appointing the risk manager from the business units
 The best method of creating risk awareness in an organization is to ensure senior management commitment to risk training. Senior management plays a vital role in setting the tone and direction of the risk culture and governance in the organization. By demonstrating their support and participation in risk training, they can influence and motivate the employees to follow the risk policies and procedures, and to enhance their risk knowledge and skills. Marking the risk register available to project stakeholders, providing regular communication to risk managers, and appointing the risk manager from the business units are other methods of creating risk awareness, but they are not as effective as ensuring senior management commitment to risk training. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?
Key control owner
Operational risk manager
Business process owner
Chief information security officer (CISO)
The business process owner is the person or entity that has the accountability and authority to manage a business process and its outcomes. The business process owner would be the most appropriate owner of the risk associated with an IT control gap in a key process, as they are responsible for ensuring that the process meets its objectives and delivers value to the enterprise. The business process owner should also ensure that the process is aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and risk appetite, and that the process risks are identified, assessed, and mitigated effectively. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 247. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 247. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 247. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
In addition to the risk exposure, which of the following is MOST important for senior management to understand prior to approving the use of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions?
Potential benefits from use of Al solutions
Monitoring techniques required for AI solutions
Changes to existing infrastructure to support Al solutions
Skills required to support Al solutions
The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?
Assemble an incident response team.
Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).
Develop a risk response plan.
Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).
Developing a risk response plan is the best action to address the risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence, because it helps to define and implement the appropriate actions to reduce or eliminate the risk, or to prepare for and recover from the potential consequences. A risk response plan is a document that outlines the strategies and tactics for managing the identified risks, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. A risk response plan also assigns the roles and responsibilities for the risk owners and stakeholders, and sets the timelines and budgets for the risk response activities. A risk scenario with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence is a rare but severe event that may cause significant disruption or damage to the organization or its objectives, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a pandemic. Therefore, developing a risk response plan is the best action to address these scenarios, as it helps to minimize the exposure and impact of the risk, and to enhance the resilience and recovery of the organization. Assembling an incident response team, creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP), and initiating a business impact analysis (BIA) are all important actions to perform as part of the risk response plan, but they are not the best action, as they do not cover the whole spectrum of risk response strategies and activities. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.2, page 103
An organization recently implemented a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud. Which of the following is MOST likely to be reassessed as a result of this initiative?
Risk likelihood
Risk culture
Risk appetite
Risk capacity
Risk likelihood is most likely to be reassessed as a result of implementing a machine learning-based solution to monitor IT usage and analyze user behavior in an effort to detect internal fraud, as it may change the probability of fraud occurrence or detection, and affect the risk assessment and response. Risk culture, risk appetite, and risk capacity are not the most likely to be reassessed, as they are more stable and strategic aspects of risk management, and are not directlyinfluenced by the implementation of a specific solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 108.
Recovery point objective (RPO) of 48 hours
Recovery time objective (RTO) of 48 hours
Mean time between failures (MTBF) of 48 hours
Mean time to recover (MTTR) of 48 hours
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Recovery Time Objective (RTO) defines the maximum acceptable length of time that an application can be unavailable after a disruption before impacting business operations. Thus, specifying an RTO of 48 hours means the application must be restored and operational within that timeframe. RPO refers to data loss tolerance, MTBF relates to reliability and failure intervals, and MTTR is a technical measure of repair time but less commonly used in BCP metricsã€5:223, 5:224†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.
Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.
Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.
Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.
The first step in assessing the current risk level of data loss is to identify where the sensitive data is stored, such as servers, databases, laptops, mobile devices, etc. This will help to determine the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the potential exposure and impact of data loss. Identifying staff members who have access to the data, risk scenarios and owners, and existing controls are important steps, but they should be done after identifying the data locations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.1, page 51.
Business information security officer
Service level manager
Business process manager
Data center operations manager
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The business process manager is best suited to own business continuity controls because they have direct responsibility for the continuity of the business process and understand the criticality of maintaining operations during disruptions. While security officers and operations managers have important roles, the business process manager is accountable for ensuring the process continues to meet business objectives and should lead continuity effortsã€5:513, 5:514†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
Which of the following would MOST likely cause a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios?
A change in the risk management policy
A major security incident
A change in the regulatory environment
An increase in intrusion attempts
 The most likely cause for a risk practitioner to reassess risk scenarios is a change in the regulatory environment. A regulatory environment is the set of laws, rules, and standards that apply to an organization and its activities, such as data privacy, security, compliance, or governance. A change in the regulatory environment can occur due to various factors, such as new legislation, court rulings, enforcement actions, or industry trends. A change in the regulatory environment can affect the risk scenarios that the organization faces, as it may introduce new or modified risks, or alter the probability or impact of existing risks. For example, a new regulation may require the organization to implement additional or different controls, or to report or disclose more information, which may increase the cost, complexity, or vulnerability of the organization’s processes and systems. A change in the regulatory environment may also affect the risk appetite, tolerance, and capacity of the organization, as it may impose different requirements or expectations for the organization’s risk management performance and outcomes. Therefore, a risk practitioner should reassess the risk scenarios when there is a change in the regulatory environment, to ensure that the risk scenarios are accurate, complete, and relevant, and that the risk response strategies and plans are appropriate, effective, and compliant. The other options are not the most likely cause, although they may be related or influential to the riskscenarios. A change in the risk management policy is a change in the rules and guidelines that define how the organization manages its risks, such as the roles and responsibilities, the processes and procedures, the tools and techniques, or the reporting and communication. A change in the risk management policy can affect the risk scenarios, as it may change the way the organization identifies, analyzes, evaluates, and responds to the risks, but it does not directly create or modify the risks themselves. A major security incident is an event or situation that compromises the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the organization’s information or systems, such as a data breach, a denial-of-service attack, or a ransomware infection. A major security incident can affect the risk scenarios, as it may indicate or reveal the existence or severity of the risks, or trigger or escalate the consequences of the risks, but it is not a cause, rather it is an effect of the risks. An increase in intrusion attempts is an increase in the frequency or intensity of the unauthorized or malicious attempts to access or exploit the organization’s information or systems, such as phishing, malware, or brute-force attacks. An increase in intrusion attempts can affect the risk scenarios, as it may increase the likelihood or impact of the risks, or expose or exacerbate the vulnerabilities of the organization’s processes and systems, but it is not a cause, rather it is a manifestation of the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit -ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Impact of Regulatory Change on Business - Deloitte
Which of the following is MOST important for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (Al) solution?
Industry trends in Al
Expected algorithm outputs
Data feeds
Alert functionality
The most important factor for the organization to consider before implementing a new in-house developed artificial intelligence (AI) solution is the expected algorithm outputs, as they define the desired outcomes and objectives of the AI solution, and guide the design, testing, and validation of the AI algorithm. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the research, input, or monitoring of the AI solution, respectively, rather than the output of the AI solution. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 153.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?
Poor access control
Unnecessary data storage usage
Data inconsistency
Unnecessary costs of program changes
Data inconsistency is the greatest concern associated with redundant data in an organization’s inventory system, as it can lead to inaccurate, unreliable, and conflicting information that can affect the decision-making and performance of the organization. Redundant data can occur when the same data is stored in multiple locations or formats, or when data is not updated or synchronized properly. Data inconsistency can cause errors, confusion, and inefficiency in the inventory management process, and can also increase the risk of fraud, theft, or loss of inventory. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 238. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 238. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 238.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?
It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.
It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.
It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.
It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.
Policies and standards are important components of the risk management process, as they define the objectives, expectations, and requirements for managing risk within the organization. Policies and standards are also the means by which senior management formally approves and communicates the risk practices to the stakeholders, ensuring that the risk management process is aligned with the organizational strategy, culture, and values. Policies and standards also provide the authority and accountability for the risk management roles and responsibilities, as well as the criteria and metrics for measuring and reporting risk performance.
Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?
Control chart
Sensitivity analysis
Trend analysis
Decision tree
A decision tree is a technique that can be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated. A decision tree is a graphical tool that shows the possible outcomes and consequences of different choices or actions in a sequential and hierarchical manner. A decision tree can help to compare and contrast the alternatives based on their expected values, costs, benefits, and risks, as well as to identify the optimal or preferred alternative that maximizes the value or minimizes the risk. A decision tree can also help to communicate and explain the rationale and assumptions behind the decision-making process to the stakeholders. The other options are not the best techniques to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated, although they may be useful and complementary. A control chart is a technique that monitors the performance and quality of a process or activity over time by plotting the data points and the control limits. A control chart can help to detect and analyze the variations or deviations from the expected or desired results, as well as to identify and correct the causes or sources of the variations. A sensitivity analysis is a technique that measures the impact ofchanges in one or more variables or parameters on the outcome or result of a model or a system. A sensitivity analysis can help to assess the uncertainty or variability of the outcome or result, as well as to determine the most influential or critical variables or parameters that affect the outcome or result. A trend analysis is a technique that examines the patterns or movements of data or information over time by using statistical or graphical methods. A trend analysis can help to forecast or predict the future behavior or direction of the data or information, as well as to identify and explain the factors or drivers that influence the data or information. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC ReviewQuestions, Answers &Explanations Manual, page 922; Risk Assessment and Analysis Methods: Qualitative and Quantitative - ISACA3; Risk Assessment: Process, Examples, & Tools | SafetyCulture4
Which of the following is a KEY outcome of risk ownership?
Risk responsibilities are addressed.
Risk-related information is communicated.
Risk-oriented tasks are defined.
Business process risk is analyzed.
 A key outcome of risk ownership is that risk responsibilities are addressed, as this means that the risk owner has the authority and accountability to manage the risk, and that the roles and expectations of the other stakeholders are clearly defined and agreed upon. Risk ownership is the process of assigning a person or entity with the responsibility to manage a particular risk. Risk ownership helps to ensure that the risk is properly identified, assessed, and treated, and that the risk status and performance are monitored and reported. The other options are not key outcomes of risk ownership, although they may be related or beneficial aspects of it. Risk-related information is communicated is an outcome of risk reporting, which is a part of risk monitoring and control. Risk-oriented tasks are defined is an outcome of risk response planning, which is a part of risk treatment. Business process risk is analyzed is an outcome of risk assessment, which is a part of risk identification and analysis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 47.
Which of the following contributes MOST to the effective implementation of risk responses?
Clear understanding of the risk
Comparable industry risk trends
Appropriate resources
Detailed standards and procedures
Appropriate resources contribute most to the effective implementation of risk responses. Resources include people, time, money, equipment, and materials that are needed to execute the risk responses. Without appropriate resources, the risk responses may not be implemented properly, timely, or efficiently, and may not achieve the desired outcomes. The other options are not as important as appropriate resources, as they are related to the understanding, comparison, or documentation of the risk responses, which are less critical than the execution of the riskresponses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:
data classification and labeling.
data logging and monitoring.
data retention and destruction.
data mining and analytics.
Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?
Risk appetite and tolerance
Risk framework and methodology
Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds
Risk communication plan
The most important factor for senior management to review during an acquisition is the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization. The risk appetite and tolerance reflect the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. By reviewing the risk appetite and tolerance of the target organization, senior management can determine if they are compatible with their own, and if the acquisition will create any significant risk exposure or opportunity for the acquiring organization. Risk framework and methodology, key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds, and risk communication plan are other factors that may be reviewed, but they are not as important as the risk appetite and tolerance. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 8; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 97.
Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:
Mapped to the corresponding business areas.
Aligned with corporate security policies.
Effectively implemented and maintained.
Designed based on standards and frameworks.
Technical control owners are responsible for the day-to-day operation and maintenance of controls. Their primary accountability is to ensure that controls are effectively implemented and continue to operate as intended to mitigate associated risks.
A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?
Negotiating terms of adoption
Understanding the timeframe to implement
Completing a gap analysis
Initiating the conversion
Completing a gap analysis identifies discrepancies between current controls and the requirements of the IT control framework, ensuring a focused approach to compliance. This supportsRisk Assessment for Compliance Requirements.
The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:
amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.
amount of risk present in the organization.
variance against objectives.
number of incidents.
 The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the variance against objectives, because control metrics are measures that indicate the performance and effectiveness of the controls in achieving the desired outcomes and goals. Control metrics can help to identify and quantify the gaps or deviations between the actual and expected results of the controls, and to provide feedback and improvement for the control design and implementation. The other options are not the primary purpose, because:
Option A: Amount of risk reduced by compensating controls is a result of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Compensating controls are controls that provide an alternative or additional level of protection or assurance when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Control metrics can help to measure and monitor the amount of risk reduced by compensating controls, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the control performance and effectiveness.
Option B: Amount of risk present in the organization is an input to using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. The amount of risk present in the organization is the level of exposure and uncertainty that the organization faces in pursuing its objectives and goals. Control metrics can help to assess and report the amount of risk present in the organization, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the risk profile and exposure.
Option D: Number of incidents is a source of using control metrics, but not the primary purpose. Incidents are events or occurrences that disrupt or threaten the normal operations or security of the organization. Control metrics can help to analyze and respond to the number of incidents, but they are not the only or the most important measure of the incident management andresolution. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 120.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a control is not meeting agreed-upon performance criteria?
Implement additional controls to further mitigate risk
Review performance results with the control owner
Redefine performance criteria based on control monitoring results
Recommend a tool to meet the performance requirements
The best approach is tocollaborate with the control ownerto understand root causes and determine next steps. This respects ownership and enables targeted, informed decision-making before implementing drastic changes.
IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:
for compliance with laws and regulations
as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.
as input for decision-making
to measure organizational success.
 IT risk assessments can best be used by management as input for decision-making, because they provide valuable information about the current and potential risks facing the organization’s IT systems, networks, and data, and their impact on the organization’s objectives and performance. IT risk assessments can help management to identify and prioritize the most critical and relevant risks, and to evaluate and select the most appropriate and effective risk responses. IT risk assessments can also help management to allocate and optimize the resources and budget for IT risk management, and to communicate and report the risk status and performance to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. IT risk assessments can support management in making informed and balanced decisions that consider both the opportunities and the threats of IT-related activities and investments. References = Complete Guide to IT Risk Management 1
A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?
The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.
The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.
The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.
The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased is the information that would have the most impact on the overall recovery profile, as it indicates that the organization has improved its ability to restore its critical systems and processes within the acceptable time frames after a disaster. The recovery target time, also known as the recovery time objective (RTO), is the maximum acceptable time that an application, computer, network, or system can be down after an unexpected disaster, failure, or comparable event takes place. The recovery profile, also known as the recovery point objective (RPO), is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. A lower percentage of systems with long recovery target times means that the organization has:
Reduced the gap between the business requirements and the IT capabilities for disaster recovery
Enhanced the resilience and availability of its critical systems and processes
Minimized the potential losses and damages caused by prolonged downtime
Increased the confidence and satisfaction of its stakeholders and customers
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?
Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests
Decreased number of reported security incidents
Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations
Number of employees that complete security training
The best indicator of an effective IT security awareness program is the decreased success rate of internal phishing tests. Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick the users into revealing their personal or confidential information, or clicking on malicious links or attachments, by impersonating a legitimate entity or person. Internal phishing tests are simulated phishing attacks that are conducted by the enterprise to test the awareness and behavior of the employees in response to phishing emails. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests means that fewer employees fall victim to the phishing attempts, and that they are more aware and vigilant of the phishing threats and techniques. A decreased success rate of internal phishing tests also implies that the IT security awareness program has effectively educated and trained the employees on how to recognize and report phishing emails, and how to protect themselves and the enterprise from phishing attacks. A decreased number of reported security incidents, a number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations, and a number of employees that complete security training are not as good indicators of an effective IT security awareness program as a decreased success rate of internal phishing tests, as they do not directly measure theawareness and behavior of the employees in relation to phishing, and may be influenced by otherfactors such as reporting mechanisms, enforcement policies, and training availability. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?
Business case
Balanced scorecard
Industry standards
Heat map
A business case will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management, because it provides a clear and concise justification of the objectives, benefits, costs, and risks of the proposed initiatives. A business case helps to align the risk mitigation initiatives with the enterprise’s strategy and goals, and to obtain the necessary approval and support from senior management. The other options are not as effective as a business case, because:
Option B: A balanced scorecard is a tool to measure and monitor the performance of the enterprise across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. It does not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the outcomes and impacts of them.
Option C: Industry standards are benchmarks or best practices that define the minimum requirements or expectations for a certain domain or activity. They do not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the compliance or alignment of them with the external environment.
Option D: A heat map is a tool to visualize and prioritize the risks based on their likelihood and impact. It does not communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives, but rather the severity and distribution of the risks. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 118.
Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?
Postpone the risk assessment.
Facilitate the exception process.
Accept the manager's request.
Reject the manager's request.
Facilitating the exception process ensures that any deviations from the standard risk assessment procedures are formally documented, reviewed, and approved by appropriate governance bodies. This approach maintains the integrity of the risk management process while addressing the business unit manager's concerns.
An organization striving to be on the leading edge in regard to risk monitoring would MOST likely implement:
procedures to monitor the operation of controls.
a tool for monitoring critical activities and controls.
real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions.
monitoring activities for all critical assets.
Perform a controls assessment.
The best answer is C. real-time monitoring of risk events and control exceptions. Real-time monitoring is a process of continuously collecting and analyzing data and information on the occurrence and impact of risk events and control exceptions, using automated tools and techniques, such as dashboards, alerts, or analytics12. Real-time monitoring can help to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and to prevent or mitigate the potential consequences. Real-time monitoring can also help to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to provide timely and accurate reporting and communication to the stakeholders. Real-time monitoring is the best answer, because itrepresents a leading-edge practice in risk monitoring, as it leverages the latest technology and innovation, and it enables a proactive and agile approach to risk management. The other options are not the best answer, although they may be useful or necessary for risk monitoring. Procedures to monitor the operation of controls are a part of the risk monitoring process, but they are not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as they may not be able to capture and address the risks and the issues in a timely manner, and they may rely on manual or periodic methods, rather than automated or continuous ones. A tool for monitoring critical activities and controls is a resource or a device that supports the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to collect and analyze the data and information in real time, and it may depend on the quality and reliability of the tool. Monitoring activities for all critical assets is a scope or a coverage of the risk monitoring process, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to identify and respond to the risks and the issues as soon as they happen, and it may require a lot of resources and efforts. Performing a controls assessment is a process of evaluating and testing the design and operation of the controls, but it is not the same as or a substitute for real-time monitoring, as it may not be able to detect and report the risks and the issues in real time, and it may follow a predefined or scheduled plan, ratherthan a dynamic or adaptive one. References = Real-Time Risk Monitoring - ISACA, Real-Time Risk Monitoring: A Case Study - ISACA
During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?
Data validation
Identification
Authentication
Data integrity
Authentication is a control that verifies the identity of a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Authentication can be based on something the user or system knows (such as a password or a PIN), something the user or system has (such as a token or asmart card), or something the user or system is (such as a fingerprint or a retina scan). Authentication is a crucial control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as well as for ensuring the accountability and traceability of the actions performed by the user or system. If the authentication control is compromised, it means that the user or system can bypass or break the verification process and gain access to the system or network without being identified or authorized. This can expose the system or network to various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. Therefore, the authentication control has most likely been compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. A firewall is a device or a software that monitors and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. A firewall can help to protect the system or network from external or internal attacks by blocking or allowing the traffic based on the source, destination, protocol, or content. However, a firewall cannot prevent an intruder from accessing the system or network if the intruder has already authenticated or impersonated a legitimate user or system. The other options are not the most likely controls to be compromised if a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall, although they may be affected or related. Data validation is a control that checks the accuracy, completeness, and quality of the data that is entered, processed,or stored by a system or anetwork. Data validation can help to prevent or detect data errors, anomalies, or inconsistencies that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of the system or network. However, data validation does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only focuses on the data, not the user or system. Identification is a control that assigns a unique identifier to a user or a system that tries to access a computer system or network. Identification can be based on a username, an email address, a phone number, or a certificate. Identification is a necessary but not sufficient control for preventing unauthorized or malicious access to a system or network, as it only declares who or what the user or system is, but does not prove it. Identification needs to be combined with authentication to verify the identity of the user or system. Data integrity is a control that ensures that the data is accurate, consistent, and complete throughout its lifecycle. Data integrity can be achieved by implementing various controls, such as encryption, hashing, checksum, digital signature, or backup. Data integrity can help to protect the data from unauthorized or accidental modification, deletion, or corruption that may affect the value, meaning, or usability of the data. However, data integrity does not prevent or detect unauthorized or malicious access to the system or network, as it only protects the data, not the user or system. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1651; CRISC Review Questions, Answers &Explanations Manual, page 952; What is Authentication? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is a Firewall? - Definition from Techopedia4
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:
corporate culture alignment
low risk tolerance
high risk tolerance
corporate culture misalignment.
The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure most likely demonstrates corporate culture misalignment, as it indicates that the organization is not following the principles and values of effective risk management, and that there is a lack of communication and coordination among the risk owners and stakeholders. Corporate culture misalignment can also result in inefficient and wasteful use of resources, and reduced risk-return trade-off. The organization should align its corporate culture with its risk appetite and tolerance, and ensure that the control costs are proportional and justified by the risk exposure and the expected benefits. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 255. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 255. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?
Employ security guards.
Conduct security awareness training.
Install security cameras.
Require security access badges.
Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into performing actions or divulging information that may compromise the security of an organization or its data12.
Entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is a form of physical access that allows an unauthorized individual to access, steal, or damage the organization’s assets, such as equipment, documents, or systems34.
The best way to prevent future occurrences of social engineering entry into an organization’s secured physical premises is to conduct security awareness training, which is an educational program that aims to equip the organization’s employees with the knowledge and skills they need to protect the organization’s data and sensitive information from cyber threats, such as hacking, phishing, or other breaches56.
Security awareness training is the best way because it helps the employees to recognize and resist the common and emerging social engineering techniques, such as tailgating,impersonation, or pretexting, that may be used by the attackers to gain physical access to the organization’s premises56.
Security awareness training is also the best way because it fosters a culture of security and responsibility among the employees, and encourages them to follow the best practices andpolicies for physical security, such as locking the doors, verifying the identity of visitors, or reporting any suspicious activities or incidents56.
The other options are not the best way, but rather possible measures or controls that may supplement or enhance the security awareness training. For example:
Employing security guards is a measure that involves hiring or contracting professional personnel who are trained and authorized to monitor, patrol, and protect the organization’s premises from unauthorized access or intrusion78. However, this measure is not the best way because it may not be sufficient or effective to prevent or deter all types of social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to bypass, deceive, or coerce the security guards78.
Installing security cameras is a control that involves using electronic devices that capture and record the visual images of the organization’s premises, and provide evidence or alerts of any unauthorized access or activity . However, this control is not the best way because it is reactive rather than proactive, and may not prevent or stop the social engineering attacks before they cause any harm or damage to the organization .
Requiring security access badges is a control that involves using physical or electronic cards that identify and authenticate the employees or authorized visitors who are allowed to enter the organization’s premises, and restrict or deny the access to anyone else . However, this control is not the best way because it may not be foolproof or reliable to prevent or detect the social engineering attacks, especially if the attackers are able to steal, forge, or clone the security access badges . References =
1: What is Social Engineering? | Types & Examples of Social Engineering Attacks1
2: Social Engineering: What It Is and How to Prevent It | Digital Guardian2
3: What is physical Social Engineering and why is it important? - Integrity3603
4: What Is Tailgating (Piggybacking) In Cyber Security? - Wlan Labs4
5: What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
6: Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US6
7: Security Guard - Wikipedia7
8: Security Guard Services - Allied Universal8
Security Camera - Wikipedia
Security Camera Systems - The Home Depot
Access Badge - Wikipedia
Access Control Systems - HID Global
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:
using the same scales in assessing risk
utilizing industry benchmarks
using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems
including primarily low-level risk factors
Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when using the same scales in assessing risk, because it can help to ensure the consistency and comparability of the risk assessment results across different units, levels, and domains of the organization. Using the same scales in assessing risk can also help to avoid the potential errors or biases that may arise from using different scales, such as overestimating or underestimating the risk exposure, or misaligning the risk appetite and tolerance. The other options are not as important as using the same scales in assessing risk, because:
Option B: Utilizing industry benchmarks is a good way to improve the quality and validity of the risk assessment results, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of combining and consolidating the risk assessment results into a holistic and comprehensive view of the risk profile and exposure of the organization.
Option C: Using reliable qualitative data for risk items is a useful way to capture and describe the risk items, which are the sources and causes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of quantifying and measuring the risk items, and their likelihood and impact on the business objectives and processes.
Option D: Including primarily low-level risk factors is a necessary way to identify and assess the risk factors, which are the characteristics and attributes of the risks, but it does not ensure the success of the risk aggregation, which is the process of prioritizing and ranking the risk factors, and their significance and relevance to the organization’s strategy and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 105.
When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:
review alignment with the organizations strategy.
understand the organization's information security policy.
validate the organization's data classification scheme.
report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.
 The most important thing to do when establishing an enterprise IT risk management program is to review the alignment with the organization’s strategy. The organization’s strategy is the plan or direction that the organization follows to achieve its vision, mission, and goals. The IT risk management program should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, so that it supports and enables the organization’s strategic objectives, and addresses the IT risks that could affect the organization’s performance and value. Reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy helps to ensure that the IT risk management program is relevant, effective, and consistent with the organization’s expectations and needs. The other options are not as important as reviewing the alignment with the organization’s strategy, although they may be useful or necessary steps or components of the IT risk management program. Understanding the organization’s information security policy, validating the organization’s data classification scheme, and reporting identified IT risk scenarios to senior management are all activities that can help to implement and improvethe IT risk management program, but they are not the initial or primary thing todo. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 2-12.
A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?
Perform their own risk assessment
Implement additional controls to address the risk.
Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment
Perform an independent audit of the third party.
 A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that an organization faces in relation to its objectives, assets, and operations. A risk assessment helps to determine the likelihood and impact of potential threats, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of existing controls. A risk assessment also provides the basis for risk treatment, which involves selecting and implementing the appropriate risk responses, such as avoiding,transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. The client’s best course of action in this scenario is to perform their own risk assessment, rather than relying on the third-party service provider’s risk assessment. This is because the third-party service provider may have different risk criteria, assumptions, methods, or perspectives than the client, and may not fully understand or address the client’s specific risk context, needs, and expectations. The third-party service provider’s risk assessment may also be biased, outdated, or inaccurate, and may not reflect the current or future risk environment. By performing their own risk assessment, the client can ensure that the risk of their systems being hacked is properly identified, measured, and managed, and that the risk level is acceptable and aligned with their risk appetite and tolerance. The other options are not the best courses of action for the client, as they may expose the client to unnecessary or unacceptable risk. Implementing additional controls to address the risk may be costly, ineffective, or redundant, and may not be justified by the actual risk level. Accepting the risk based on the third-party service provider’s risk assessment may be risky, as the client may not have a clear or accurate understanding of the risk exposure or consequences. Performing an independent audit of the third party may be useful, but it may not be sufficient or timely to assess and address the risk of the client’s systems being hacked. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 792
To mitigate the risk of using a spreadsheet to analyze financial data, IT has engaged a third-party vendor to deploy a standard application to automate the process. Which of the following parties should own the risk associated with calculation errors?
business owner
IT department
Risk manager
Third-party provider
 According to the CRISC Review Manual1, the business owner is the person who has the authority and accountability for the achievement of the business objectives and the managementof the associated risks. The business owner is ultimately responsible for ensuring that the IT services and solutions support the business needs and goals, and for accepting or rejecting the residual risks after the implementation of risk responses. Therefore, the business owner should own the risk associated with calculation errors, as they are the ones who will be affected by the potential impact of the errors on the financial data and decisions. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 194.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:
IT policy exceptions granted.
Senior management approvals.
Key technology controls covered by IT policies.
Processes covered by IT policies.
The number of IT policy exceptions granted serves as a direct measure of how well IT policies align with organizational needs and practices. A high number of exceptions may indicate that policies are too restrictive or not practical, suggesting a need for review or modification.
Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?
Management has not determined a final implementation date.
Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.
Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.
Management has not begun the implementation.
The observation that would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans is that management has not begun the implementation, because it indicates that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored, and that the risks are not being addressed or mitigated. The lack of implementation may also imply that the management action plans are not realistic, feasible, or aligned with the enterprise’s strategy and objectives. The other options are not as concerning as the lack of implementation, because:
Option A: Management has not determined a final implementation date is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the timely completion and delivery of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option B: Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may indicate a delay or deviation in the progress and performance of the management action plans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored.
Option C: Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities is a concern, but not the greatest one, because it may affect the quality and effectiveness of the management actionplans, but it does not necessarily mean that the management action plans are not being executed or monitored. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 123.
Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?
Some critical business applications are not included in the plan
Several recovery activities will be outsourced
The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework
The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan
 The most concerning issue found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) is that some critical business applications are not included in the plan. This means that the DRP is incomplete and does not cover all the essential IT systems and services that support the business continuity. This could result in significant losses and damages in the event of a disaster. The other issues are not as critical, as they can be addressed by ensuring proper contracts, standards, and approvals are in place for the outsourced activities, the framework, and the CISO. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?
Least privilege access
Inability to edit
Ability to overwrite
Encryption
A security log is a record of security-related events or activities that occur in an IT system, network, or application, such as user authentication, access control, firewall activity, or intrusion detection1. Security logscan help to monitor and audit the security posture and performance of the IT environment, and to detect and investigate any security incidents, breaches, or anomalies2.
The integrity of a security log refers to the accuracy and completeness of the log data, and the assurance that the log data has not been modified, deleted, or tampered with by unauthorized or malicious parties3. The integrity of a security log is essential for ensuring the reliability and validity of the log analysis and reporting, and for providing evidence and accountability for security incidents and compliance4.
Among the four options given, the most important factor to the integrity of a security log is the inability to edit. This means that the security log data should be protected from any unauthorized or accidental changes or alterations, such as adding, deleting, or modifying log entries, or changing the log format or timestamps5. The inability to edit can be achieved by implementing various controls and measures, such as:
Applying digital signatures or hashes to the log data to verify its authenticity and integrity
Encrypting the log data to prevent unauthorized access or disclosure
Implementing least privilege access to the log data to restrict who can view, modify, or delete the log data
Using write-once media or devices to store the log data, such as CD-ROMs or WORM drives
Sending the log data to a secure and centralized log server or repository, and using syslog or other protocols to ensure secure and reliable log transmission
Performing regular backups and archiving of the log data to prevent data loss or corruption
References = Security Log: Best Practices for Logging and Management, Security Audit Logging Guideline, Confidentiality, Integrity, & Availability: Basics of Information Security, Steps for preserving the integrity of log data, Guide to Computer Security Log Management
Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?
Results of the latest risk assessment
Results of a risk forecasting analysis
A review of compliance regulations
Findings of the most recent audit
A risk register is a document that is used as a risk management tool to identify and track risks that may affect a project or an organization1. A risk register should be updated regularly to reflect the current status and changes of the risks, as well as the actions taken to mitigate or resolve them2. The most comprehensive information for updating a risk register would come from the results of the latest risk assessment, which is a process that involves identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks and their potential impacts3. A risk assessment provides a detailed and systematic overview of the risks, theirsources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences, as well as the existing and planned controls andresponses4. A risk assessment also helps to prioritize the risks based on their level of exposure and urgency, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance5. Therefore, the results of the latest risk assessment would provide the most relevant and complete information for updating a risk register and ensuring that it reflects the current risk profile and situation of the project or the organization. Results of a risk forecasting analysis are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a complete picture of the risks and their impacts. A risk forecasting analysis is a technique that uses historical data, trends, and scenarios to estimate the potential outcomes and impacts of future events that may affect the organization’s objectives and performance6. A risk forecasting analysis can help to anticipate and prepare for the risks, but it does not provide specific information on the sources, causes, likelihood, severity, and consequences of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. A review ofcompliance regulations is not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as it does not cover all the aspects and dimensions of risk management. A review of compliance regulations is a process that involves checking and verifying that the organization’s activities, processes, and systems are in accordance with the applicable laws, rules, and standards7. A review of compliance regulations can help to identify and mitigate the risks related to legal or regulatory violations, but it does not provide specific information on the other types and sources of risks, such as operational, strategic, financial, or reputational risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. Findings of the most recent audit are not the most comprehensive information for updating a risk register, as they do not provide a current and holistic view of the risks and their impacts. An audit is an independent examination and evaluation of the organization’s activities, processes, and systems, to provide assurance and advice on their adequacy and effectiveness. An audit can help to identify and report the issues or gaps in the organization’s risk management, but it does not provide specific information on the current status and changes of the risks, nor the existing and planned controls and responses. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Risk Monitoring, pp. 189-191.
Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?
Expected frequency and potential impact
Risk tolerance
Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment
Risk appetite
An IT risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant IT risks that an organization faces across its various functions, processes, and activities. An IT risk register can help to provide a comprehensive and consistent view of the organization’s IT risk profile, and to support the decision making and reporting of the IT risk management function1.
One of the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register is the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk. The expected frequency is the probability or likelihood of the IT risk occurring, based on historical data, statistical analysis, expert judgment, or other methods. The potential impact is the magnitude or severity of the consequences or outcomes of the IT risk, measured in terms of cost, time, quality, reputation, or other criteria2.
Updating the expected frequency and potential impact of each IT risk is essential for maintaining an IT risk register, because it can help to:
Evaluate and prioritize the IT risks based on their risk level, which is calculated by multiplying the frequency and impact
Monitor and track the changes or trends in the IT risk exposure and performance over time
Identify and implement the appropriate risk response strategies and controls, based on the risk level and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization
Report and communicate the IT risk status and progress to the stakeholders, using risk indicators, dashboards, or matrices3
The other options are not the data that must be updated to maintain an IT risk register, but rather the data that are used as inputs or outputs of the IT risk management process. Risk tolerance is the acceptable variation in the outcomes related to specific objectives or risks. Risk tolerance is used to measure the IT risk analysis and to guide the IT risk response. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the IT risks across theorganization. Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment is used topopulate the IT risk register and to inform the IT risk response. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite is used to guide the IT risk analysis and to align the IT risk response. References =
Risk Register - ISACA
Risk Analysis - ISACA
Risk Register 2021-2022 - UNECE
[How To Conduct Business Impact Analysis in 8 Easy Steps - G2]
[Risk Appetite and Risk Tolerance - ISACA]
[Enterprise Risk Assessment - ISACA]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?
Risk practitioner
Risk owner
Control owner
Control implementer
Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?
Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.
The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.
Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.
Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.
The observation from a third-party service provider review that would be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner is that the service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter, as it indicates a significant performance issue or breach that may affect the quality, functionality, or security of the outsourced services, and may require a remediation or escalation action. The other options are not the greatest concerns, as they may not indicate a performance issue or breach, but rather a contractual, personnel, or financial issue, respectively, that may not affect the outsourced services directly or significantly. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following would be MOST relevant to stakeholders regarding ineffective control implementation?
Threat to IT
Number of control failures
Impact on business
Risk ownership
Ineffective control implementation can result in increased risk exposure, reduced compliance, and diminished performance for the organization. Therefore, the most relevant information for stakeholders is the impact of ineffective control implementation on the business objectives, processes, and outcomes. The impact on business can include financial losses, reputational damage, operational inefficiencies, customer dissatisfaction, and legal liabilities. The other options are not as relevant as the impact on business, because they do not directly link the control effectiveness to the business value. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2, page 128.
Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?
Cyber insurance
Cryptocurrency reserve
Data backups
End user training
The most effective way to limit the impact of a ransomware attack is to have data backups. Data backups are copies of the data that are stored in a separate location or device, and can be used to restore the data in case of a loss or corruption. Data backups can help to recover the data that is encrypted or deleted by the ransomware, and to avoid paying the ransom to the attackers. Data backups also help to reduce the downtime and disruption caused by the ransomware attack, and to maintain the business continuity and availability of the data. Cyber insurance, cryptocurrency reserve, and end user training are not the most effective ways to limit the impact of a ransomware attack, as they may not prevent or recover the data loss, and may incur additional costs or risks for the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.1.1.1, page 2281
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 657.
Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?
Monthly trend of information security-related incidents
Average time to identify critical information security incidents
Frequency of information security incident response plan testing
Percentage of high-risk security incidents
 The average time to identify critical information security incidents is the best indicator of effective information security incident management, as it measures how quickly the organization can detect and respond to the most severe threats to its information assets. The faster the organization can identify critical incidents, the lower the potential impact and damage they can cause. The average time to identify critical incidents also reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the monitoring and reporting mechanisms, as well as the awareness and training of the staff and stakeholders. The other options are not the best indicators of effective information security incident management, as they do not directly measure the performance or quality of the incident response process. The monthly trend of information security-related incidents may show the frequency or severity of the incidents, but not how well they are managed. The frequency of information security incident response plan testing may show the preparedness or maturity of the organization, but not the actual effectiveness of the plan. The percentage of high-risk security incidents may show the risk exposure or appetite of the organization, but not the risk mitigationor treatment. References = 7 Types of Information Security Incidents and How to Respond; Annex A.16: Information Security Incident Management - ISMS.online; CISM Isaca Exam Questions and Answers - CertLibrary.com
A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Report the incident.
Plan a security awareness session.
Assess the new risk.
Update the risk register.
According to the CRISC exam content outline2, one of the tasks of a risk practitioner is to “report on risk, in line with organizational reporting requirements, to enable decision making andescalationâ€. Therefore, the first thing that the risk practitioner should do after discovering apolicy violation is to report the incident to the appropriate authority, such as the IT security manager or the risk management committee. This will ensurethat the incident is properly documented, investigated, and resolved, and that any potential impact or consequences are minimized.
The other options are not the first actions that the risk practitioner should take. Planning a security awareness session (B) may be a preventive measure to avoid future incidents, but it does not address the current one. Assessing the new risk © may be part of the risk response process, but it should be done after reporting the incident and gathering more information. Updating the risk register (D) may be a result of the risk assessment and response, but it should not be done before reporting the incident and following the organizational procedures.
Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?
Validating employee social media accounts and passwords
Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations
Disabling social media access from the organization's technology
Implementing training and awareness programs
The best way to mitigate the risk of reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees is to implement training and awareness programs that educate them on the acceptable andunacceptable use of social media, the potential consequences of violating the policy, and the best practices for protecting the organization’s reputation and information. Training and awareness programs can also help to foster a culture of risk awareness and responsibility among employees, and encourage them to report any incidents or issues related to social media use. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.4, page 131.
Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?
Audit findings
Risk appetite
Key risk indicators
Industry best practices
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite provides the most important information to facilitate a risk response decision, because it reflects the organization’s risk tolerance, preferences, and expectations, which guide the selection and implementation of the risk response strategies. Risk appetite helps the organization to balance the potential benefits and costs of taking risks, and to align the risk management process with the organizational strategy and culture. The other options are not as important as risk appetite, because they do not indicate the organization’s desired level of risk exposure, but rather provide supplementary or partial information for the risk response decision, as explained below:
A. Audit findings are the results and recommendations of the internal or external audit activities that evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control processes. Audit findings provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can identify the gaps or weaknesses in the current risk response strategies, and suggest corrective actions or improvements. However, audit findings do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the optimal risk response strategies.
C. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the impact and likelihood of the risks, and provide early warning signs of changes in the risk exposure. KRIs provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can monitor and report the performance and effectiveness of the current risk response strategies, and trigger corrective actions or adjustments.However, KRIs do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the acceptable level of risk exposure and performance.
D. Industry best practices are the standards, norms, and expectations for risk management that are established and followed by the peers or competitors in the same industry or sector. Industry best practices provide useful information to facilitate a risk response decision, because they can benchmark and compare the organization’s risk response strategies with those of the leading or successful organizations, and identify areas for improvement or innovation. However, industry best practices do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite, which is the basis for determining the unique and customized risk response strategies that suit the organization’s needs and goals. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40. Risk Appetite: What It Is and How to Use It, Risk Appetite: How Hungry Are You?, Risk Appetite: The Strategic Balancing Act
Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?
Privileged user activity monitoring controls
Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios
Recent audit findings of control weaknesses
A list of critical security processes
 Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that provide information on the extent to which a given control is meeting its intended objectives in terms of loss prevention, reduction, etc. In order to provide such information, the control effectiveness indicator has to have an explicit relationship to both the specific control and to the specific risk against which the control has been implemented1. Therefore, the best source for identifying KCIs is to use controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios, which can help define the control objectives, the expectedoutcomes, and the relevant indicators for each risk scenario. This approach can also help align the KCIs with the organizational goals and strategy, and enable the monitoring and reporting of the control effectiveness23.
The other options are not the best sources for identifying KCIs, because:
Privileged user activity monitoring controls are specific types of controls that aim to prevent unauthorized access or misuse of sensitive data or systems by privileged users. They are not a sourcefor identifying KCIs, but rather a possible subject of KCIs. For example, a KCI for this type of control could be the number of privileged user accounts that have not been reviewed or revoked within a specified period4.
Recent audit findings of control weaknesses are useful for identifying the gaps or deficiencies in the existing control environment, and for recommending corrective actions or improvements. However, they are not a source for identifying KCIs, but rather an input for evaluating or revising the existing KCIs. For example, if an audit finding reveals that a control is not operating as intended, or that a KCI is not providing reliable or timely information, then the control or the KCI may need to be modified or replaced5.
A list of critical security processes is a high-level overview of the key activities or functions that are essential for maintaining the security of the organization’s assets and information. It is not a source for identifying KCIs, but rather a starting point for defining the control objectives and requirements. For example, a critical security process could be incident response, which requires a set of controls to ensure the timely and effective detection, containment, analysis, and recovery of security incidents. The KCIs for this process could be the number of incidents detected, the average time to resolve incidents, or the percentage of incidents that resulted in data breaches6.
References =
Key Control Indicator (KCI) - CIO Wiki
How to Develop Key Control Indicators to Improve Security Risk Monitoring - Gartner
Indicators - Program Evaluation - CDC
Privileged User Monitoring: What Is It and Why Is It Important? - LogRhythm
Internal Audit Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) - AuditBoard
Hierarchy of Controls - NIOSH - CDC
Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?
Perform a business case analysis
Implement compensating controls.
Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)
Build a provision for risk
The best approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency is to implement compensating controls. A control deficiency is a situation where a control is missing, ineffective, or inefficient, and cannot provide reasonable assurance that the objectives or requirements are met. A compensating control is a control that provides an alternative or additional measure of protection when the primary or preferred control is not feasible or effective. A compensating control can help to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk associated with the control deficiency, and maintain the compliance or performance level. The other options are not as effective as implementing compensating controls, as they are related to the analysis, assessment, or provision of the risk, not the mitigation of the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using IT risk scenarios?
They support compliance with regulations.
They provide evidence of risk assessment.
They facilitate communication of risk.
They enable the use of key risk indicators (KRls)
The greatest benefit of using IT risk scenarios is that they facilitate communication of risk, as they provide a clear and realistic description of the risk sources, events, impacts, and responses, and enable the stakeholders to understand and appreciate the risk exposure and appetite of the organization. Supporting compliance with regulations, providing evidence of risk assessment, and enabling the use of key risk indicators (KRIs) are also benefits of using IT risk scenarios, but they are not the greatest benefit, as they are more related to the outcomes or consequences of risk communication, rather than the process or value of risk communication. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 100.
Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?
Background checks
Awareness training
User access
Policy management
Awareness training is the most likely control that failed in this scenario, as it is designed to educate employees on the proper handling and protection of sensitive data, and the consequences of violating the organizational policy. Awareness training can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence of human errors, such as inadvertently removing a file from the premises, that may result in data loss or breach. The other options are not the most likely controls that failed, as they are either not directly related to the scenario or not sufficient to prevent the incident. Background checks are used to verify the identity, qualifications, and trustworthiness of potential or current employees, but they do not ensure that employees will always follow the policy or avoidmistakes. User access is used to restrict the access to information systems or resources based on the identity, role, or credentials of the user, but it does not prevent the user from copying or removing the data once they have access. Policy management is used to create, communicate, and enforce the organizational policy, but it does not ensure that employees will understand orcomply with the policy. References = Sensitive Data Essentials – The Lifecycle Of A Sensitive File; Personal data breach examples | ICO; How do I prevent staff accidentally sending personal information … - GCIT; 10 Ways to Protect Sensitive Employee Information; My personal data has been lost after a breach, what are my rights …
Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?
An incident resulting in data loss
Changes in executive management
Updates to the information security policy
Introduction of a new product line
Conducting a risk assessment is a critical process that helps organizations identify, evaluate, and prioritize risks that could impact their objectives. The introduction of a new product line is most likely to trigger the need for a risk assessment due to the following reasons:
Introduction of a New Product Line (Answer D):
Significance: Launching a new product involves significant changes to business processes, technologies, and possibly market dynamics. It introduces new elements that could affect the organization's risk profile.
Complexity and Uncertainty: New products often come with unknown risks and uncertainties. Understanding these risks is crucial to ensure they are managed effectively.
Impact on Operations: A new product can impact various facets of the organization, including production, supply chain, IT infrastructure, and customer support. Assessing risks helps in planning and mitigating potential disruptions.
Compliance and Regulatory Considerations: New products might have to comply with new regulations or standards, necessitating a review of associated risks.
Comparison with Other Options:
A. An incident resulting in data loss:
Purpose: While incidents like data loss are serious and require immediate response and investigation, they typically trigger incident management and post-incident reviews rather than a full risk assessment.
B. Changes in executive management:
Purpose: Changes in leadership can influence the strategic direction and priorities of the organization, but they do not inherently introduce new operational risks that necessitate an immediate risk assessment.
C. Updates to the information security policy:
Purpose: Policy updates are often based on previously identified risks and aim to mitigate them. They are more about adjusting controls rather than reassessing the risk landscape completely.
Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?
Application controls are manual.
Application development is outsourced.
Source code is escrowed.
Developers have access to production environment.
 The production environment is the environment where the application is deployed and used by the end users. The production environment should be protected from unauthorized or unintended changes that could compromise the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the application and its data. Developers have access to the production environment presents the greatest risk to an application, as it could allow them tobypass the change management process, introduce errors or vulnerabilities, or manipulate the application or its data for malicious purposes. The other options are not as risky as developers having access to the production environment, as they involve different aspects of the application lifecycle:
Application controls are manual means that the application relies on human intervention to perform some functions or validations, such as data entry, reconciliation, or authorization. This could increase the risk of human error, fraud, or inefficiency, but it does not directly affect the production environment.
Application development is outsourced means that the application is developed by a third party, such as a vendor or a contractor. This could increase the risk of quality issues, contractual disputes, or intellectual property rights, but it does not directly affect the production environment.
Source code is escrowed means that the source code of the application is deposited with a trusted third party, such as a lawyer or a bank. This could provide assurance and continuity in case the original developer is unable or unwilling to maintain or support the application, but it does not directly affect the production environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.1.1.1, pp. 144-145.
Which of the following would BEST enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT)?
Introducing control procedures early in the life cycle
Implementing loT device software monitoring
Performing periodic risk assessments of loT
Performing secure code reviews
 The BEST way to enable mitigation of newly identified risk factors related to internet of Things (loT) is to introduce control procedures early in the life cycle, because it can help to prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risk factors, and to ensure that the loT devices and systems are designed and developed with security and quality in mind. The control procedures should include requirements analysis, design review, testing, validation, and verification of the loT devices and systems. The other options are not as effective as introducing control procedures early in the life cycle, because:
Option B: Implementing loT device software monitoring is a good way to detect and respond to the risk factors related to loT, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors, which is the proactive and preventive approach. Software monitoring is a reactive and corrective measure that may not be able to prevent or reduce the occurrence or impact of the risk factors, especially if they are embedded in the hardware or firmware of the loT devices.
Option C: Performing periodic risk assessments of loT is a necessary way to identify and evaluate the risk factors related to loT, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors, which is the action-oriented and solution-focused approach. Risk assessment is an analytical and descriptive process that may not provide the specific and effective measures to address or mitigate the risk factors, especially if they are complex or dynamic.
Option D: Performing secure code reviews is a useful way to verify and improve the security and quality of the software of the loT devices and systems, but it does not enable mitigation of the risk factors related to loT, which may involve more than just the software aspect. The risk factors related to loT may also include the hardware, firmware, network, communication, data, andintegration aspects, which may not be covered or resolved by the code reviews. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 214.
Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service
provider during a vendor risk assessment?
Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)
Independent audit report
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Service level agreement (SLA)
A vendor risk assessment is a process of evaluating and managing the risks associated with outsourcing IT services or functions to a third-party provider, such as a cloud service provider.
One of the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment is an independent audit report. This is a report that provides an objective and reliable assurance on the quality, security, and performance of the cloud service provider’s operations, processes, and controls, based on the standards and criteria established by an independent auditor or a recognized authority, such as ISACA, ISO, NIST, etc.
An independent audit report helps to verify the compliance and effectiveness of the cloud service provider’s risk management practices, identify any gaps or issues that may affect the service delivery or security, and recommend improvements or corrective actions.
The other options are not the most important documents to request from a cloud service provider during a vendor risk assessment. They are either secondary or not essential for vendor risk management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 22
Information Technology & Security, page 16
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 14
Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?
Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls
Considering risk that can be shared with a third party
Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios
Risk appetite is the broad-based amount of risk that an organization is willing to accept in its activities. Risk appetite reflects the level of risk that the organization is prepared to take to achieve its strategic goals, and provides guidance and boundaries for the risk management activities and decisions. The best way to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk is to prioritize and address risk in line with risk appetite, which means that the organization should identify, assess, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that are within or exceed the risk appetite, and allocate the resources and efforts accordingly. By doing so, the organization can optimize its risk-return trade-off, align its risk exposure with its strategic objectives, and enhance its risk culture and performance. References = 5
A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?
Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives
Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner
Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners
Assessing noncompliance with control best practices
A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. This indicates that there is a risk of ineffective or inefficient implementation or operation of the control, which may expose the organization to potential threats or losses.
The best way to assist in making a recommendation to management is to assess the degree to which the control hinders business objectives. This means that the risk practitioner should analyze the impact of the control on the performance, productivity, quality, or customer satisfaction of the business processes or functions that are affected by the control.
Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives helps to identify the root causes of noncompliance, the costs and benefits of compliance, and the potential alternatives or improvements for the control. It also helps to communicate the value and importance of the control to the management and the stakeholders, and to obtain their support and commitment for the control compliance.
The other options are not the best ways to assist in making a recommendation to management. They are either secondary or not essential for control compliance.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 19
Information Technology & Security, page 13
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 11
During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval
Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.
Identify an owner for the new control.
Modify the action plan in the risk register.
A risk mitigation action plan is a document that specifies the actions to be taken to address the identified risks, the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. The risk owner is the person who has the authority and accountability to manage the risk and its response. The risk practitioner is the person who supports the risk owner in the risk management process. The best course of action for the risk practitioner when the manager of a risk mitigation action plan is replaced and a new control is implemented is to communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval. This will ensure that the risk owner is aware of the change, agrees with the new control, and approves the modification of the action plan. The other options are not the best course of action, as they may not involve the risk owner, who is ultimately responsible for the risk and its response. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?
Regular employee security awareness training
Sensitive information classification and handling policies
Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices
An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)
Regular security awareness training educates employees about the importance of data protection and the potential consequences of unintentional disclosures. By increasing awareness, employees are more likely to recognize and avoid actions that could lead to data breaches, such as phishing attacks or mishandling sensitive information.
Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?
Heat map
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Balanced Scorecard
Risk register
The best tool for communicating strategic risk priorities is a heat map. A heat map is a graphical representation of the risk profile of an enterprise, showing the likelihood and impact of various risks on a matrix. A heat map can help to highlight the most significant risks that require attention, as well as the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the enterprise. A heat map can also facilitate the comparison of risks across different business units, processes, or objectives, and enable the communication of risk information to stakeholders in a clear and concise manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1, page 240.
A violation of segregation of duties is when the same:
user requests and tests the change prior to production.
user authorizes and monitors the change post-implementation.
programmer requests and tests the change prior to production.
programmer writes and promotes code into production.
 A violation of segregation of duties is when the same person performs two or more conflicting tasks that could compromise the security or integrity of a system or process. In the context of IT risk management, segregation of duties aims to prevent fraud, errors, sabotage, theft, misuse of information, and other security breaches. One of the common categories of functions to be separated is the authorization function, which involves evaluating and approving transactions or changes. Another category is the custody function, which involves managing or accessing physical or digital assets. A programmer who writes and promotes code into production is performing both the authorization and the custody functions, which creates a high-risk conflict.The programmer could introduce malicious or erroneous code into the system without proper review or approval, and potentially cause harm to the organization or its stakeholders. Therefore, this scenario is a violation of segregation of duties. References =
Segregation of Duties: Examples of Roles, Duties & Violations
Separation of duties - Wikipedia
Segregation of duties: prevent fraud and error - eftsure
Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?
Risk response plans are documented
Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.
Key risk indicators are defined.
Risk ownership is assigned
The most important characteristic of an effective risk management program is that risk ownership is assigned. Risk ownership is the accountability and authority to manage a risk1. Assigning risk ownership means identifying and assigning the person or entity who is responsible for evaluating, treating, monitoring, and reporting on a specific risk2. Assigning risk ownership is essential for ensuring that the risk management program works effectively and efficiently, as it helps to:
Clarify the roles and responsibilities of the different functions or groups involved in risk management and internal control;
Ensure that the risks are managed in accordance with the organization’s objectives, strategies, and risk appetite;
Provide guidance and support to the risk owners in identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks;
Monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk owners and the risk response actions;
Communicate and report on the risk status and issues to the relevant stakeholders and authorities. The other options are not the most important characteristic of an effective risk managementprogram, as they are either less relevant or less specific than assigning risk ownership. Risk response plans are documented. This option is a consequence or outcome of an effective risk management program, not a characteristic of it. Risk response plans are the actions or measures that are taken to modify the risk, such as reducing, avoiding, transferring, or accepting the risk3. Documenting risk response plans means recording and maintaining the details and outcomes of the risk responseactions, such as the objectives, scope, resources, timelines, performance indicators, and results4. Documenting risk response plans can help to improve the consistency and transparency of the risk management process, as well as to support the monitoring and evaluation of the risk response actions. However, documenting risk response plans is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not address the accountability and authority for managing the risk. Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios. This option is a specific or narrow example of an effective risk managementprogram, not a general or broad characteristic of it. Controls are the measures or actions that are taken to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk, or to increase the likelihood or impact of an opportunity5. Mapping controls to key risk scenarios means linking the controls to the specific situations or events that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance6. Mapping controls to key risk scenarios can help to enhance the design and implementation of the controls, as well as to evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls in mitigating the risk. However, mapping controls to key risk scenarios is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not cover the other aspects of risk management, such as risk identification, assessment, treatment, and monitoring. Key risk indicators are defined. This option is a component or element of an effective risk management program, not a characteristic of it. Key risk indicators are the metrics that measure thelevel and trend of a risk that may affect the organization’s objectives, operations, or performance7. Defining key risk indicators means establishing and maintaining the criteria and methods for measuring and reporting on the risk8. Defining key risk indicators can help to enhance the risk identification, assessment, and reporting processes, as well as to support the risk decision making and prioritization. However, defining key risk indicators is not the most important characteristic of an effective risk management program, as it does not indicate the accountability and authority for managing the risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1, Page 85.
An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?
Business benefits of shadow IT
Application-related expresses
Classification of the data
Volume of data
The most important input into the assessment of the risk of shadow IT usage is the classification of the data that is being processed, stored, or transmitted by the unauthorized applications or devices. This determines the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability that is required for the data and the potential impact of a breach or loss. Business benefits of shadow IT, application-related expenses, and volume of data are less important inputs that may affect the risk analysis, but not as much as the data classification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 28; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 98.
Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit?
Interview control owners.
Observe the control enhancements in operation.
Inspect external audit documentation.
Review management's detailed action plans.
 A control is an action or measure that reduces the likelihood or impact of a risk to an acceptable level. A control issue is a problem or weakness that affects the effectiveness or efficiency of a control, such as a gap, deficiency, or failure. A control enhancement is an improvement or modification that increases the effectiveness or efficiency of a control, such as by adding, replacing, or updating the control. An external audit is an independent and objective examination of the enterprise’s activities, processes, or systems, such as the risk management program or thecontrol environment, by an external party, such as a regulator or a third-party auditor. The best way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit is to observe the control enhancements in operation. This will enable the risk practitioner to evaluate the actual performance and outcome of the control enhancements, and to determine whether they have resolved or mitigated the control issues. The other options are not the best way to verify that management has addressed control issues, as they involve different methods or sources of verification:
Interview control owners means that the risk practitioner asks questions or collects feedback from the persons or groups who have the authority and accountability to manage the controls and their issues, such as the business process owners or the IT controls managers. This may provide some information or evidence on the control enhancements, but it may not be as reliable orobjective as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the control owners may have biases, conflicts, or gaps in their knowledge or perception of the control enhancements.
Inspect external audit documentation means that the risk practitioner reviews the reports or records of the external audit, such as the audit findings, recommendations, or opinions. This may provide some information or evidence on the control issues, but it may not be as current or relevant as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the external audit documentation may not reflect the latest or updated status or results of the control enhancements, or may not cover all the aspects or components of the control enhancements.
Review management’s detailed action plans means that the risk practitioner examines the documents that specify the actions to be taken by the management to address the control issues, such as the resources required, the timelines, the owners, and the expected outcomes. This may provide some information or evidence on the control enhancements, but it may not be as accurate or sufficient as observing the control enhancements in operation, as the management’s detailed action plans may not match the actual implementation or execution of the control enhancements, or may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the control enhancements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.1, pp. 62-63.
Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?
Updating multi-factor authentication
Monitoring key access control performance indicators
Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity
Revising the service level agreement (SLA)
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), monitoring key access control performance indicators is the best way to provide an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA), as it measures the effectiveness and efficiency of the access control process and its alignment with the SLA objectives and requirements. The SLA is a contract that defines the expectations and responsibilities of the service provider and the service recipient in terms of the quality, availability, and scope of the service. Monitoring key access control performance indicators helps to:
Evaluate the extent to which the access control process has met the SLA targets and standards
Identify and report any deviations, errors, or breaches in the access control process and its compliance with the SLA
Recommend and implement corrective actions or improvement measures to address the issues or findings in the access control process
Communicate and coordinate the monitoring results and recommendations with the relevant stakeholders, such as the service provider, the service recipient, and the senior management
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: IT Risk Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: IT Risk Monitoring, pp. 217-2181
An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?
Recommend rejection of the initiative.
Change the level of risk appetite.
Document formal acceptance of the risk.
Initiate a reassessment of the risk.
Formal acceptance of the risk is critical when the risk exposure exceeds the risk appetite, as it ensures accountability and acknowledges the decision at the appropriate level. Documenting acceptance involves communicating the potential impacts and obtaining agreement from senior stakeholders. This process aligns with theRisk Response and Reportingdomain in CRISC, emphasizing clear documentation and communication of risks for decision-making.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?
Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.
Communicate to those who test and promote changes.
Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.
Assess the maturity of the change management process.
A change management process is a set of procedures and activities that ensure that any changes to the IT systems or applications are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner.
A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. This means that the process has been improved or modified to include new or additional steps or methods for verifying and validating the changes before they are deployed to the production environment.
The next course of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures is to communicate to those who test and promote changes. This means that the change management team or function should inform and educate the people who are involved or affected by the changes, such as the developers, testers, users, customers, etc., about the new testing procedures, their purpose, benefits, requirements, and expectations.
Communicating to those who test and promote changes helps to ensure that the new testing procedures are understood and followed by all the parties, that the changes are tested and promoted in accordance with the process standards and criteria, and that the changes are delivered with the expected quality and performance.
The other options are not the next courses of action after updating the change management process with new testing procedures. They are either secondary or not essential for change management.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 27
Information Technology & Security, page 21
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 19
Some risk remediation activities from the last assessment are still in progress.
The risk scenarios have never been updated.
The risk scenario development process was led by an external consultant.
The number of risk scenarios is very high.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Risk scenarios must be regularly reviewed and updated to remain relevant, especially given changing threat landscapes and business processes. A set of scenarios developed five years ago without update is likely outdated and may fail to capture current risks effectively. Ongoing remediation and external involvement are not inherently concerns if properly managed. The number of scenarios depends on scope and is less critical than currency and relevanceã€5:7, 5:256, 5:168†CRISC_SentenceinNOTE30.pptx】.
Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?
Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.
Review existing risk mitigation controls.
Conduct a gap analysis.
Perform a risk assessment.
A risk assessment is a process of measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their significance and urgency. A risk assessmentcan help the organization to understand and document the risks that may affect its objectives and operations, and to support the decision making and planning for the risk management.
Performing a risk assessment would be the most helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization’s current risk profile, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
What are the potential benefits and challenges of implementing the new technology system, and how do they align with the organization’s objectives and needs?
What are the existing or emerging risks that may affect the new technology system, and how do they relate to the organization’s current risk profile?
How likely and severe are the risks that may affect the new technology system, and what are the possible consequences or impacts for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the risks that may affect the new technology system be mitigated or prevented, and what are the available or feasible options or solutions?
Performing a risk assessment can help the organization to understand the impact of the new technology system on its current risk profile by providing the following benefits:
It can enable the comparison and evaluation of the current and desired state and performance of the organization’s risk management function, and to identify and quantify the gaps or opportunities for improvement.
It can provide useful references and benchmarks for the alignment and integration of the new technology system with the organization’s risk management function, and for the compliance with the organization’s risk policies and standards.
It can support the implementation and monitoring of the new technology system, and for the allocation and optimization of the resources, time, and budget for the new technology system.
The other options are not the most helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization’s current risk profile, because they do not provide the same level of detail and insight that performing a risk assessment provides, and they may not be specific or applicable to the organization’s objectives and needs.
Hiring consultants specializing in the new technology means engaging or contracting external experts or professionals that have the skills and knowledge on the new technology system, and that can provide advice or guidance on the implementation and management of the new technology system. Hiring consultants specializing in the new technology can help the organization to enhance its competence and performance on the new technology system, but it is not the most helpful, because it does not measure and compare the likelihood and impact of the risks that may affect the new technology system, and it may not be relevant or appropriate for the organization’s current risk profile.
Reviewing existing risk mitigation controls means examining and evaluating the adequacy and effectiveness of the controls or countermeasures that are intended to reduce or eliminate the risksthat may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Reviewing existing risk mitigation controls can help the organization to improve and optimize its risk management function, but it is not the most helpful, because it does not identify and prioritize the risks that may affect the newtechnology system, and it may not cover all the relevant or significant risks that may affect the new technology system.
Conducting a gap analysis means comparing and contrasting the current and desired state and performance of the organization’s objectives and operations, and identifying and quantifying the gaps or differences that need to be addressed or corrected. Conducting a gap analysis can help the organization to identify and document its improvement needs and opportunities, but it is not the most helpful, because it does not measure and compare the likelihood and impact of the risks that may affect the new technology system, and it may not be aligned or integrated with the organization’s current risk profile. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 208
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map BEST facilitates:
risk response.
control monitoring.
risk identification.
risk ownership.
 A risk heat map is a visualization tool that shows the likelihood and impact of different risks on a matrix, using colors to indicate the level of risk. A risk heat map can help prioritize the risks that need the most attention and resources, and support the decision making and planning process for risk management. Mapping open risk issues to an enterprise risk heat map best facilitates risk response, which is the process of selecting and implementing the appropriate actions to address the risks. Risk response can include strategies such as mitigating, transferring, avoiding, or accepting risks. By mapping open risk issues to a risk heat map, an organization can identify the most suitable risk response for each risk, based on the risk appetite, criteria, and objectives. A risk heat map can also help evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk response, by showing the change in the level of residual risk after the risk response has been executed. References = What Is a Risk Heat Map & How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy, What Is a Risk Heat Map, and How Can It Help Your Risk Management Strategy, Risk Map (Risk Heat Map), How To Use A Risk Heat Map.
An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?
Mitigate
Accept
Transfer
Avoid
The best risk response for an identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function with an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy is to accept the risk. Accepting the risk means acknowledging the risk but choosing not to take any specific action to address it. This strategy is suitable when the cost of implementing controls exceeds the potential loss, as in this scenario. The organization recognizes the risk, but the cost-benefit analysis suggests that the potential loss is acceptable given the higher cost of control. The other options are not the best risk responses, as they may not befeasible, practical, or cost-effective in this scenario. Mitigating the risk means reducing the risk by implementing controls or measures to minimize its potential impact, but this would increase the cost of control, which is already higher than the annual loss expectancy. Transferring the risk means shifting the risk to another party, typically through insurance or contracts, but this may not be possible or advisable for a critical, proprietary business function, and it may also increase the overall cost burden. Avoiding the risk means eliminating the risk entirely by not engaging in the activity that poses the risk, but this may disrupt essential business operations and potentially result in other adverse consequences. References = CRISC Exam:Best Risk Response for High Probability Risk Scenario; Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips; Chapter 19: Summarizing Risk Management Concepts
Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?
Comparative analysis of peer companies
Reviews of brokerage firm assessments
Interviews with senior management
Trend analysis using prior annual reports
Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, because it helps to obtain the direct and qualitative input and feedback from the senior management on their expectations and preferences regarding thelevel and type of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept or pursue, in relation to its objectives and strategy. Risk appetite is the amount and nature of risk that an enterprise is willing to take in order to achieve its objectives and create value. Risk appetite is influenced by factors such as the enterprise’s culture, values, vision, mission, and strategy, as well as the externalenvironment and stakeholders. Risk appetite may vary depending on the context and situation, and may change over time. Conducting interviews with senior management is the best method, as it helps to understand and capture the current and explicit risk appetite of the enterprise, and to align the risk management process and activities with the senior management’s risk vision and direction. Conducting comparative analysis of peer companies, reviewing brokerage firm assessments, and performing trend analysis using prior annual reports are all possible methods for determining an enterprise’s current appetite for risk, but they are not the best method, as they may provide only indirect, quantitative, or historical information, and may not reflect the current and specific risk appetite of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.1, page 45
Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?
Risk management procedures
Senior management interviews
Benchmark analyses
Risk management framework
Senior management interviews would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization’s risk culture, because they can reveal the attitudes, values, beliefs, and behaviors of the seniormanagement towards risk management, and how they influence and support the risk management process and activities in the organization. Senior management interviews can also provide information on the risk appetite, tolerance, and objectives of the organization, and how they are communicated and implemented across the organization. The other options are not as insightful as senior management interviews, because:
Option A: Risk management procedures are the steps and methods that define how the risk management process and activities are performed in the organization, but they do not necessarily reflect the risk culture of the organization, which is more about the human and behavioral aspects of risk management.
Option C: Benchmark analyses are the comparisons of the performance and practices of the organization with those of similar or successful organizations, but they do not necessarily reflect the risk culture of the organization, which is more about the internal and unique aspects of risk management.
Option D: Risk management framework is the set of rules and standards that guide and support the risk management process and activities in the organization, but it does not necessarily reflect the risk culture of the organization, which is more about the leadership and commitment aspects of risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 82.
An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?
Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.
Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available
Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.
Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when there is a gap between the acceptable downtime and the actual recovery time of an application is to prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available to reduce the gap. The cost-benefit analysis should compare the costs of implementing different risk response options, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer or acceptance, with the benefits of reducing the impact and likelihood of the risk. The cost-benefit analysis should also consider the alignment of the risk response options with the enterprise’s risk appetite, business objectives and strategy. The cost-benefit analysis should help the application owner and the risk owner to select the most appropriate risk response option that optimizes the value of the application and minimizes the residual risk.
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 162-1631
it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?
The underutilization of the replicated Iink
The cost of recovering the data
The lack of integrity of data
The loss of data confidentiality
The lack of integrity of data is the greatest concern when replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Data integrity means that the data is accurate, complete, consistent, and reliable. If the replication failed, it means that the data in the primary and secondary databases may not be synchronized and may have discrepancies or errors. This could affect the quality and reliability of the data and the business processes that depend on it. The other options are not as concerning as the lack of integrity of data, as they are related to the efficiency, cost, or confidentiality of the data, which are less critical than the accuracy and reliability of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.2: Key Performance Indicators, page 183.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of a data custodian in the risk management process?
Performing periodic data reviews according to policy
Reporting and escalating data breaches to senior management
Being accountable for control design
Ensuring data is protected according to the classification
 The primary role of a data custodian in the risk management process is to ensure that data is protected according to the classification. A data custodian is a person or entity that has theresponsibility for implementing and maintaining the security controls for the data, such as access rights, encryption, backup, or disposal. A data custodian acts as an agent of the dataowner, who is the person or entity that has the authority and accountability for the data. A data custodian should ensure that data is protected according to the classification, which is the process of assigning a level of sensitivity and criticality to the data, based on the impact of its loss, disclosure, or modification. Data classification helps to determine the appropriate security controls and risk responses for the data, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, or contractual obligations. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 1271
Which of the following is the BEST way to address IT regulatory compliance risk?
Assign highest priority to remediation of related risk scenarios.
Prevent acceptance of related risk scenarios.
Conduct specialized business impact analyses (BIAs).
Manage risk like other types of operational risk.
Managing IT regulatory compliance risk in the same manner as other operational risks ensures a consistent and integrated approach to risk management. This involves identifying, assessing, mitigating, and monitoring compliance risks using the organization's established risk management framework. Such an approach promotes efficiency and ensures that compliance risks are not siloed but are considered within the broader context of enterprise risk management.
IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would
be MOST helpful?
IT risk register
List of key risk indicators
Internal audit reports
List of approved projects
A consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
The most helpful material to provide a consolidated view into the organization’s risk profile is the IT risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the IT-related risks, their sources, impacts, likelihoods, responses, owners, and statuses within the organization34.
The IT risk register is the most helpful material because it provides a complete and consistent overview of the IT risk landscape, and enables the identification, analysis, evaluation, treatment, monitoring, and communication of IT risks across the organization34.
The IT risk register is also the most helpful material because it supports the project prioritization and resource allocation decisions, by highlighting the most significant and relevant IT risks, and by showing the alignment of the IT risk responses with the organization’s risk appetite, strategy, and objectives34.
The other options are not the most helpful materials, but rather possible inputs or outputs of the IT risk register. For example:
A list of key risk indicators (KRIs) is a set of metrics that measure the occurrence or status of IT risks, and provide timely and relevant information and feedback to the organization56. However, a list of KRIs is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a snapshot or a trend of selected IT risks56.
Internal audit reports are documents that present the findings and recommendations of the internal audit function, which evaluates the adequacy and effectiveness of the IT risk management and control processes within the organization78. However, internal audit reports are not the most helpful material because they do not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a periodic and independent assessment of specific IT risk areas78.
A list of approved projects is a document that records and tracks the IT projects that have been authorized and funded by the organization, and their objectives, scope, schedule, budget, and status . However, a list of approved projects is not the most helpful material because it does not provide a comprehensive and integrated view of the IT risk profile, but rather a summary of the IT project portfolio . References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Risk Register Template, ISACA, 2019
4: IT Risk Register Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
5: KPIs for Security Operations & Incident Response, SecurityScorecard Blog, June 7, 2021
6: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) for Security Operations and Incident Response, DFLabs White Paper, 2018
7: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
8: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
IT Project Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
IT Project Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:
resources to monitor backups
restoration monitoring reports
backup recovery requests
recurring restore failures
The number of recurring restore failures is the best key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process, as it helps to evaluate the reliability and quality of the backup data and the backup system. A backup process is a process of creating and storing copies of data or systems to enable recovery in case of data loss, corruption, or disaster. A restore process is a process of retrieving and restoring the backup data or systems to the original or alternative location or state. A restore failure is an event that occurs when the restore processfails to complete successfully or correctly, due to various reasons, such as corrupted or missing backup data, incompatible or outdated backup system, or insufficient or unavailable resources. A recurring restore failure is a restore failure that happens repeatedly or frequently, indicating a persistent or systemic problem with the backup process.
The number of recurring restore failures helps to measure the effectiveness of the backup process by providing the following benefits:
It indicates the extent and magnitude of the backup process performance and quality issues, and the impact and severity of the backup process failures on the data or system availability and integrity.
It identifies and analyzes the root causes and contributing factors of the backup process failures, and the gaps or weaknesses in the backup process design, implementation, operation, or monitoring.
It provides feedback and learning opportunities for the backup process improvement and enhancement, and guides the development and implementation of corrective or preventive actions.
It communicates and reports the backup process status and results to the relevant stakeholders, and supports the alignment of the backup process with the organizational strategy and objectives.
The other options are not the best key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process. The number of resources to monitor backups is a measure of the inputs or costs of the backup process, but it does not indicate the outputs or benefits of the backup process. The number of restoration monitoring reports is a measure of the documentation or communication of the backup process, but it does not reflect the actual or potential performance or quality of the backup process. The number of backup recovery requests is a measure of the demand or frequency of the backup process, but it does not evaluate the reliability or quality of the backup process. References = 12 Process KPIs to Monitor Process Performance in 2024 - AIMultiple, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Mastering RTO and RPO in Backup Strategies: A Key to Data Recovery Success
Which of the following BEST indicates that risk management is embedded into the responsibilities of all employees?
The number of incidents has decreased over time
Industry benchmarking is performed on an annual basis
Risk management practices are audited on an annual basis
Risk management practices are incorporated into business processes
Embedding risk management into day-to-day business processes reflects organizational maturity and integration. It ensures employees consider risk in operational decisions and continuously support the risk management framework.
Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for
sensitive data?
Assess the threat and associated impact.
Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels
Recommend device management controls
Enable role-based access control.
Assessing the threat and associated impact is the next thing that a risk practitioner should do after learning that Internet of Things (IoT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for sensitive data. This is because assessing the threat and associated impact can help determine the level and nature of the risk posed by the IoT devices, as well as the potential consequences and costs of a security breach or incident. Assessing the threat and associated impact can also provide the basis for further risk analysis and response steps, such as evaluating risk appetite and tolerance levels, recommending device management controls, or enabling role-based access control. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, assessing the threat and associated impact is one of the key steps in the IT risk assessment process1. According to the web search results, assessing the threat and associated impact is a common and recommended practice for addressing the security risks of IoT devices
Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?
Monitoring of high-risk areas
Classification of risk profiles
Periodic review of the risk register
Assignment of risk ownership
 A risk profile is a summary of the key risks that affect an organization, a business unit, a process, or a project. A risk profile can help stakeholders understand the current and potential exposure to various sources of uncertainty, and prioritize the risk response accordingly. Classification of risk profiles is the process of grouping and categorizing risks based on common characteristics, such as source, impact, likelihood, or response strategy. Classification of risk profiles can help communicate risk assessment results to stakeholders by providing a clear and consistent way of presenting and comparing risks across different domains, levels, or perspectives. Classification of risk profiles can also help identify patterns, trends, and interrelationships among risks, and facilitate the allocation of resources and responsibilities for risk management. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, Section 4.1: Risk Profile, p. 193-195.
Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?
Customizing content for the audience
Providing incentives to participants
Mapping to a recognized standard
Providing metrics for measurement
 The most important element of a successful risk awareness training program is customizing content for the audience, because this ensures that the training is relevant, engaging, and effective for the learners. Customizing content for the audience means tailoring the training materials and methods to suit the specific needs, preferences, and characteristics of the target group, such as their roles, responsibilities, knowledge, skills, attitudes, and learning styles. Customizing content for the audience can help to achieve the following benefits:
Increase the motivation and interest of the learners, as they can see the value and applicability of the training to their work and goals.
Enhance the comprehension and retention of the learners, as they can relate the training content to their prior knowledge and experience, and use examples and scenarios that are familiar and realistic to them.
Improve the transfer and application of the learners, as they can practice and apply the training content to their actual work situations and challenges, and receive feedback and support that are relevant and useful to them. References = Implementing risk management training and awareness (part 1) 1
Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?
Piloting courses with focus groups
Using reputable third-party training programs
Reviewing content with senior management
Creating modules for targeted audiences
The best approach to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training is to create modules for targeted audiences. This means that the risk awareness training should be customized and tailored to the specific needs, roles, and responsibilities of different groups of staff, such as business owners, process owners, IT staff, or external parties. Creating modules for targeted audiences helps to ensure that the risk awareness training is relevant, engaging, and applicable to the participants, and that it covers the appropriate level of detail and complexity. It also helps to enhance the learning outcomes and retention of the risk awareness training, and to foster aculture of risk awareness and responsibility within the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 2491
An organization plans to migrate sensitive information to a public cloud infrastructure. Which of the following is the GREATEST security risk in this scenario?
Data may be commingled with other tenants' data.
System downtime does not meet the organization's thresholds.
The infrastructure will be managed by the public cloud administrator.
The cloud provider is not independently certified.
The greatest security risk in this scenario is that data may be commingled with other tenants’ data on the public cloud infrastructure. Data commingling occurs when data from different sources or customers are mixed together without proper segregation or encryption. This may result in data leakage, unauthorized access, or loss of confidentiality and integrity. Data commingling is a common challenge in public cloud environments, where multiple customers share the same physical resources and network. System downtime, infrastructure management, and cloud provider certification are also potential risks in this scenario, butthey are not as great as data commingling. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1.1, page 2451
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 638.
Risk mitigation procedures should include:
buying an insurance policy.
acceptance of exposures
deployment of counter measures.
enterprise architecture implementation.
Risk mitigation procedures are the actions and plans that an organization implements to reduce the likelihood and impact of identified risks. Risk mitigation procedures should include the deployment of counter measures, which are the specific controls or solutions that address the root causes or sources of the risks, and prevent or minimize the potential losses or damages. For example, a counter measure for therisk of data breach could be encrypting the data or implementing a firewall. The deployment of counter measures should be based on a cost-benefit analysis, a risk assessment, and a risk response strategy. The other options are not necessarily part of risk mitigation procedures. Buying an insurance policy is an example of risk transfer,which is a risk response strategy that shifts the responsibility or burden of the risk to another party, such as an insurer or a vendor. However, risk transfer does not eliminate or reduce the risk itself, and it may involve additional costs or conditions. Acceptance of exposures is an example of risk acceptance, which is a risk response strategy that acknowledges the existence and consequences of the risk, and decides not to take any action to change the risk situation. However, risk acceptance does not mitigate the risk, and it may require contingency plans or reserves to deal with the potential outcomes. Enterprise architecture implementation is an example of a business process or project that may involve or create risks, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. Enterprise architecture is the design and structure of an organization’s IT systems, networks, and resources, and how they align with the organization’s goals and strategies. Enterprise architecture implementation may require risk management activities, such as risk identification, assessment, and response, but it is not a risk mitigation procedure itself. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 151
Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of fraudulent activity that occurs through use of a digital wallet?
Require multi-factor authentication (MFA) to access the digital wallet.
Use a digital key to encrypt the contents of the wallet.
Enable audit logging on the digital wallet's device.
Require public key infrastructure (PKI) to authorize transactions.
Requiring MFA increases the security of digital wallets by adding an additional layer of authentication, making it harder for unauthorized users to gain access. This aligns withAccess Control Standardsand significantly reduces the likelihood of fraud.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?
To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)
To protect information assets
To facilitate risk assessments
To manage information asset licensing
An information asset inventory is a list of all the information assets that an organization owns or uses. It includes information such as the asset name, description, owner, location, classification,value, and dependencies. The primary objective of maintaining an information asset inventory is to provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs), which are used to identify the criticality and recovery priorities of information assets in the event of a disruption. By having an updated and accurate information asset inventory, an organization can ensure that the BIAs reflect the current state and needs of the business processes that rely on the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 74.
Which of the following should be determined FIRST when a new security vulnerability is made public?
Whether the affected technology is used within the organization
Whether the affected technology is Internet-facing
What mitigating controls are currently in place
How pervasive the vulnerability is within the organization
 When a new security vulnerability is made public, the first step is to determine whether the affected technology is used within the organization. This will help to assess the impact and exposure of the vulnerability on the organization’s assets, processes, and objectives. If the affected technology is not used within the organization, then the vulnerability does not pose a direct threat and no further action is required. However, if the affected technology is used within the organization, then the next steps are to identify the systems and components that are vulnerable, evaluate the severity and likelihood of the vulnerability being exploited, and implement appropriate mitigating controls or remediation actions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2.1, p. 240-241
Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?
Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
Segregation of duties
Communication plan
Critical asset inventory
The most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization is the communication plan. A communication plan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources for communicating with the internal and external stakeholders before, during, and after a business continuity event. A communication plan helps to ensure that the relevant and accurate information is delivered to the appropriate parties in a timely and consistent manner, and that the feedback and responses are received and addressed accordingly. A communication plan also helps to maintain the trust, confidence, and reputation of the organization, and to comply with the legal or regulatory requirements. A communication plan is the most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program, because it helps to prepare and educate the employees on how to communicate effectively and efficiently in a business continuity event, and how to avoid or minimize the communication errors, gaps, or conflicts that could affect the business continuity performance and recovery. The other options are not as important as the communication plan, although they may also be covered in a business continuity awareness training program. Recovery time objectives (RTOs), segregation of duties, and critical asset inventory are all factors that could affect the business continuity planning and implementation, but they are notthe most important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program. References = 6
A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?
An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities
A web-based service provider is an organization that offers online services or applications to its customers or users, such as e-commerce, social media, cloud computing, etc. A web-based service provider depends on the availability, reliability, and security of its web servers, networks, and systems to deliver its services or applications.
A low risk appetite for system outages means that the organization is not willing to accept a high level or frequency of system outages, which are interruptions or disruptions in the normal operation or functionality of the web servers, networks, or systems. System outages can cause customer dissatisfaction, revenue loss, reputation damage, or legal liability for the web-based service provider.
A current risk profile for online security is the current state or condition of the online security risks that may affect the web-based service provider’s objectives and operations. It includes the identification, analysis, and evaluation of the online security risks, and the prioritization and response to them based on their significance and urgency.
The most relevant observation to escalate to senior management is an increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks, which are malicious attacks that aim to overwhelm or overload the web servers, networks, or systems with a large volume or frequency of requests or traffic, and prevent them from responding to legitimate requests or traffic. An increase in attempted DDoS attacks indicates a high likelihood and impact of system outages, and a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security. Escalating this observation to senior management can help them to understand the severity and urgency of the risk, and to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocation of resources.
The other options are not the most relevant observations to escalate to senior management, because they do not indicate a high likelihood or impact of system outages, and they may not be relevant or actionable for senior management.
An increase in attempted website phishing attacks means an increase in malicious attempts to deceive or trick the web-based service provider’s customers or users into providing their personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, etc., by impersonating the web-based service provider’s website or email. An increase in attemptedwebsite phishing attacks indicates a high level of threat or vulnerability for the web-based service provider’s online security, but it may not directly cause system outages, unless thephishing attacks are used to compromise the web servers, networks, or systems. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs) means a decrease in the extent or degree to which the web-based service provider meets or exceeds the agreed or expected standards or criteria for the quality, performance, or availability of its services or applications, as specified in the contracts or agreements with its customers or users. A decrease in achievement of SLAs indicates a low level of customer satisfaction, retention, or loyalty, and a low level of competitiveness or profitability for the web-based service provider. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval.
A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities means a decrease in the number or percentage of web security vulnerabilities that have been identified and resolved or mitigated by the web-based service provider. Web security vulnerabilities are weaknesses or flaws in the web servers, networks, or systems that can be exploited by malicious attackers to compromise or damage the web-based service provider’s online security. A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities indicates a low level of effectiveness or efficiency for the web-based service provider’s web security controls or processes. Escalating this observation to senior management may not be the most relevant, because it may not reflect the web-based service provider’s risk appetite for system outages, and it may not require senior management’s involvement or approval. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 161
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
A risk assessment of a production system is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the performance, quality, or safety of the production system, which is a system that transforms inputs into outputs using various resources, processes, and technologies12.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, which is a process of communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for the design, operation, and improvement of the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses that can prevent, mitigate, transfer, or accept the risks34.
This action is the most appropriate because it ensures the involvement and collaboration of the process owner, who has the authority and accountability to implement and monitor the risk responses, and who can provide feedback and input on the feasibility and effectiveness of the proposed measures34.
This action is also the most appropriate because it supports the risk management process and objectives, which are to identify and address the risks that may affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders34.
The other options are not the most appropriate actions, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may have some limitations or drawbacks. For example:
Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of the production system is an action that involves designing and planning a set of coordinated and interrelated activities and tasks that aim to reduce the likelihood or impact of the risks34. However, this action is notthe most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system, and who may have different views or preferences on the risk responses34.
Informing the development team of the concerns, and together formulating risk reduction measures is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the group of people who are responsible for creating, testing, and deploying the products or services that are produced by the production system, and jointly developing possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involvethe process owner, who is the primary owner and user of the production system, and who may have different needs or expectations on the risk responses34.
Informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them is an action that involves communicating and consulting with the person who is responsible for managing and overseeing the IT resources, processes, and systems that support the production system, and suggesting possible risk responses34. However, this action is not the most appropriate because it does not involve the process owner, who is the main stakeholder and beneficiary of the production system, and who may have different requirements or constraints on the risk responses34. References =
1: Risk Assessment for the Production Process1
2: Risk Assessment for Industrial Equipment2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?
Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.
Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.
Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.
Analyze and update IT control assessments.
According to the ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control study guide and handbook, the control owners in the IT department should determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk after a restructuring and outsourcing of certain functions. This is because the restructuring and outsourcing may have changed the risk profile, the control environment, and the control activities of the IT department. The control owners should review the existing risk responses and evaluate if they are still appropriate, adequate, and efficient in mitigating the risks associated with the outsourced functions. The control owners should also monitor the performance and compliance of the service providers and ensure that the contractual obligations and service level agreements are met12
1: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Study Guide, 4th Edition, page 33 2: ISACA Risk and Information Systems Control Handbook, 1st Edition, page 25
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?
Aligning risk ownership and control ownership
Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures
Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans
Using a consistent method for risk assessment
A risk register is a document that records and tracks the information and status of the identified risks and their responses. It includes the risk description, category, source, cause, impact, probability, priority, response, owner, action plan, status, etc.
A risk scenario is a description or representation of a possible or hypothetical situation or event that may cause or result in a risk for the organization. A risk scenario usually consists of three elements: a threat or source of harm, a vulnerability or weakness, and an impact or consequence.
Multiple risk practitioners are the individuals or groups that are involved or responsible for the identification, analysis, evaluation, and communication of the risks and their responses. They may include the risk owners, risk managers, risk analysts, risk consultants, risk auditors, etc.
A single risk register is a risk register that is shared or used by multiple risk practitioners across the organization, and that contains the information and status of all the risks and their responses that are relevant or applicable to the organization.
The most important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register is using a consistent method for risk assessment, which is the process of determining the significance and urgency of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations. Risk assessment involves measuring and comparing the likelihood and impact of various risk scenarios, and prioritizing them based on their magnitude and importance.
Using a consistent method for risk assessment when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register ensures that the risk scenarios are captured and recorded in a uniform and standardized way, and that they are comparable and compatible with each other. It alsohelps to avoid or reduce the inconsistencies, discrepancies, or conflicts that may arise from the different perspectives, assumptions, or judgments of the multiple risk practitioners, and to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and validity of the risk register.
The other options are not the most important considerations when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register, because they do not address the main challenge or issue that may arise from the multiple risk practitioners capturing risk scenarios in a single risk register, which is the lack of consistency or standardization in the risk assessment method.
Aligning risk ownership and control ownership means ensuring that the individuals or groups that are accountable and responsible for the risks and their responses are clearly defined and assigned, and that they have the authority and resources to perform their roles and duties. Aligning risk ownership and control ownership is important when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register, but it is not the most important consideration, because it does not ensure that the risk scenarios are captured and recorded in a uniform and standardized way, and that they are comparable and compatible with each other.
Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures means establishing and implementing the processes and guidelines for communicating and sharing the information and status of the risks and their responses among the relevant stakeholders, and for escalating or transferring the risks and their responses to the appropriate levels or parties when necessary or required. Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures is important when multiple risk practitioners capture riskscenarios in a single risk register, but it is not the most important consideration, because itdoes not ensure that the risk scenarios are captured and recorded in a uniform and standardized way, and that they are comparable and compatible with each other.
Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans means updating and revising the actions or plans that are selected and implemented to address or correct the risks and their responses, based on the changes or developments that may occur in the risk environment or performance. Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans is important when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register, but it is not the most important consideration, because it does not ensure that the risk scenarios are captured and recorded in a uniform and standardized way, and that they are comparable and compatible with each other. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 178
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Whose risk tolerance matters MOST when making a risk decision?
Customers who would be affected by a breach
Auditors, regulators and standards organizations
The business process owner of the exposed assets
The information security manager
Whose risk tolerance matters most when making a risk decision depends on the context and the perspective of the decision-maker. However, in general, the business process owner of the exposed assets is the most important stakeholder to consider, as they are accountable for the risks and the outcomes of the risk decisions. The business process owner has the authority, responsibility, and knowledge to manage the risks that affect their business objectives, performance, and reputation. The business process owner also has the best understanding of the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization, and how to align the risk decisions with the organizational strategy and context. The other options are not the most important stakeholders to consider, although they may have some influence or interest in the risk decisions. Customers who would be affected by a breach are external stakeholders who may have different risk preferences and expectations than the organization, and who may not be fully aware of the risk exposure or mitigation options. Auditors, regulators, and standards organizations are alsoexternal stakeholders who may impose some requirements or constraints on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of involvement or impact as the business process owner. The information security manager is an internal stakeholder who may provide some technical expertise or guidance on the risk decisions, but who may not have the same level of authority or accountability as the business process owner. References = Risk Appetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; Principles of risk decision-making; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance; Five Factors to Consider When Establishing Risk Tolerance; Risk Tolerance - Overview, Factors, and Types of Tolerance
The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:
obtain the support of executive management.
map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.
identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.
document the disaster recovery process.
The primary goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services. A BIA is a process of assessing the potential impact and consequences of a disruption or interruption of the business activities, operations, or functions. A continuity planning processis a process of developing, implementing, and maintaining a plan to ensure the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions in the event of a disruption or interruption. The primary goal of conducting a BIA is to identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services, which are the business processes that are essential for the survival and success of the business, and the support services that are required to enable or facilitate the critical business processes, such as IT systems, human resources, facilities, or suppliers. Identifying critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services helps to determine the priorities and requirements for the continuity and recovery of the business activities, operations, or functions, and to select and implement the appropriate continuity andrecovery strategies and solutions. Obtaining the support of executive management, mapping the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources, and documenting the disaster recovery process are not the primary goals of conducting a BIA, as they are either the benefits or the outputs of the BIA process, and they do not address the primary need of assessing the impact and consequences of the business disruption or interruption. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?
SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.
Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.
The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.
An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.
Failure to utilize threat modeling during the design phase results in overlooked vulnerabilities. This highlights the importance ofProactive Threat Identificationin secure software development practices.
Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?
Regulatory compliance
Risk ownership
Best practices
Desired risk level
The most important factor to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program is the desired risk level, which is the level of risk that the organization aims to achieve in order to fulfill its objectives and strategy1. The desired risk level can help to:
Define and communicate the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives2.
Guide and align the risk identification, analysis, evaluation, and treatment processes, and ensure that the risks are consistent and proportional to the desired risk level3.
Measure and monitor the risk performance and outcome, and ensure that the actual risk level is within the desired risk level, or take corrective actions if needed4.
The other factors are not the most important to communicate to senior management, because:
Regulatory compliance is a necessary but not sufficient factor to communicate to senior management, as it ensures that the risk management program complies with the applicable laws, rules, or standards that govern the organization’s activities and operations5. However, regulatory compliance does not guarantee that the risk management program is relevant and useful for the organization’s specific objectives and strategy.
Risk ownership is a desirable but not essential factor to communicate to senior management, as it assigns the roles and responsibilities for managing the risks and implementing the risk responses to the appropriate individuals or entities within the organization. However, risk ownership does not ensure that the risk management program is effective and efficient in achieving the desired risk level.
Best practices are a useful but not critical factor to communicate to senior management, as they provide the guidelines and standards for designing and implementing the risk management program, based on the experience and knowledge of the industry or the profession. However, best practices do not ensure that the risk management program is suitable and feasible for the organization’s specific context and capabilities.
References =
Desired Risk Level - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Management Process - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring - CIO Wiki
Regulatory Compliance - CIO Wiki
[Risk Ownership - CIO Wiki]
[Best Practice - CIO Wiki]
[Risk Management - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?
Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.
Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.
Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.
Document the risk decision in the project risk register.
 Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite can be expressed in qualitative or quantitative terms, and can vary depending on the context and the stakeholder. Risk appetite should be defined and communicated by the senior management or the board of directors, and should guide the risk management decisions and actions throughout the organization. When a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite, the risk practitioner’s best course of action is to escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review, meaning that the risk practitioner should report the risk acceptance and its rationale to the project sponsor, who is the person or group that provides the resources and support for the project, and is accountable for its success. The project sponsor should review the risk decision and determine whether it is aligned with the organization’s objectives and strategy, and whether it requires any further approval oraction. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.3.1, p. 25-26
Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?
Implementing risk treatment plans
Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts
Establishing risk policies and standards
Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results
The primary risk management responsibility of the first line of defense is to implement risk treatment plans. The first line of defense is the operational management and staff who are directly involved in the execution of the business activities and processes. They are responsible for identifying, assessing, and responding to the risks that affect their objectives and performance. Implementing risk treatment plans means applying the appropriate risk response strategies and actions to address the identified risks, and monitoring and reporting the results and outcomes of the risk treatment. The other options are not as primary as implementing risk treatment plans, as they are related to the validation, establishment, or review of the risk management process, not the execution of the risk management process. References = Risk andInformation Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.1: IT Risk Management Process, page 15.
What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?
It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.
It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.
It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.
It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.
The main benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios is that it establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives. A top-down approach is a method of risk identification and analysis that starts with the organization’s strategic objectives and then identifies the potential risk events that could affect or prevent the achievement of those objectives. A top-down approach helps to establish the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives, because it links the risk scenarios to the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and it prioritizes the risk scenarios based on their impact and relevance to the organization’s objectives. A top-down approach also helps to align and communicate the risk scenarios with the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, and business units, and to facilitate the risk response and monitoring activities. The other options are not the main benefit of using a top-down approach, although they may be part of or derived from the top-down approach. Describing risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise, using hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise, and helping management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios are all activities or outcomes that could be performed or achieved by using a top-down approach, but they are not the primary purpose or result of the top-down approach. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 4-13.
Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?
Customer database manager
Customer data custodian
Data privacy officer
Audit committee
A data privacy officer is a role that is responsible for ensuring that the organization complies with the applicable laws, regulations, and standards regarding the collection, processing, storage, and disclosure of customer data1. A data privacy officer is also responsible for developing and implementing policies, procedures, and controls to protect the privacy and security of customer data, and to prevent or mitigate the risk of customer data loss2. A data privacy officer is the most helpful role in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A data privacy officer has the knowledge and expertise of the legal and ethical requirements and best practices for customer data protection, and can identify and assess the potential threats and vulnerabilities that may compromise customer data3.
A data privacy officer has the authority and accountability to oversee and monitor the customer data lifecycle, and to ensure that the organization follows the principles of data minimization, purpose limitation, accuracy, integrity, confidentiality, and accountability4.
A data privacy officer has the visibility and communication skills to report and advise the management and other stakeholders on the customer data risk profile, and to recommend and implement appropriate risk responses and improvement actions5.
The other options are not the most helpful roles in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss, because:
A customer database manager is a role that is responsible for designing, developing, maintaining, and optimizing the database systems that store and manage customer data6. A customer database manager may have some technical skills and knowledge to protect the customer data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion, but may not have the comprehensive or holistic view of the customer data risk, as they may focus only on the database level, and not on the organizational or regulatory level.
A customer data custodian is a role that is responsible for handling, processing, and storing customer data according to the instructions and permissions of the data owner7. A customer data custodian may have some operational duties and responsibilities to safeguard the customer data from accidental or intentional loss, damage, or disclosure, but may not have the strategic or analyticalview of the customer data risk, as they may follow only the predefined rules and procedures, and not the risk management principles and practices.
An audit committee is a group of independent directors or members that is responsible for overseeing and evaluating the organization’s financial reporting, internal control, and auditfunctions. An audit committee may have some oversight and assurance roles andresponsibilities to review and verify the organization’s compliance and performance regarding customer data protection, but may not have the direct or proactive view of the customer data risk, as they may rely only on the audit reports and findings, and not on the risk assessment and analysis.
References =
Data Privacy Officer - CIO Wiki
What is a Data Protection Officer (DPO)? - Definition from Techopedia
Data Privacy Officer: Roles and Responsibilities - ISACA
Data Protection Principles - CIO Wiki
Data Privacy Officer: How to Be One and Why You Need One - ISACA
Database Manager - CIO Wiki
Data Custodian - CIO Wiki
[Audit Committee - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Comprehensive security training of developers
Validated security requirements and design documents
Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)
Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements
Validated security requirements and design documents demonstrate that security considerations have been integrated into the SDLC from the outset. This proactive approach ensures that security is embedded into system architecture and design, reducing vulnerabilities and enhancing overall system resilience.
Which of the following provides the MOST helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Risk awareness
Risk policy
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation that management is willing to allow for any particular risk as it pursues its objectives. Risk tolerance provides a helpful reference point when communicating the results of a risk assessment to stakeholders, as it helps to compare the current level of risk exposure with the desired level of risk exposure, and to prioritize and allocate resources for risk response. Risk tolerance also helps to align the risk assessment results with the stakeholder expectations and preferences, and to facilitate risk-based decision making. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 192.
Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of reviewing the risk management process?
Assuring the risk profile supports the IT objectives
Improving the competencies of employees who performed the review
Determining what changes should be made to IS policies to reduce risk
Determining that procedures used in risk assessment are appropriate
The most important outcome of reviewing the risk management process is assuring that the risk profile supports the IT objectives, because this ensures that the organization is managing its IT-related risks in alignment with its business goals and priorities. The risk profile is a summary of the key risks that the organization faces, their likelihood, impact, and response strategies. The IT objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the organization expects to achieve from its IT investments and activities. Byreviewing the risk management process, the organization can evaluate whether the risk profile is accurate, complete, and up-to-date, and whether the risk responses are effective, efficient, and consistent with the IT objectives. The review can also identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and provide recommendations for enhancing the process and its outcomes. The review can also help to communicate and report the value and performance of the risk management process to the senior management, the board of directors, and other stakeholders. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 17
Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?
Human resources (HR) manager
System administrator
Data privacy manager
Compliance manager
The HR manager is the person or entity that has the authority and responsibility to collect, process, and protect the personal data of the employees in the organization. The HR managerhelps to manage the employee personal data, because they help to establish and enforce the data policies and standards for the employees, and to comply with the legal and regulatory requirements, such as the GDPR. The HR manager also helps to monitor and report on the data performance and compliance for the employees, and to identify and address any issues or gaps in the data management activities. The other options are not the best person to manage the employee personal data, although they may be involved in the process. System administrator, data privacy manager, and compliance manager are all examples of roles or functions that can help to support or implement the data management activities, but they do not necessarily have the authority or responsibility to collect, process, or protect the employee personal data
An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'
Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap
Highlight news articles about data breaches
Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss
Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy
A risk is the possibility of an event that may have a negative impact on the achievement of an organization’s objectives. A risk can be measured by the probability and impact of the event, which indicate the likelihood and consequence of the event. A risk manager is a person who is responsible for performing risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, treating, monitoring, and communicating risks. When an organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention, the risk manager’s best response to the business owner who challenges whether the situation is worth remediating is to evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss, which means to estimate thepotential harm or damage that may result from the non-compliance with the policy. By evaluating the risk as a measure of probable loss, the risk manager can provide the business owner with the rationale and justification for the risk remediation, and help the business owner to understand the cost-benefit analysis of the risk response. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 63.
Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management?
Promotion of a risk-aware culture
Compilation of a comprehensive risk register
Alignment of business activities
Facilitation of risk-aware decision making
Reporting risk assessment results to senior management is an essential part of risk communication, which is the process of sharing relevant and timely information about the risk exposure and risk management activities with the stakeholders. The most important benefit of reporting risk assessment results to senior management is to facilitate risk-aware decision making, which is the process of incorporating the risk information and analysis into the strategic and operational decisions of the organization. By reporting the risk assessment results, the risk practitioner can provide senior management with the insight and understanding of the current and potential risks, their likelihood and impact, their interrelationships and dependencies, and their alignment with the risk appetite and tolerance. This can help senior management to prioritize the risks, allocate the resources, select the risk responses, monitor the risk performance, and evaluate the risk outcomes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 105.
When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?
Sharing company information on social media
Sharing personal information on social media
Using social media to maintain contact with business associates
Using social media for personal purposes during working hours
The most important concern to address when formulating a social media policy to address information leakage is sharing company information on social media. Information leakage is the unauthorized or unintentional disclosure of confidential or sensitive information to unauthorized parties. Social media is a platform that enables the users to create and share content, such as text, images, videos, or links, with other users or the public. Sharing company information on social media is the most important concern, as it could expose the company’s trade secrets, intellectual property, customer data, financial data, or strategic plans to competitors, hackers, or regulators. Sharing company information on social media could also damage the company’s reputation, trust, or credibility, and result in legal or regulatory penalties, fines, or lawsuits. Therefore, a social media policy should clearly define what constitutes company information, and what are the rules and guidelines for sharing or not sharing company information on social media. A social media policy should also specify the roles and responsibilities of the employees, managers, and the social media team, and the consequences and sanctions for violating the policy. Sharing personal information on social media, using social media to maintain contact with business associates, and using social media for personal purposes during working hours are not as important as sharing company information on social media, as they do not directly involve the leakage of company information, and they may not have significant impact or risk on the company. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217
What should be the PRIMARY objective for a risk practitioner performing a post-implementation review of an IT risk mitigation project?
Documenting project lessons learned
Validating the risk mitigation project has been completed
Confirming that the project budget was not exceeded
Verifying that the risk level has been lowered
A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluate whether the objectives of the project were met and whether the project delivered the expected benefits and outcomes1. The primary objective of a risk practitioner performing a PIR of an IT risk mitigation project is to verify that the risk level has been lowered as a result of the project implementation2. This can be done by comparing the actual risk level with theexpected risk level, assessing the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation controls, and identifying any residual or emergingrisks3. Documenting project lessons learned, validating the project completion, and confirming the project budget are important aspects of a PIR, but they are not the primary objective for a risk practitioner, as they do not directly measure the impact of the project on the risk level4. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 5.4: Post-Implementation Review, pp. 239-241.
A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i< the MOST important topic to cover in this training?
Applying risk appetite
Applying risk factors
Referencing risk event data
Understanding risk culture
Applying risk appetite is the most important topic to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It is a key element of the risk management framework and influences the risk assessment process. Applying risk appetite helps to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization by providing a common basis for evaluating and prioritizing risks, aligning risk responses with business goals, and communicating risk information to stakeholders. The other options are not the most important topics to cover in a training session to communicate risk assessment methodologies, although they may be relevant and useful. Applying risk factors is a technique to quantify or qualify the likelihood and impact of risks based on predefined criteria or scales. Referencing risk event data is a source of information to identify and analyze risks based on historical or current incidents. Understanding risk culture is a factor that affectsthe risk behavior and attitude of the organization and its people. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 40-411; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 612
The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:
document the risk universe of the organization.
promote an understanding of risk across the organization.
enable well-informed risk management decisions.
identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.
The main purpose of a risk register is to enable well-informed risk management decisions by providing a comprehensive and up-to-date record of all the identified risks, their analysis, and their responses. A risk register is a tool that helps to document, monitor, and communicate the status and outcome of risk management activities. A risk register also facilitates the review and evaluation of the effectiveness of risk management processes and controls. Documenting the risk universe, promoting an understanding of risk,and identifying stakeholders are possible benefits of a risk register, but they are not the main purpose. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.1.3, page 531
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 640.
Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?
Perform a return on investment analysis.
Review the risk register and risk scenarios.
Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.
Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.
The maturity of organizational risk management refers to the degree to which risk management is embedded and integrated into the organization’s culture, processes, and decision-making1. A higher level of maturity implies that the organization has a clear and consistent understanding ofits risk appetite and tolerance, and that it can effectively identify, assess, respond, monitor, and communicate risks2.
The best way to address the issue of participants focusing on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response is to raise the maturity of organizational risk management. This can help to:
Ensure that risk management is aligned with the organization’s strategic objectives and values, and that risk responses are based on the potential impact and likelihood of risks, not just on the cost of mitigation
Foster a risk-aware culture that encourages proactive and collaborative risk management, and that recognizes and rewards good risk management practices
Provide adequate training and guidance for risk management roles and responsibilities, and ensure that risk management skills and competencies are developed and maintained
Implement a robust and consistent risk management framework, methodology, and tools that support the risk management process and enable continuous improvement and learning
Enhance the quality and reliability of risk information and reporting, and ensure that risk management performance and outcomes are measured and evaluated3
References = Risk Maturity Model - Wikipedia, Risk Maturity Model - ISACA, Risk Maturity Model - IRM
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?
To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels
To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives
To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures
To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts
Ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program is primarily to define effective enterprise IT risk appetite andtolerance levels. This understanding is essential for setting the boundaries within which the organization is willing to operate regarding IT risks.
Defining Effective IT Risk Appetite and Tolerance Levels (Answer A):
Purpose: Senior management needs to understand the range and nature of IT risks to set appropriate risk appetite and tolerance levels.
Impact: This enables the organization to make informed decisions about which risks to accept, mitigate, transfer, or avoid.
Alignment: It ensures that the IT risk management strategy is aligned with the overall business objectives and risk posture of the organization.
Comparison with Other Options:
B. To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives:
Purpose: While important, it follows the definition of risk appetite and tolerance.
Limitation: Without understanding the risk universe, execution may be misaligned.
C. To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures:
Purpose: Structural alignment is crucial but secondary to setting risk appetite and tolerance.
D. To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts:
Purpose: This is part of the ongoing process but not the primary purpose of understanding the risk universe.
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?
Percentage of business users completing risk training
Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed
Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined
Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response
 IT risk management is the process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the use of information technology (IT) in the organization. IT risk management aims to ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of IT resources and information, and to support the IT governance and strategy of the organization1.
The best indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes is the time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response. This indicator can help to measure how quickly and efficiently the organization can detect and respond to the IT risks, and how well the organization can prevent or minimize the negative impacts of the IT risks. The time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise’s response can include:
The time taken to identify and report the IT risk scenarios, using various methods and sources, such as risk assessments, audits, monitoring, alerts, or incidents
The time taken to analyze and evaluate the IT risk scenarios, using various tools and techniques, such as risk matrices, risk registers, risk indicators, or risk models
The time taken to select and implement the IT risk responses, using various strategies and controls, such as avoidance, mitigation, transfer, or acceptance
The time taken to review and improve the IT risk management processes, using various feedback and learning mechanisms, such as lessons learned, best practices, or benchmarks23
The other options are not the best indicators of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes, but rather some of the inputs or outputs of IT risk management processes. Percentage of business users completing risk training is an indicator of the awareness and competence of the IT users and providers, which can affect the IT risk management performance, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed is an indicator of the completeness and coverage of the IT risk management activities, which can affect the IT risk management outcomes, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined is an indicator of the scope and complexity of the IT risk management objectives, whichcan affect the IT risk management resources and capabilities, but it does not measure the IT risk management processes directly. References =
IT Risk Management - ISACA
Risk Management Process - ISACA
Risk Response - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?
Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)
Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)
Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)
Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)
The RPO defines how much data loss is acceptable during system failure. If not clearly defined, restoration may skip key data, leading to incomplete recovery. ISACA guidelines highlight that alignment of RPO/RTO with business objectives is critical for viable DR planning
An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.
Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.
Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.
Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.
Assessing the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision is the best recommendation for the risk practitioner, because it helps to balance the benefits and drawbacks of using real data for the proof of concept (POC) of a security tool. A POC is a demonstration or trial of a proposed solution or product to verify its feasibility, functionality, and value. A security tool is a software or hardware device that helps to protect the IT systems or networks from threats or attacks. Using production data for testing purposes can yield the best results, as it reflects the actual data that the security tool will handle in the operational environment. However, using production data for testing also poses risks, such as data leakage, data corruption, data privacy violation, or regulatory non-compliance. Therefore, assessing the risk ofusing production data for testing before making a decision is the best recommendation, as it helps to identify and evaluate the potential risks and issues, and to determine the appropriate controls or mitigating factors to reduce or eliminate them. Accepting the risk of using the production data, benchmarking against what peer organizations are doing, and denying the request are all possible recommendations, but they are not the best recommendation, as they do not consider the risk assessment process and the trade-offs involved in using production data for testing. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 208
An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.
Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.
Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.
Obtain certification to a global information security standard.
Which of the following BEST enables an organization to determine whether risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives?
The organization has approved policies that provide operational boundaries.
Organizational controls are in place to effectively manage risk appetite.
Environmental changes that impact risk are continually evaluated.
The organization has an approved enterprise architecture (EA) program.
According to the CRISC Review Manual, enterprise architecture (EA) is a comprehensive framework that defines the structure and operation of an organization, including its business processes, information systems, technology infrastructure, organizational structure, and strategic objectives2. An EA program is a set of principles, policies, standards, and guidelines that govern the development and implementation of the EA3. By having an approved EA program, an organization can ensure that its risk management is aligned with its goals and objectives, as the EA provides a clear and consistent vision of the desired state and direction of the organization, as well as the means to achieve and measure it4. The EA also helps to identify and prioritize the risks and opportunities that may affect the organization’s performance and resilience. The other options are not as effective or relevant as option D, as they do not directly relate to the alignment of risk management with organizational goals and objectives. Option A, having approved policies that provide operational boundaries, is more related to the governance and compliance of risk management, not its alignment. Option B, having organizational controls to manage risk appetite, is more related to the implementation and monitoring of risk management, not its alignment. Option C, continually evaluating environmental changes that impact risk, is more related to the identification and assessment of risk management, not its alignment.
Which of the following is MOST important to compare against the corporate risk profile?
Industry benchmarks
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Regulatory compliance
Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is an important component of the corporate risk profile, as it defines the boundaries and limits of the acceptable risk exposure for the organization. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can help to ensure that the organization’s risk strategy and objectives are aligned with its risk appetite and capacity, and that the organization is not taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Comparing the risk tolerance against the corporate risk profile can also help to monitor and adjust the risk management process and controls, and to optimize the risk-return trade-off. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 249. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 249. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 249. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following will BEST help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems?
Review the business impact analysis.
Create a business continuity plan.
Analyze previous disaster recovery reports.
Conduct a root cause analysis.
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), reviewing the business impact analysis (BIA) will best help an organization select a recovery strategy for critical systems, as it provides an assessment of the potential impact and consequences of a disruption to the organization’s critical business functions and processes. Reviewing the BIA helps to:
Identify and prioritize the critical systems and their dependencies that support the critical business functions and processes
Estimate the maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) and the recovery time objective (RTO) for each critical system
Evaluate the feasibility and cost-effectiveness of various recovery strategies and options for each critical system
Select the most appropriate recovery strategy and option for each critical system based on the organization’s objectives and requirements
Develop and implement the recovery plan and procedures for each critical system
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: Risk Response Options, pp. 174-1751
Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?
To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues
To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified
To ensure the project timeline is on target
To track the status of risk mitigation actions
Project risk register: A document that records the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and mitigation strategies for a project1.
Project steering committee: A group of senior stakeholders and experts who oversee and support a project from a higher level2.
Risk mitigation actions: The measures taken to prevent, reduce, or transfer the risks that may affect a project3.
The most important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee is to track the status of risk mitigation actions. Tracking the status of risk mitigation actions can help the project steering committee to:
Monitor and measure the performance and effectiveness of the risk management process and controls
Evaluate the progress and outcomes of the risk mitigation actions against the project goals and objectives
Identify and resolve any issues, challenges, or gaps in the risk mitigation actions
Provide guidance, feedback, and support to the project manager and the project team
Adjust or revise the risk mitigation actions as needed to reflect the changes in the project scope, schedule, budget, or environment
The other options are not the most important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee, although they may be relevant or beneficial. Allocating budget for resolution of risk issues, which means assigning financial resources to address and resolve the risks that may affect a project, may be a part of the risk management process, but it is not the primary purpose of presenting the project risk register, which is more focused on tracking and reporting the risk status and actions. Determining if new risk scenarios have been identified, which means finding out if there are any additional or emerging risks that may impact a project, may be a useful outcome of presenting the project risk register, but it is not the main objective, which is more concerned with tracking and reporting the existing risk status and actions. Ensuring the project timeline is on target, which means verifying that the project is progressing according to the planned schedule and milestones, may be a benefit of presenting the project risk register, but it is not the key objective, which is more related to tracking and reporting the risk status and actions.
References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana, Project Steering Committee: Roles, Best Practices, Challenges, Risk Mitigation: Definition, Strategies, and Examples
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?
Business impact analysis
Threat analysis
Risk response analysis
Cost-benefit analysis
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), threat analysis would be the most helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events, as it involves identifying and evaluating the sources and causes of potential harm or loss to the IT assets and processes. Threat analysis helps to:
Determine the frequency and probability of occurrence of different types of threats, such as natural disasters, human errors, malicious attacks, system failures, etc.
Assess the impact and severity of the threats on the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the IT assets and processes
Prioritize the threats based on their likelihood and impact
Develop appropriate risk response strategies to prevent, mitigate, transfer or accept the threats
References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.5: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, pp. 35-361
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?
An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.
Controls are not applied to the applications.
There is a lack of technology recovery options.
The applications are not captured in the risk profile.
The GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs is:
B. Controls are not applied to the applications.
When end users create their own applications, there is often a lack of formal controls that would typically be applied in a structured development environment. This can lead to issues with data integrity, security vulnerabilities, and non-compliance with organizational policies and standards.
Which of the following is the MOST important metric to monitor the performance of the change management process?
Percentage of changes having separation of duties in code deployment
Percentage of changes having completed post-implementation verification
Percentage of changes having user acceptance testing (UAT) sign-off
Percentage of changes having to invoke the rollback plan
Post-implementation verification ensures that changes achieve the desired outcomes without causing unintended issues. It validates the success of change deployment and minimizes operational disruption, making it the most direct indicator of change management effectiveness.
An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?
Update firewall configuration
Require strong password complexity
implement a security awareness program
Implement two-factor authentication
A spear phishing attack is a type of cyberattack that targets a specific individual or organization with a fraudulent email that appears to be from a trusted source, and attempts to trick the recipient into clicking amalicious link, opening a malicious attachment, or providing sensitive information. A spear phishing attack can compromise the security, confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the information systems and data of the individual or organization. The most effective way to mitigate the risk associated with spear phishing attacks is to implement a security awareness program, which is a program that educates and trains the employees and stakeholders of the organization about the security policies, procedures, and best practices, and the potential threats and risks that may affect the organization. A security awareness program can help to prevent or reduce the success of spear phishing attacks, as it can increase the knowledge and skills of the employees and stakeholders to recognize and avoid the fraudulent emails, and to report and respond to any suspicious or malicious activities. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 181.
An organization has decided to implement an emerging technology and incorporate the new capabilities into its strategic business plan. Business operations for the technology will be outsourced. What will be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY role during the change?
Managing third-party risk
Developing risk scenarios
Managing the threat landscape
Updating risk appetite
The risk practitioner’s primary role during the change is to manage the third-party risk, as this involves identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks associated with outsourcing the business operations for the emerging technology. The risk practitioner should ensure that the third-party provider has the necessary capabilities, security, and compliance to deliver the expected outcomes and meet the contractual obligations. The risk practitioner should also monitor the performance and service levels of the third-party provider and report any issues or incidents. Developing risk scenarios, managing the threat landscape, and updating risk appetite are all important activities for the risk practitioner, but they are not the primary role during the change. Developing risk scenarios is a technique for identifying and analyzing potential risk events and their impacts. Managing the threat landscape is a process of identifying and responding to the external and internal threats that may affect the organization. Updating risk appetite is a decision that reflects the organization’s willingness to accept or avoid risk in pursuit of its objectives. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Identification, page 48.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?
Residual risk
Risk appetite
Mitigation cost
Inherent risk
Risk Appetite:
Risk appetite defines the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. It serves as a benchmark for evaluating and prioritizing risk responses.
Prioritizing Risk Responses:
When determining how to address risks, the primary consideration should be whether the residual risk falls within the organization’s risk appetite.
If a risk exceeds the appetite, it needs to be mitigated, transferred, or avoided. If it is within the appetite, it might be accepted.
Influence of Other Factors:
Residual Risk:Important but must be evaluated against the risk appetite to determine if it is acceptable.
Mitigation Cost:Relevant for decision-making but secondary to aligning with risk appetite.
Inherent Risk:Initial risk assessment before controls are applied, but prioritization is based on residual risk and risk appetite.
Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure employee adherence to organizational security policies?
Total number of security policy audit findings
Total number of regulatory violations
Total number of security policy exceptions
Total number of opened phishing emails
Tracking opened phishing emails provides a real-time behavioral indicator of how well employees follow security awareness and email policies. It is a leading metric of adherence and risk awareness.
When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?
List of recent incidents affecting industry peers
Results of external attacks and related compensating controls
Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment
Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry
The best thing to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile is the gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment, as this shows the stakeholders the extent and impact of the changes, and the actions and resources needed to address them. The control environment is the set of policies, processes, and systems that provide reasonableassurance that the IT risks are identified, assessed, and treated effectively and efficiently. The current state of the control environment reflects the existing level and performance of the controls, and the residual risk that remains after the controls are applied. The desired state of the control environment reflects the target level and performance of the controls, and the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The gaps between the current and desired states of the control environment indicate the areas of improvement or enhancement for the IT risk management process, and the priorities and strategies for risk response. The other options are not the best things to include when communicating changes in the IT risk profile, although they may be useful or relevant information. A list of recent incidents affecting industry peers can provide some context and comparison for the IT risk profile, but it does not measure or explain the changes in the IT risk level or the control environment. Results of external attacks and related compensating controls can demonstrate the security and resilience of the IT systems and networks, but they do not cover the entire scope or spectrum of the IT risk profile or the control environment. A review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry can provide some insights and benchmarks for the IT risk management process, but it does not reflect thespecific situation or needs of the organization or the stakeholders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk and Control Monitoring and Reporting, page 181.
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?
Key audit findings
Treatment plan status
Performance indicators
Risk scenario results
A treatment plan status is a report that shows the current status and progress of the risk mitigation actions and activities that are implemented to reduce the risk exposure of the organization. A treatment plan status would provide the most useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation, as it can help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation. A treatment plan status can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 257. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 257. ISACACertified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 257. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
A data center has recently been migrated to a jurisdiction where heavy fines will be imposed should leakage of customer personal data occur. Assuming no other changes to the operating environment, which factor should be updated to reflect this situation as an input to scenario development for this particular risk event?
Risk likelihood
Risk impact
Risk capacity
Risk appetite
The migration to a jurisdiction with heavy fines for data leakage primarily affects the potential impact of a risk event. This change should be reflected in the risk impact factor, as the financial consequences of a risk event would be significantly higher.
Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?
Comparison against regulations
Maturity of the risk culture
Capacity to withstand loss
Cost of risk mitigation options
According to the Gaining the competitive edge – measuring and assessing an organization’s risk culture article, risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite should be aligned with the organization’s strategy, goals, and values, and should reflect the organization’s risk culture and capabilities. One of the main considerations when validating an organization’s risk appetite is the capacity to withstand loss, which is the ability of the organization to absorb the impact of adverse events without jeopardizing its viability or reputation. The capacity to withstand loss depends on various factors, such as the financial strength, the operational resilience, the governance structure, and the stakeholder expectations of the organization. By assessing the capacity to withstand loss, the organization can determine if its risk appetite is realistic and appropriate, or if it needs to be adjusted to match its risk profile and environment. References = Gaining the competitive edge – measuring and assessing an organization’s risk culture
During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?
Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.
Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.
Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.
Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations or occurrences that illustrate the potential impact of IT-related threats or opportunities on the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation12.
Business risk scenarios are hypothetical situations or occurrences that illustrate the potential impact of business-related threats or opportunities on the organization’s objectives, performance, or value creation34.
The best way for the risk practitioner to address the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios is to describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk, which is a technique that involves translating and communicating the IT risk scenarios into the language and context of the business risk scenarios, and highlighting the linkages and dependencies between them56.
Describing IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk is the best way because it helps the business executives to understand and appreciate the relevance and importance of IT risk scenarios, andhow they affect the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders56.
Describing IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk is also the best way because it helps the business executives to accept and fulfill their roles and responsibilities as the owners of IT risk scenarios, and to collaborate and coordinate with the IT team and other stakeholders in the risk management process56.
The other options are not the best ways, but rather possible alternatives or supplements that may support or enhance the description of IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk. For example:
Recommending the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk is a way that involves establishing and empowering a group of senior leaders from different business units and functions to provide the strategic direction, guidance, and oversight for the IT risk managementprocess78. However, this way is not the best way because it does not directlyaddress the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT risk scenarios, and it may not be feasible or effective without a clear and common understanding of IT risk scenarios among the council members78.
Providing an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes is a way that involves quantifying and communicating the potential loss or disruption of the IT systems or services that support the organization’s operations, if the IT risk scenarios occur9 . However, this way is not the best way because it does not fully capture or convey the impact of IT risk scenarios on the organization’s objectives, performance, or valuecreation, and it may not be relevant or meaningful for some IT risk scenarios that are not related to IT system downtime9 .
Educating business executives on IT risk concepts is a way that involves providing and delivering the knowledge and skills on the principles, frameworks, and techniques of IT risk management, and the roles and responsibilities of the IT risk owners and stakeholders . However, this way is not the best way because it does not specifically address the concerns of the business executives who question why they have been assigned ownership of IT risk scenarios, and it may not be sufficient or effective without a practical and contextual application of IT risk concepts to the organization’s situation and goals . References =
1: IT Scenario Analysis in Enterprise Risk Management - ISACA2
2: New Toolkit and Course From ISACA Help Practitioners Develop Risk Scenarios - ISACA1
3: Business Risk - Investopedia3
4: Business Risk: Definition, Types, Examples & How to Manage4
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
7: Executive Risk Council - ISACA5
8: Executive Risk Council: A Guide to Success6
9: IT System Downtime - ISACA7
IT System Downtime: Causes, Costs, and How to Prevent It8
IT Risk Education - ISACA9
IT Risk Education: A Guide to Success
Which of the following BEST indicates that an organizations risk management program is effective?
Fewer security incidents have been reported.
The number of audit findings has decreased.
Residual risk is reduced.
inherent risk Is unchanged.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses. An effective risk management program should aim to reduce the residual risk to a level that is acceptable by the enterprise, in alignment with its risk appetite and tolerance. The reduction of residual risk indicates that the risk responses are appropriate and effective, and that the enterprise is achieving its objectives while managing its risks. The other options are not necessarily indicative of an effective risk management program, as they may depend on other factors, such as the reporting culture, the audit scope and methodology, and the nature and source of the inherent risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3.1, pp. 24-25.
A risk practitioner has been asked by executives to explain how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Which of the following is MOST helpful in responding to this request?
Assessing risk with no controls in place
Showing projected residual risk
Providing peer benchmarking results
Assessing risk with current controls in place
Showing projected residual risk is the most helpful way to respond to the request of explaining how existing risk treatment plans would affect risk posture at the end of the year. Residual risk is the level of risk that remains after the implementation of risk responses1. Projected residual risk is the estimated level of risk that will remain at a future point in time, based on the assumptions and expectations of the risk responses2. By showing projected residual risk, the risk practitioner can:
Demonstrate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk treatment plans, and how they reduce the risk level from the inherent risk (the risk before the risk responses) to the residual risk3.
Compare the projected residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance, which are the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives4. This can help to determine whether the projected residual risk is acceptable or not, and whether the risk treatment plans are consistent and proportional to the risk level5.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may affect the achievement of the projected residual risk, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans6.
The other options are not the most helpful ways to respond to the request, because:
Assessing risk with no controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the current or future risk posture of the organization. Controls are the measures or actions that are implemented to modify the risk, such as prevent, detect, correct, or mitigate the risk7. Assessing risk with no controls in place can help to measure the inherent risk, but it does not show the impact or outcome of the risk treatment plans.
Providing peer benchmarking results is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the specific or unique risk profile of the organization. Peer benchmarking is the process ofcomparing the organization’s risk level and performance with its peers or competitors, based on a common set of criteria or indicators8. Providing peer benchmarking results can help to provide a reference or a standard for the risk posture, but it does not show the effect or result of the risk treatment plans.
Assessing risk with current controls in place is not the most helpful way, as it does not reflect the future or projected risk posture of the organization. Assessing risk with current controls in place can help to measure the current residual risk, but it does not show the expected or estimated residual risk at the end of the year.
References =
Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Projected Residual Risk - CIO Wiki
Risk Treatment Plan - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Appetite: What It Is and Why It Matters - Gartner
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Control - CIO Wiki
Benchmarking - CIO Wiki
[Risk Treatment - CIO Wiki]
When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:
cost-benefit analysis.
risk appetite.
regulatory guidelines
control efficiency
 Cost-benefit analysis is the most helpful tool to show risk reduction based on when developing risk treatment alternatives for a business case, because it compares the expected costs and benefits of each alternative and helps to select the most optimal and feasible one. Cost-benefit analysis also helps to justify the investment and resources required for the risk treatment plan and to demonstrate the value and return of the risk reduction. The other options are not the most helpful tools, although they may also be considered when developing risk treatment alternatives. Risk appetite, regulatory guidelines, and control efficiency are examples of factors or criteria that influence the selection of risk treatment alternatives, but they do not show the risk reduction based on the alternatives. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?
Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test
Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time
Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope
Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test
 The most important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes is the percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test. The RTO is the maximum acceptable time that a system orprocess can be unavailable after a disruption. The disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario to evaluate the readiness and capability of the organization to restore its critical functions and systems. By measuring the percentage ofIT systems meeting the RTO during the test, the organization can assess how well the disaster recovery processes meet the predefined objectives and standards. Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR), percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time, and percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope are other possible KPIs, but they are not as important as the percentage of IT systems meeting the RTO. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?
Risk tolerance
Risk appetite
Inherent risk
Residual risk
Inherent risk is the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, because it is the risk that exists before any controls or mitigating factors are applied. Inherent risk reflects the natural or raw level of exposure that the organization faces from a given risk source or scenario. Accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website introduces new sources and types of risk, such as fraud, theft, data breach, or non-compliance, that increase the inherent risk level of the organization. Risk tolerance, risk appetite, and residual risk are all related to the risk management process, but they are not the most likely to increase as a result of the new initiative, as they depend on the organization’s risk strategy, objectives, and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 51
Which of The following BEST represents the desired risk posture for an organization?
Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance.
Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance.
Residual risk is lower than risk tolerance.
The best representation of the desired risk posture for an organization is when the residual risk is lower than the risk tolerance. Residual risk is the remaining risk after the implementation of risk responses or controls. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of risk that the organization is willing to take or bear. Thedesired risk posture is when the organization has reduced the residual risk to a level that is equal to or lower than the risk tolerance, which means that the organization has achieved its risk objectives and is comfortable with the remaining risk exposure. The other options are not the best representation of the desired risk posture, as they indicate that the organization has not effectively managed its risk. Inherent risk is lower than risk tolerance means that the organization has not identified or assessed its risk properly, as inherent risk is the risk before any controls or responses are applied. Operational risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not implemented or monitored its risk responses or controls adequately, as operational risk is the risk of loss resulting from inadequate or failed internal processes,people, and systems. Accepted risk is higher than risk tolerance means that the organization has not aligned its risk appetite and risk tolerance, as accepted risk is the risk that the organization chooses to retain or take without any further action. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?
To identify threats introduced by business processes
To identify risk when personal information is collected
To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information
To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations
The PRIMARY reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners is to enable the:
design of appropriate controls.
industry benchmarking of controls.
prioritization of response efforts.
classification of information assets.
ï‚· Understanding the Question:
The question focuses on the primary reason for communicating risk assessment results to data owners.
ï‚· Analyzing the Options:
A. Design of appropriate controls:This is important but not the primary reason for communication.
B. Industry benchmarking of controls:This is secondary to the main goal of communicating risk.
C. Prioritization of response efforts:This enables data owners to allocate resources and address the most critical risks first.
D. Classification of information assets:This is typically part of the initial risk assessment process, not the main communication goal.
ï‚·
Communication of Risk Assessment Results:Ensuring data owners understand the results of risk assessments allows them to make informed decisions on where to focus their efforts.
Prioritization:Data owners can prioritize their actions based on the assessed risk levels, ensuring that resources are allocated efficiently to mitigate the most significant risks.
An organization has introduced risk ownership to establish clear accountability for each process. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is MOST important that:
senior management has oversight of the process.
process ownership aligns with IT system ownership.
segregation of duties exists between risk and process owners.
risk owners have decision-making authority.
According to the 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, risk ownership is best established by mapping risk to specific business process owners. Details of the risk owner should be documented in the risk register. Results of the risk monitoring should be discussed and communicated with the risk owner as they own the risk and are accountable for maintaining the risk within acceptable levels. To ensure effective risk ownership, it is most important that risk owners have decision-making authority, as this enables them totake timely and appropriate actions to manage the risk and ensure that it is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Without decision-making authority, risk owners may not be able to implement the necessary risk responses or escalate the issues to the relevant stakeholders. Therefore, the answer is D. risk owners have decision-making authority. References = 1.9 Ownership & Accountability - CRISC, The Importance of Effective Risk Governance in the C-suite - Aon
Which of the following is MOST helpful to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk?
An internal audit
A heat map
A business impact analysis (BIA)
A vulnerability report
 A business impact analysis (BIA) is the most helpful tool to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk. A BIA is a process of identifying and evaluating the potential effects of disruptions or incidents on the critical functions and processes of an organization. A BIA helps to estimate the financial, operational, and reputational impacts of risks, as well as the recovery time objectives and recovery point objectives for each function and process. A BIA also helps to prioritize the functions and processes based on their importance and urgency, and to allocate the resources needed to protect, restore,and resume them. A BIA can provide valuable information to management for developing and implementing risk mitigation strategies and plans. The other options are not the most helpful tools to management when determining the resources needed to mitigate a risk, although they may be useful or complementary to the BIA. An internal audit is a process of evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the governance, risk management, and control systems of an organization, but it does not directly estimate the impacts of risks or the resources needed to mitigate them. A heat map is a graphical tool that displays the probability and impact of individual risks in a matrix format, but it does not provide the details of the functions and processes affected by the risks or the resources needed to protect them. A vulnerability report is a document that identifies and assesses the security weaknesses in an information system, but it does not measure the impacts of risks or the resources neededtomitigate them. References = Business Impact Analysis (BIA) | Ready.gov, Business Impact Analysis - ISACA, Business Impact Analysis - Risk Management from MindTools.com
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?
Communication
Risk analysis
Decision support
Benchmarking
The main purpose of monitoring risk is to provide decision support for the organization. Risk monitoring is the process of tracking and reviewing the risk management activities, the risk profile, and the risk performance of the organization. By monitoring risk, the organization can obtain timely and relevant information and feedback on the risk situation, and use it to make informed and effective decisions on risk management and business objectives. Communication, risk analysis, and benchmarking are other possible purposes of risk monitoring, but they are not as important as decision support. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?
Distributed data sources
Manual data extraction
Incorrect data selection
Excessive data volume
According to the CRISC Review Manual1, data selection is the process of choosing the appropriate data sources and variables for data analysis. Data selection is the most critical step in data analytics, as it determines the quality and validity of the results and insights derived from the analysis. Incorrect data selection is the greatest risk associated with the use of data analytics, as it can lead to inaccurate, incomplete, irrelevant, or biased outcomes that can adversely affectthe decision making and performance of the organization. Incorrect data selection can also cause legal, regulatory, ethical, or reputational issues for the organization, if the data used for analysis is not authorized, reliable, or compliant. References = CRISC Review Manual1, page 255.
Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place to identify unauthorized devices on the network?
A technology review and approval process
An acceptable use policy
An automated network scanning solution
A bring your own device (BYOD) policy
Automated scanning tools continuously monitor the network, detecting unauthorized devices quickly and reliably.
After a risk has been identified, who is in the BEST position to select the appropriate risk treatment option?
The risk practitioner
The business process owner
The risk owner
The control owner
After a risk has been identified, the risk owner is in the best position to select the appropriate risk treatment option. The risk owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a risk1. The risk owner is responsible for evaluating the risk, choosing the most suitable risk treatment option, implementing the risk treatment plan, and monitoring and reviewing the risk and its treatment2. The risk owner has the most knowledge and stake in the risk and its impact on the objectives and activities of the organization. The other options are not the best choices for selecting the risk treatment option, as they do not have the same level of accountability and authority as the risk owner. The risk practitioner is the person or entity with the knowledge and skills to perform the risk management activities1. The risk practitioner can assist the risk owner in identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risk, but the final decision and responsibility lies with the risk owner. The business process owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to manage a business process3. The business processowner may be affected by the risk or involved in the risk treatment, but the risk owner is the one who has the overall responsibility for the risk. The control owner is the person or entity with the accountability and authority to ensure that the controls are properly designed, implemented, and operated4. The control owner can provide input and feedback on the effectiveness and efficiency of the controls, but the risk owner is the one who decides which controls are needed and how they are applied. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.3, Page 51.
The patch management process is MOST effectively monitored through which of the following key control indicators (KCIs)?
Number of legacy servers out of support
Percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame
Number of patches deployed outside of business hours
Percentage of patched systems tested
Monitoring the percentage of patches deployed within the target time frame is a critical key control indicator for the patch management process. It reflects the organization's ability to apply necessary updates promptly, reducing exposure to known vulnerabilities. Timely patch deployment is essential for maintaining system security and compliance with organizational policies.​
Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?
Organizational strategy
Cost-benefit analysis
Control self-assessment (CSA)
Business requirements
The first factor that should be considered when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies is the organizational strategy. The organizational strategy defines the vision, mission, goals, and objectives of the enterprise, and provides the direction and guidance for its activities and decisions. The adoption of emerging technologies should be aligned with the organizational strategy, and support its achievement and performance. The organizational strategy also helps to determine the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, and the criteria for evaluating the risks and benefits of the emerging technologies. Cost-benefit analysis, control self-assessment, and business requirements are also important factors to consider when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies, but they are not the first factor to consider. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1.1, page 181
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 656.
Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) provides the BEST insight into the risk associated with IT systems being unable to meet the required availability service level in the future?
Percentage of IT systems having defined incident management service levels
Percentage of IT systems having met the availability service level
Percentage of IT outsourced systems having met the availability service level
Percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization
The percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization serves as a leading indicator of potential future availability issues. Systems operating at or near full capacity are more susceptible to performance degradation or outages, which can impede their ability to meet service level agreements (SLAs). Monitoring this KRI allows organizations to proactively address capacity constraints before they impact system availability.
An organization recently implemented an automated interface for uploading payment files to its banking system to replace manual processing. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST appropriate for the risk practitioner to update to reflect the improved control?
Risk scenarios
Risk ownership
Risk impact
Risk likelihood
Updating the risk likelihood in the risk register is appropriate when an improved control, such as an automated interface, is implemented. This change affects the probability of the risk occurring, thus reflecting the enhanced control environment.
Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to verify when evaluating the effectiveness of an organization's existing controls?
Senior management has approved the control design.
Inherent risk has been reduced from original levels.
Residual risk remains within acceptable levels.
Costs for control maintenance are reasonable.
Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls. It is important for a risk practitioner to verify that the residual risk is within the acceptable levels defined by the enterprise’s risk appetite and tolerance. This ensures that the controls are effective in reducing the risk exposure to an acceptable level and align with the enterprise’s objectives and strategy. References = CRISC Review Manual 27th Edition, page 131. Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers.
Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s FIRST course of action when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas?
Identify any new business objectives with stakeholders.
Present a business case for new controls to stakeholders.
Revise the organization's risk and control policy.
Review existing risk scenarios with stakeholders.
The first course of action for the risk practitioner when an organization has decided to expand into new product areas is to identify any new business objectives with stakeholders. Business objectives are the specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that the organization aims to accomplish through its products and services. Stakeholders are the parties who have an interest or influence in the organization and its products and services, such as customers, employees, shareholders, suppliers, regulators, or competitors. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders is the first course of action, because it helps to understand and define the purpose, scope, and criteria of the new product areas, and to align them with the organization’s vision, mission, and strategy. Identifying any new business objectives with stakeholders also helps to establish the expectations, needs, and requirements of the stakeholders, and to ensure their engagement and support for the new product areas. Identifying any newbusiness objectives with stakeholders is the basis for the subsequent risk management activities, such as identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and responding to the risks associated with the new product areas. The other options are not the first course of action, although they may be related or subsequent steps in the risk management process. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders is a part of the risk response process, which involves selecting and executing the appropriate actions to reduce, avoid, share, or exploit the risks associated with the new product areas. Presenting a business case for new controls to stakeholders can help to justify and communicate the value and impact of the new controls, and to obtain the approval and resources for implementing them. However, this is not the first course of action, as it depends on the identification and prioritization of the business objectives and the risks. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy is a part of the risk governance process, which involves defining and updating the rules and guidelines for managing the risks and the controls associatedwith the new product areas. Revising the organization’s risk and control policy can help to ensure the consistency and effectiveness of the risk management process, and to comply with the relevant laws and regulations. However, this is not the first course of action, as it follows the identification and assessment of the business objectives and the risks. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders is a part of the risk monitoring and review process, which involves evaluating and improving the performance and outcomes of the risk management process for the new product areas. Reviewing existing risk scenarios with stakeholders can help to identify and address any changes or issues in the risk levels or the risk responses, and to provide feedback and learning for the risk management process. However, this is not the first course of action, as it requires the identification and analysis of the business objectives and the risks. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA, How to Write Strong Risk Scenarios and Statements - ISACA, The Role of Executive Management in ERM - Corporate Compliance Insights
When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:
Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.
Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.
Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.
Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios
 The most important step when developing risk scenarios using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices is to validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance. The generic risk scenarios may not be applicable or suitable for the specific context, objectives, and environment of the organization. Therefore, the risk practitioner should validate the relevance of the generic risk scenarios by comparing them with the organization’s risk profile, risk appetite, and risk criteria. Assessing generic risk scenarios with business users, selecting the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list, and identifying common threats causing generic risk scenarios are other steps that may be useful, but they are not as important as validating the relevance of the generic risk scenarios. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 12; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 215.
Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?
Segregation of duties
Monetary approval limits
Clear roles and responsibilities
Password policies
Segregation of duties is a key control for preventing and detecting fraudulent transactions, especially in a large organization where there are many employees and transactions involved. Segregation of duties means that no single person has the authority or ability to initiate, approve, execute, and record a transaction without the involvement or oversight of another person. This reduces the opportunity and incentive for fraud, as well as the risk of errors or omissions. Segregation of duties also facilitates the detection of fraud by creating an audit trail and increasing the likelihood of whistleblowing.
The other options are not as effective as segregation of duties for mitigating risk related to fraudulent transactions. Monetary approval limits (B) are useful for controlling the amount and frequency of transactions, but they do not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent transactions from occurring. Clear roles and responsibilities © are important for defining the expectations and accountabilities of employees, but they do not ensure that employees comply with them or that their actions are monitored and verified. Password policies (D) are essential for securing access to systems and data, but they do not prevent fraudsters from exploiting weak or compromised passwords or from using legitimate passwords for fraudulent purposes.
Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Implement control monitoring.
Improve project management methodology.
Reassess the risk periodically.
Identify compensating controls.
When remediation is delayed, compensating controls provide interim protection by reducing risk to acceptable levels.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?
Testing the transmission of credit card numbers
Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers
Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers
Testing the DLP rule change control process
A data loss prevention (DLP) control is a technology that tries to detect and stop sensitive data breaches, or data leakage incidents, in an organization. A DLP control is used to prevent sensitive data, such as credit card numbers, from being disclosed to an unauthorized person, whether it is deliberate or accidental1. The best way to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data is to test the transmission of credit card numbers. This is a technique to verify that the DLP control can successfully identify and block the credit card data when it is sent or received through various channels, such as email, messaging, or file transfers. Testing the transmission of credit card numbers can help to evaluate the accuracy and reliability of the DLP control, as well as to identify and correct any false positives or false negatives. The other options are not the best ways to help ensure the effectiveness of a DLP control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data, although they may be helpful and complementary. Reviewing logs forunauthorized data transfers is a technique to monitor and analyze the DLP control activities and incidents, such as who, what, when, where, and how the data was transferred. However, reviewing logs is a reactive and passive approach, while testing the transmission is a proactive and active approach. Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers is a technique to set up the DLP control rules and policies, such as defining the data patterns, the detection methods, and the response actions. However, configuring the DLP control is a prerequisite and a preparation step, while testing the transmission is a validation and a verification step. Testing the DLP rule change control process is a technique to ensure that the DLP control rules and policies are updated and maintained in a controlled and coordinated manner, such as obtaining approval, documenting the changes, testing the changes, and communicating the changes. However, testing the DLP rule change control process is a quality and governance step, while testing the transmission is a performance and functionality step. References = What is Data Loss Prevention (DLP)? | Digital Guardian1; CRISC Review Manual, pages 164-1652; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 833
What is the PRIMARY reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs)?
Ensure compliance.
Identify trends.
Promote a risk-aware culture.
Optimize resources needed for controls
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary reason to periodically review key performance indicators (KPIs) is to identify trends, because it helps to monitor the changes and patterns in the performance and effectiveness of the risk management processes and controls. KPIs are metrics that measure the achievement of the objectives and targets of the risk management activities. Periodically reviewing KPIs allows the organization to evaluate the progress and results of the risk management strategies and actions, and to identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement. The other options are not the primary reason to periodically review KPIs, as they are related to other aspects or outcomes of the risk management process. Ensuring compliance is the reason to review key risk indicators (KRIs), which are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the occurrence of risk events.Promoting a risk-aware culture is the reason to review key goal indicators (KGIs), which are metrics that measure the alignment of the risk management with the business goals and values. Optimizing resources needed for controls is the reason to review key control indicators(KCIs), which are metrics that measure the efficiency and adequacy of the risk controls. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.2, page 143.
The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure:
the risk strategy is appropriate
KRIs and KPIs are aligned
performance of controls is adequate
the risk monitoring process has been established
 The PRIMARY objective of the board of directors periodically reviewing the risk profile is to help ensure that the risk strategy is appropriate, because the risk strategy defines the enterprise’s risk appetite, tolerance, and objectives, and guides the risk management process and activities. The board of directors should review the risk profile to ensure that it reflects the current internal and external environment, and that it aligns with the enterprise’s strategy and goals. The other options are not the primary objective, because:
Option B: KRIs and KPIs are aligned is a desirable outcome of the risk strategy, but not the primary objective of the board of directors reviewing the risk profile. KRIs and KPIs are indicators that measure and monitor the risk exposure and performance of the enterprise, respectively, and they should be consistent with the risk strategy and objectives.
Option C: Performance of controls is adequate is a result of the risk response, but not the primary objective of the board of directors reviewing the risk profile. Performance of controls is the degree to which the controls are effective and efficient in mitigating the risks, and it should be evaluated and reported by the risk management function and the internal audit function.
Option D: The risk monitoring process has been established is a prerequisite for the risk profile, but not the primary objective of the board of directors reviewing the risk profile. The risk monitoring process is the process of tracking and reporting the risk status and performance, and it should be implemented and executed by the risk management function and the business process owners. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 119.
Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization's risk profile?
A risk roadmap
A balanced scorecard
A heat map
The risk register
A heat map is a graphical representation of the organization’s risk profile that shows the relative level of risk for each risk category or event. A heat map uses colors, shapes, or symbols to indicate the magnitude and likelihood of each risk, as well as its trend and status. A heat map offers the simplest overview of changes in the organization’s risk profile, as it allows the risk decision-makers to quickly identify the most significant risks, theareas of improvement or deterioration, and the gaps or overlaps in risk management. A heat map can also be used to communicate the risk profile to senior management and other stakeholders in a clear and concise manner. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Risk Assessment Methods and Techniques, Page 77; Future Risks: How organizations see changes in risk management - Aon.
Which of the following is the MOST reliable validation of a new control?
Approval of the control by senior management
Complete and accurate documentation of control objectives
Control owner attestation of control effectiveness
Internal audit review of control design
ï‚· Internal Audit Review:
An internal audit review of control design involves a thorough examination of the control’s structure, implementation, and effectiveness.
Auditors use a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of risk management, control, and governance processes.
ï‚· Steps in Audit Review:
Understand Control Objectives:Auditors ensure that the control is designed to meet specific risk management objectives.
Evaluate Implementation:Check whether the control has been implemented as designed.
Test Effectiveness:Perform tests to verify that the control operates effectively and consistently over time.
ï‚· Importance of Audit Review:
Provides independent and objective assurance that the control is appropriately designed and functioning as intended.
Identifies any deficiencies or areas for improvement in the control design.
ï‚· Comparing Other Validation Methods:
Senior Management Approval:Indicates support but does not validate effectiveness.
Documentation of Control Objectives:Important for understanding intent but not validation.
Control Owner Attestation:Provides insight but lacks the independence of an audit.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual highlights the role of internal audits in validating control design and ensuring effective risk management (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.9 Control Testing and Effectiveness Evaluation)​​.
Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that information system controls are effective?
Responding promptly to control exceptions
Implementing compensating controls
Testing controls periodically
Automating manual controls
The best way to ensure that information system controls are effective is to test them periodically. Testing controls periodically helps to verify that the controls are operating as intended, and that they are aligned with the enterprise’s objectives, policies, and standards. Testing controls periodically also helps to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or deficiencies in the controls, and to implement corrective actions or improvements. Responding promptly to control exceptions, implementing compensating controls, and automating manual controls are good practices, but they are not the best way to ensure control effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 641.
A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.
Review past internal audit results.
Respond to organizational security threats.
Research industry published studies.
A risk practitioner should evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats to the organization’s industry, as this is the best course of action to understand the current and future risk landscape, and to align the risk management strategy accordingly. By evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, the risk practitioner can determine the impact and likelihood of the threats affecting the organization’s objectives, assets, and processes, and prioritize the most critical and urgent risks. The risk practitioner can also identify the gaps and weaknesses in the existing controls, and recommend appropriate risk response measures to mitigate the threats. The other options are not as good as evaluating the relevance of the evolving threats, because they do not address the root cause of the rising security incidents, but rather focus on the symptoms or consequences of the incidents. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 85.
After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to
recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.
inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.
inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.
The most appropriate action for the risk manager to take after undertaking a risk assessment of a production system is to inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them, as the process owner has the authority and responsibility to manage the production system and its associated risks and controls, and to decide on the optimal risk response. Recommending a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system, informing the IT manager of the concerns and proposing measures to reduce them, and informing the development team of the concerns and together formulating risk reduction measures are not the most appropriate actions, as they may not involve the process owner, who is the key stakeholder and decision maker for the production system and its risks. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor?
Enroll the employee in additional security training.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Conduct an internal audit.
Instruct the vendor to delete the data.
The best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning that an employee inadvertently disclosed sensitive data to a vendor is to invoke the incident response plan. An incident responseplan is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and resources fordetecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, recovering, and reporting on security incidents that could affect the organization’s IT systems or data. An incident response plan helps to protect and restore the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the organization’s information assets, and to comply with the relevant laws, regulations, standards, and contracts. Invoking the incident response plan is the best recommendation, because it helps to respond to and mitigate the security incident, and to minimize the damage and impact of the data disclosure. Invoking the incident response plan also helps to communicate and coordinate the incident response actions and strategies with the internal and external stakeholders, such as the data owners, users, custodians, and regulators, and to report and disclose the incident as required. The other options are not as effective as invoking the incident response plan, although they may be part of or derived from the incident response plan. Enrolling the employee in additional security training, conducting an internal audit, and instructing the vendor to delete the data are all examples of corrective or preventive actions, which may help to prevent or deter the recurrence of the data disclosure, or to verify or validate the data security, but they do not necessarily address or resolve the current security incident. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.1, page 5-32.
Which of the following is the BEST way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management's action plan?
Survey device owners.
Rescan the user environment.
Require annual end user policy acceptance.
Review awareness training assessment results
 The best way to validate whether controls to reduce user device vulnerabilities have been implemented according to management’s action plan is to rescan the user environment, as it provides an objective and reliable way to measure and verify the effectiveness and adequacy of the controls, and to detect any remaining or new vulnerabilities. Surveying device owners, requiring annual end user policy acceptance, and reviewing awareness training assessment results are not the best ways, as they may not provide sufficient assurance, evidence, or timeliness of the control validation, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because:
it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase.
structured analysis techniques exclude identification of controls.
structured programming techniques require that controls be designed before coding begins.
technical specifications are defined during this phase.
 Controls are the mechanisms or procedures that ensure the security, reliability, and quality of an IT system or process. Controls can be preventive, detective, or corrective, and can be implemented at various levels, such as physical, logical, administrative, or technical. Controls should be defined during the design phase of system development because it is more cost-effective to determine controls in the early design phase. The design phase is the stage where the system requirements are translated into a detailed technical plan, which includes the system architecture, database structure, user interface, and system components. The design phase also defines the system objectives, goals, and performance criteria. Defining controls during the design phase can help ensure that the controls are aligned with the system requirements and objectives, and that they are integrated into the system design from the start. Defining controls during the design phase can also help avoid or reduce the costs and risks associated with implementing controls later in the development or operation phases, such as rework, delays, errors, failures, or breaches. References = THE SYSTEM DEVELOPMENT LIFE CYCLE (SDLC), p. 2-3, System Development LifeCycle - GeeksforGeeks, 7.3: Systems Development Life Cycle - Engineering LibreTexts, What Is SDLC? 7 Phases of System Development Life Cycle - Intetics.
Average time to contain security incidents
Percentage of systems being monitored
Number of false positives reported
Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
The average time to contain security incidents directly reflects how quickly and effectively an organization can respond to cybersecurity threats, which is a critical measure of the program’s effectiveness. Other options like percentage of systems monitored or number of personnel indicate resources or scope but do not measure outcome or effectiveness. False positives may indicate detection issues but are less tied to program effectiveness than incident containment time.
An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?
Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.
Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.
Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.
Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.
The risk practitioner’s BEST course of action is to validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change, because outsourcing the backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider does not eliminate the risk, but rather transfers it to the service provider. The risk practitioner should verify that the service provider has adequate controls and capabilities to handle the backup and recovery procedures, and that the contractual agreement specifies the roles and responsibilities of both parties. The risk practitioner should also update the risk register to reflect the new risk owner and the residual risk level. The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Option A: Accepting the risk and documenting contingency plans for data disruption is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still responsible for the risk, even though it has been transferred to the service provider. Contingency plans are also reactive measures, rather than proactive ones.
Option B: Removing the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk has been eliminated, which is not the case. The risk still exists, but it has been transferred to the service provider. The risk register should reflect the current risk status and ownership.
Option C: Mitigating the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider is not the best course of action, because it implies that the risk practitioner is still involved in the risk management process, even though the risk has been transferred to the service provider. The risk practitioner should rely on the service provider’s controls and capabilities, andmonitor their performance and compliance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 196.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?
To build an organizational risk-aware culture
To continuously improve risk management processes
To comply with legal and regulatory requirements
To identify gaps in risk management practices
Global standards related to risk management are documents that provide the principles, guidelines, and best practices for managing risk in a consistent, effective, and efficient manner across different organizations, sectors, and regions12.
The primary reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management is to continuously improve risk management processes, which are the activities and tasks that enable the organization to identify, analyze, evaluate, treat, monitor, and communicate the risks that may affect its objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is the primary reason because it helps the organization to enhance its risk management capabilities and maturity, and to adapt to the changing risk environment and stakeholder expectations34.
Continuously improving risk management processes is also the primary reason because it supports the achievement of the organization’s goals and the delivery of value to the stakeholders, which are the ultimate purpose and outcome of risk management34.
The other options are not the primary reason, but rather possible benefits or objectives that may result from using global standards related to risk management. For example:
Building an organizational risk-aware culture is a benefit of using global standards related to risk management that involves creating and maintaining a shared understanding, attitude, and behavior towards risk among the organization’s employees and leaders, and fostering a culture of accountability, transparency, and learning34. However, this benefit is not the primary reason because it is an enabler and a consequence of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a driver or a goal34.
Complying with legal and regulatory requirements is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves meeting and exceeding the expectations and obligations of the external authorities or bodies that govern or oversee the organization’s activities and operations, such as laws, regulations, standards, or contracts34. However, thisobjective is not theprimary reason because it is a constraint and a challenge of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a motivation or a benefit34.
Identifying gaps in risk management practices is an objective of using global standards related to risk management that involves assessing and comparing the current and desiredstate of the organization’s risk management processes, and identifying the areas or aspects that need to be improved or addressed34. However, this objective is not the primary reason because it is a step and a tool of continuously improving risk management processes, rather than a reason or a result34. References =
1: ISO - ISO 31000 — Risk management1
2: Risk Management Standards2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:
better understands the system architecture.
is more objective than risk management.
can balance technical and business risk.
can make better-informed business decisions.
 Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is beneficial, as it enables management to have a comprehensive and holistic view of the risk environment and its impact on the organization’s objectives and strategy. By participating in the risk management process, management can make better-informed business decisions, as they can consider the risk factors and implications of their choices, and align their decisions with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. Involving business management in evaluating and managing risk can also enhance the risk culture and governance of the organization, and foster a proactive and collaborative approach to risk management. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 253. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 253. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?
Solutions for eradicating emerging threats
Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats
Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)
Source and identity of attackers
•External sources of emerging threats are sources that provide information about the latest cyberattacks, hacking techniques, malware, and vulnerabilities that can affect an organization’s IT systems and data. Examples of external sources are security blogs, forums, newsletters, reports, and alerts from reputable organizations such as ISACA, Imperva, Aura, and BitSight123.
•The most useful information an organization can obtain from external sources is the indicators for detecting the presence of threats. Indicators are observable signs or patterns that can help identify, prevent, or mitigate cyberattacks. Examples of indicators are IP addresses, domain names, file hashes, network traffic, system logs, and user behavior4.
•Indicators for detecting the presence of threats are more useful than the other options because they can help an organization to:
oMonitor and analyze its IT environment for any suspicious or malicious activity
oRespond quickly and effectively to any potential or actual incidents
oReduce the impact and damage of cyberattacks
oImprove its security posture and resilience
•Solutions for eradicating emerging threats are not the most useful information because they may not be applicable or effective for every organization, depending on its specific context, needs,and resources. Moreover, solutions may not be available or known for some new or sophisticated threats.
•Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats is not the most useful information because it does not help an organization to identify or prevent cyberattacks. Cost is only one factor to consider when deciding how to manage IT risk, and it may not reflect the true value or impact of the threats.
•Source and identity of attackers are not the most useful information because they may not be relevant or accurate for every organization. Source and identity of attackers are often difficult to trace or verify, and they may not affect the organization’s risk level or response strategy.
References =
•Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: Risk Identification, pp. 83-84
•Risk and Information Systems Control Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 12 Month Subscription, ISACA, 2020, Question ID: 100000
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the
progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?
Senior management
Project manager
Project sponsor
IT risk manager
A project sponsor is the person or group who provides the financial, political, or organizational support for a project, and who has the authority to approve or reject the project’s objectives, scope, budget, schedule, and deliverables.
The primary recipient of reports showing the progress of a current IT risk mitigation project should be the project sponsor, because they are ultimately responsible for the success or failure of the project, and they need to be informed of the project’s status, issues, risks, and achievements on a regular basis.
The other options are not the primary recipients of reports showing the progress of a current IT risk mitigation project. They are either secondary or not essential for project reporting.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 21
Information Technology & Security, page 15
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 13
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step upon learning the impact of an organization's noncompliance with a specific legal regulation?
Identify risk response options.
Implement compensating controls.
Invoke the incident response plan.
Document the penalties for noncompliance.
The next step is toidentify risk response optionsto address the noncompliance and mitigate its impact. This may include corrective actions, implementing controls, or negotiating terms to reduce exposure.
Winch of the following is the BEST evidence of an effective risk treatment plan?
The inherent risk is below the asset residual risk.
Remediation cost is below the asset business value
The risk tolerance threshold s above the asset residual
Remediation is completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO)
The best evidence of an effective risk treatment plan is that the risk tolerance threshold is above the asset residual risk, because this means that the risk treatment plan has reduced the risk to a level that is acceptable to the enterprise. The risk tolerance threshold is the maximum amount of risk that the enterprise is willing to accept for a given asset or process. The asset residual risk is the remaining risk after applying the risk treatment plan. The risk treatment plan is effective if the asset residual risk is lower than or equal to the risk tolerance threshold. The other options are not the best evidence, although they may also be indicators of an effective risk treatment plan. The inherent risk being below the asset residual risk, the remediation cost being below the asset business value, and the remediation being completed within the asset recovery time objective (RTO) are examples of desirable or expected outcomes of the risk treatment plan, but they do not directly measure the effectiveness of the risk treatment plan. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?
Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices
Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start
Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices
To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported
Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture?
Unknown vulnerabilities
Legacy technology systems
Network isolation
Overlapping threats
Architecture is the design and structure of a system or a process, such as an IT system or a business process. Architecture documentation is the document that describes and explains the architecture, such as its components, functions, relationships, requirements, constraints, orstandards. Architecture documentation can help to understand, communicate, and improve the system or the process1.
An environment that lacks documentation of the architecture faces a great risk of unknown vulnerabilities, which are the weaknesses or flaws in the system or the process that could be exploited by threats or attackers, but are not identified or addressed by the organization. Unknown vulnerabilities can pose a serious risk to the organization, because they can:
Compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the system or the process, and the information or resources that it handles or supports
Cause financial, operational, reputational, or legal damages or losses to the organization, such as data breaches, fraud, errors, delays, or fines
Remain undetected or unresolved for a long time, and increase the exposure or impact of the risk over time
Require more resources or efforts to mitigate or recover from the risk, and reduce the efficiency or effectiveness of the risk management process23
Lack of documentation of the architecture can increase the risk of unknown vulnerabilities, because it can:
Prevent or hinder the identification and assessment of the vulnerabilities, and the evaluation and prioritization of the risks
Impede or delay the implementation and enforcement of the controls or safeguards to prevent or reduce the vulnerabilities, and the monitoring and reporting of the risk status and progress
Obstruct or limit the communication and coordination among the stakeholders, and the awareness and accountability of the risk owners and users
Restrict or hamper the review and improvement of the system or the process, and the learning and feedback of the risk management4
The other options are not the greatest risks associated with an environment that lacks documentation of the architecture, but rather some of the possible causes or consequences of it.Legacy technology systems are outdated or obsolete systems that are still in use by the organization, but are no longer supported or maintained by the vendors or developers. Legacy technology systems can be a cause of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may have been developed or acquired without proper documentation, or the documentation may have been lost or discarded over time. Network isolation is the separation or segregation of a network or a system from other networks or systems, either physically or logically, to prevent or limit the access or communication between them. Network isolation can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as it may result from the inability or difficulty to integrate or connect the system or the process with other systems or processes. Overlapping threats are threats that affect more than one system or process, or have similar or related sources or causes, such as natural disasters, cyberattacks, or human errors. Overlapping threats can be a consequence of lack of documentation of the architecture, as they may arise from the lack of understanding or coordination of the system or the process with other systems or processes. References =
Architecture Documentation - ISACA
Vulnerability - ISACA
The Risks of Not Having a Vulnerability Management Program
The Importance of Architecture Documentation - ISACA
[The Risk of Poor Document Control - ComplianceBridge]
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?
Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.
Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.
Digital identities should be implemented.
All communication is secured regardless of network location.
ï‚· Zero Trust Architecture:
Zero Trust is a security concept centered on the belief that organizations should not automatically trust anything inside or outside their perimeters and must verify everything attempting to connect to their systems.
ï‚· Basic Tenets of Zero Trust:
The primary principle is "never trust, always verify." This means every access request is authenticated, authorized, and encrypted regardless of where it originates.
Zero Trust requires securing all communication, whether it occurs within the internal network or comes from external sources. This approach prevents lateral movement by potential attackers who have breached the network perimeter.
ï‚· Key Components:
Authentication and Authorization:Continuous verification of user identities and access privileges.
Microsegmentation:Dividing the network into small, isolated segments to limit the spread of threats.
Encryption:Ensuring that all data, whether at rest or in transit, is encrypted to protect its confidentiality and integrity.
ï‚· Other Options:
Incoming Traffic Inspection:While important, this is just one aspect of Zero Trust.
Security Frameworks and Libraries:These are tools and guidelines to implement security but do not define the core tenets of Zero Trust.
Digital Identities:Implementing digital identities is part of the broader Zero Trust strategy but not a standalone tenet.
ï‚· References:
The CISSP Study Guide explains the Zero Trust architecture and its emphasis on securing all communications regardless of network location (Sybex CISSP Study Guide, Chapter 8: Principles of Security Models, Design, and Capabilities)​​.
Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?
Develop a risk treatment plan.
Validate organizational risk appetite.
Review results of prior risk assessments.
Include the current and desired states in the risk register.
Developing a risk treatment plan is the best way to facilitate the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states. A risk treatment plan is a document that outlines the actions and resources needed to implement the chosen risk response strategy for each risk scenario. A risk treatment plan should include the following elements:
Risk scenario description and risk ID
Risk owner and other stakeholders
Risk response strategy and objectives
Risk response actions and tasks
Resources, costs, and benefits
Roles and responsibilities
Timeline and milestones
Performance indicators and monitoring mechanisms
Contingency plans and triggers
A risk treatment plan helps to close the gaps between the current and desired risk environment states by providing a clear and comprehensive roadmap for risk mitigation. It also helps to ensure that the risk response actions are aligned with the organizational risk appetite, objectives, and priorities. A risk treatment plan also facilitates the communication, coordination, and collaboration among the risk owners and other stakeholders involved in the risk mitigation process.
The other options are not the best ways to facilitate the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states. Validating organizational risk appetite is an important step in establishing the risk criteria and thresholds for the risk assessment process, but it does not directly address the gaps between the current and desired risk environment states. Reviewing results of prior risk assessments can provide useful insights and lessons learned for the current risk assessment process, but it does not necessarily lead to the development and implementation of effective risk response actions. Including the current and desired states in the risk register can help to document and monitor the risk scenarios and their status, but it does not provide the details and guidance for risk mitigation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Risk Response, Section 4.2: Risk Treatment, p. 189-191.
The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:
ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.
measure efficiency of the control process.
confirm control alignment with business objectives.
comply with the organization's policy.
The primary objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to ensure that risk is mitigated by the control. A control is a measure or action that is taken to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk, or to increase the likelihood or impact of an opportunity1. Testing the effectiveness of anew control before implementation means verifying whether the control can achieve its intended purpose and objective, and whether it can address the risk adequately and appropriately2. Testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation helps to avoid wasting resources, time, and effort on implementing a control that is ineffective, inefficient, or unsuitable for the risk scenario. It also helps to ensure that the control does not introduce new or unintended risks, or adversely affect other controls or processes3. The other options are not the primary objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation, as they are either less relevant or less specific than ensuring that risk is mitigated by the control. Measuring efficiency of the control process is a secondary objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation. Efficiency refers to the optimal use of resources to achieve the desired outcome4. Measuring efficiency of the control process means evaluating whether the control can achieve its objective with the least amount of cost, time, and effort. Measuring efficiency of the control process helps to optimize the performance and value of the control, but it is not the main reason for testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation. Confirming control alignment with business objectives is a tertiary objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation. Alignment refers to the consistency and coherence of the control with the goals and strategies of the organization5. Confirming control alignment with business objectives means ensuring that the control supports and enables the achievement of the organization’s mission, vision, and values. Confirming control alignment with business objectives helps to integrate the control with the organization’s culture and governance, but it is not the primary reason for testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation. Complying with the organization’s policy is a quaternary objective of testing the effectiveness of a new controlbefore implementation. Policy refers to the set of principles and rules that guide the organization’s decisions and actions6. Complying with the organization’s policy means adhering to the standards and requirements that the organization has established for implementing and operating controls. Complying with the organization’s policy helps to ensure the quality and consistency of the control, but it is not the main objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.8, Page 61.
An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do
FIRST?
Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party
Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.
Notify information security management.
Request IT to remove the system from the network.
The first thing that the risk practitioner should do upon learning that a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems is to notify information security management. This will help to escalate the issue to the appropriate authority and responsibility level, and to initiate the incident response process. Information security management can also coordinate with the third party, the IT department, and other stakeholders to assess the impact and severity of the vulnerabilities, and to implement the necessary actions to contain, eradicate, and recover from the incident. Confirming the vulnerabilities with the third party, identifying procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities, and requesting IT to remove the system from the network are not the first things that the risk practitioner should do, as they may not address the urgency and priority of the issue, and may not involve the relevant decision makers and responders. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1.2, page 1931
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 659.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?
An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.
The register is updated frequently.
The register is shared with executive management.
Compensating controls are identified.
A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the information about the identified risks, such as the risk description, category, owner, probability, impact, response strategy, status, and action plan. The most important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register is to update it frequently, as the risk environment is dynamic and subject to change. By updating the risk register regularly, an organization can ensure that the risk information is current, accurate, and relevant, and that the risk responses are timely, appropriate, and effective. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?
Risk register
Risk assessment
Key risk indicator (KRI)
Key performance indicator (KPI)
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that provides information on the level of exposure to a given risk or the potential impact of a risk. KRIs are used to monitor changes in risk levels and alert management when a risk exceeds a predefined threshold or tolerance. KRIs can help provide early warning of a high-risk condition and enable timely response and mitigation actions. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their likelihood, impact, and status. A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, andevaluates risks. A key performance indicator (KPI) is a metric that measures the achievement of a specific goal or objective. References = Risk IT Framework, pages 22-231; CRISC Review Manual, pages 44-452
Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?
Risk taxonomy
Risk response
Risk appetite
Risk ranking
According to the CRISC Review Manual, risk taxonomy is the system of classification and categorization of risks based on common characteristics and attributes. Risk taxonomy is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register, because it helps to ensure consistency, comparability, and alignment of the risks across the organization. Risk taxonomy also helps to facilitate the communication, reporting, and aggregation of the risks. The other options are not the correct answers, because they are not essential for consolidating the risk registers. Risk response is the action taken to address the risk, which may vary depending on the risk level and strategy. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept, which may differ across the organization’s units and functions. Risk ranking is the process of prioritizing the risks based on their impact and likelihood, which may change over time and context. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, page 69.
Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?
The criticality of the asset
The monetary value of the asset
The vulnerability profile of the asset
The size of the asset's user base
The criticality of the asset is the most important factor to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process, because it reflects the importance or significance of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions, and the potential impact or consequence of losing or compromising the asset. An asset is a resource or capability that has value to the organization, such as data, systems, applications, infrastructure, or people. The value of an asset is a measure of the worth or benefit of the asset to the organization, and the cost or loss of the asset to the organization. The risk identification process is a process of systematically identifying the sources and types of risk that an organization faces, and estimating their likelihood and impact. The criticality of the asset is the most important factor, as it helps to prioritize and focus on the assets that have the highest value and impact, and to determine the appropriate level of protection and investment for the assets. The monetary value of the asset, the vulnerability profile of the asset, and the size of the asset’s user base are all possible factors to consider when determining the value of an asset, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly reflect the criticality of the asset to the organization’s objectives or functions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 83
Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?
Data duplication processes
Data archival processes
Data anonymization processes
Data protection processes
Data archival processes should be the primary focus of a risk practitioner when ensuring that organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations, because data archival processes ensure that records are stored securely, reliably, and accessibly for as long as they are needed. Data archival processes also help to manage the storage capacity, retention policies, and disposal procedures of records. Data duplication processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for backup and recovery purposes, not for long-term retention. Data anonymization processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for privacy and confidentiality purposes, not for legal compliance. Data protection processes are not the primary focus, because they are mainly used for security and integrity purposes, not for retention requirements. References = Free ISACA CRISC Sample Questions and Study Guide
Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Risk governance charter
Organizational risk appetite
Cross-business representation
Cross-business representation is most important to the effectiveness of a senior oversight committee for risk monitoring. Here’s a
Importance of Cross-business Representation:
Comprehensive Risk Perspective: Having representatives from different business units ensures that the committee has a comprehensive view of risks across the entire organization. This diverse representation helps in identifying and assessing risks that may impact various parts of the business differently.
Informed Decision-Making: Members from different business areas can provide unique insights and expertise, leading to more informed and balanced decision-making processes.
Improved Communication: Cross-business representation facilitates better communication and collaboration across the organization, ensuring that risk management practices are understood and implemented consistently.
Comparison with Other Options:
Key Risk Indicators (KRIs): While important for monitoring specific risks, KRIs alone do not ensure the effectiveness of the oversight committee without a diverse representation to interpret and act on these indicators.
Risk Governance Charter: A risk governance charter outlines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for risk management, but its effectiveness depends on the active participation of diverse business representatives.
Organizational Risk Appetite: Understanding the organizational risk appetite is crucial, but without cross-business representation, the risk appetite may not be appropriately reflected or acted upon across all business areas.
Best Practices:
Diverse Membership: Ensure that the oversight committee includes members from all key business units and functions to provide a holistic view of organizational risks.
Regular Meetings: Schedule regular meetings to review and discuss risk management activities, KRIs, and emerging risks with input from all representatives.
Clear Communication: Establish clear communication channels between the oversight committee and business units to ensure that risk management practices are effectively implemented and monitored.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management?
To enable consistent data on risk to be obtained
To allow for proper review of risk tolerance
To identify dependencies for reporting risk
To provide consistent and clear terminology
According to the CRISC Review Manual, the primary objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management is to enable consistent data on risk to be obtained, because it helps to ensure that the risk information is comparable, reliable, and accurate across the organization. An aggregated view of IT risk is a consolidated and comprehensive representation of the IT risk exposure and impact at the enterprise level, based on the risk identification, analysis, and evaluation processes. Providing an aggregated view of IT risk to business management allows them to understand the overall IT risk profile and performance, and to make informed decisions about the risk management strategies and priorities. The other options are not the primary objective of providing an aggregated view of IT risk, as they are related to other benefits or outcomes of the risk aggregation process. Allowing for proper review of risk tolerance is the objective of establishing the risk context, which defines the scope and boundaries of the risk management activities. Identifying dependencies for reporting risk is the outcome of the risk aggregation process, as it provides a clear and consistent structure and format for the risk communication and reporting. Providing consistent and clear terminology is the objective of developing the risk taxonomy, which is the system of classification and categorization of risks based on common characteristics and attributes. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.1.2, page 69.
Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:
inherent risk.
residual risk.
risk appetite
risk tolerance
 Residual risk is the risk that remains after applying controls to mitigate the inherent risk. Inherent risk is the risk that exists before considering the controls. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk tolerance is the acceptable level of variation from the risk appetite. Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will most likely result in an update to the residual risk, because they will reduce the likelihood and impact of the risk event, and therefore lower the risk exposure and value. By improving the design and implementation of a control, the organization can enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of the control, and ensure that it is aligned with the risk objectives, expectations, and outcomes. The improvement can also address any gaps, overlaps, redundancies, or conflicts among the controls, and any changes or enhancements that are needed to optimize the controls. The other options are less likely to be updated due to improvements in the design and implementation of a control. The inherent risk will not change, as it is based on the nature and value of the asset and the threats and vulnerabilities that exist. The risk appetite and the risk tolerance will also not change, as they are based on the organization’s culture, strategy, and stakeholder expectations. Therefore, the most likely factor to be updated is the residual risk, as it reflects the actual risk level that the organization faces after applying the controls. References = Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2022, p. 131
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:
risk scenarios.
risk tolerance.
risk policy.
risk appetite.
The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through risk scenarios, because they are the descriptions and illustrations of the potential events or situations that may affect the achievement of the business objectives and processes. Risk scenarios can help to demonstrate how the risk profile, which is the summary and representation of the identified and assessed risks, is relatedand relevant to the business objectives and processes, and how the risk responses and controls are designed and implemented to support and enable the business objectives and processes. The other options are not the best way, because:
Option B: Risk tolerance is the level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcome that the organization is willing to accept or endure, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of ensuring that the risk profile and the business objectives are consistent and compatible with each other.
Option C: Risk policy is the document that defines the principles, guidelines, and requirements for the risk management process and activities in the organization, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of showing and proving that the risk profile and the business objectives are coherent and integrated with each other.
Option D: Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to take or pursue in order to achieve its objectives and goals, but it does not demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives, which is the process of establishing and maintaining that the risk profile and the business objectives are aligned and balanced with each other. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, ISACA, 2020, p. 104.
When of the following provides the MOST tenable evidence that a business process control is effective?
Demonstration that the control is operating as designed
A successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment
Management attestation that the control is operating effectively
Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced
Automated data indicating that risk has been reduced provides the most tenable evidence that a business process control is effective, because it shows the actual impact and outcome of thecontrol on the risk level. A demonstration that the control is operating as designed, a successful walk-through of the associated risk assessment, and a management attestation that the control is operating effectively are not the most tenable evidence, because they are based on subjective judgments, assumptions, or expectations, not on objective facts or results. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?
The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.
The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.
Administrative access is only held by the vendor.
The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.
Outsourcing a web application and storing customer data in the vendor’s public cloud involves transferring some of the organization’s data processing and storage functions to a third-party service provider. This can bring benefits such as cost savings, scalability, and flexibility, but it also introduces risks such as data breaches, unauthorized access, compliance violations, and loss of control12.
To protect customer data, it is most important to ensure that the vendor’s responsibilities are defined in the contract. A contract is a legally binding agreement that specifies the terms and conditions of the outsourcing relationship, such as the scope, duration, quality, and cost of the services, as well as the rights and obligations of both parties. A contract should also address the following aspects of data protection :
Data ownership: The contract should clearly state that the organization retains the ownership and control of its customer data, and that the vendor has no rights to use, disclose, or retain the data for any purpose other than providing the agreed services.
Data security: The contract should define the minimum security standards and controls that the vendor must implement and maintain to protect the customer data from unauthorized or accidental access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. The contract should also specify the security certifications or audits that the vendor must comply with or undergo to demonstrate its security posture.
Data privacy: The contract should ensure that the vendor complies with the applicable data privacy laws and regulations that govern the collection, processing, and transfer of customer data, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). The contract should also require the vendor to obtain the consent of the customers before collecting or sharing their data, and to respect their rights to access, correct, delete, or restrict their data.
Data breach notification: The contract should establish the procedures and timelines for the vendor to notify the organization and the relevant authorities in the event of a data breach or security incident that affects the customer data. The contract should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties in responding to and resolving the incident, as well as the remedies and penalties for the vendor’s failure or negligence.
Data backup and recovery: The contract should outline the backup and recovery policies and practices that the vendor must follow to ensure the availability and integrity of the customer data in case of a disaster or system failure. The contract should also specify the frequency and format of the backups, the location and security of the backup storage, and the testing and restoration procedures.
Data retention and disposal: The contract should stipulate the retention period and disposal method for the customer data, in accordance with the organization’s data retention policy and the legal or regulatory requirements. The contract should also require the vendor to return or destroy the customer data at the end of the contract or upon the organization’s request, and to provide proof of the data deletion.
By defining the vendor’s responsibilities in the contract, the organization can ensure that the customer data is protected in a consistent and compliant manner, and that the vendor is accountable and liable for any data protection issues or breaches that may arise from the outsourcing arrangement .
The other options are not as important as defining the vendor’s responsibilities in the contract, because they do not address the core issue of establishing a clear and enforceable data protection framework between the organization and the vendor. Updating the organization’s incident response procedures, which are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, may help to mitigate the impact and consequences of such events, but it does not prevent or reduce the likelihood of them occurring in the first place. Storing the data in the same jurisdiction, which means keeping the data within the same geographic or legal boundaries as the organization, may help to avoid some of the data privacy and sovereignty challenges that arise from cross-border data transfers, but it does not guarantee the security and confidentiality of the data. Restricting the administrative access to the vendor, which means limiting the ability to view, modify, or delete the data to the vendor’s personnel only, may help to reduce the risk of unauthorized or accidental access by the organization’s staff, but it does not ensure that the vendor’s staff are trustworthy and competent, and it may also impair the organization’s oversight and control over the data.
References = Consumer data protection and privacy | McKinsey, 9 Tips for Protecting Consumer Data (& Why It’s Important to Keep It …, [Outsourcing Contracts: Key Issues and Best Practices], [Data Protection in Cloud Services: A Guide for Businesses], [Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses], [Data Localization: What is it and Why is it Important?], [Administrative Access: Definition, Risks, and Best Practices]
Which of the following is MOST important when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Verifying that project objectives are met
Identifying project cost overruns
Leveraging an independent review team
Reviewing the project initiation risk matrix
The most important activity when conducting a post-implementation review as part of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is to verify that the project objectives are met. The project objectives are the specific and measurable outcomes that the project aims to achieve. By verifying that the project objectives are met, the post-implementation review can evaluate the success and value of the project, and identify the lessons learned and best practices for future projects. Identifying project cost overruns, leveraging an independent review team, and reviewing the project initiation risk matrix are other possible activities, but they are not as important as verifying that the project objectives are met. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 4; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 153.
An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?
The service provider
Vendor risk manager
Legal counsel
Business process owner
The business process owner should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider, as they have the responsibility and authority over the design, execution, and performance of the business process. The business process owner is also accountable for the risks and controls associated with their process, and they can provide valuable input and feedback on the likelihood and impact of customer data leakage on the process outcomes and objectives.
The other options are not the best choices for owning the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider. The service provider is responsible for delivering and supporting the billing function and ensuring the security and privacy of the customer data, but they may not have the full visibility or understanding of the business process and objectives. The vendor risk manager is responsible for managing and monitoring the vendor relationship and performance, but they may not have the direct involvement or influence on the business process and its risks and controls. The legal counsel is responsible for providing legal advice and guidance on the contractual and regulatory obligations and implications of the outsourcing arrangement, but they may not have the detailed knowledge or experience of the business process and its risks andcontrols. References = Guide to Vendor Risk Assessment | Smartsheet, IT Risk Resources | ISACA, Data Ownership: Considerations for Risk Management - ISACA
Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?
Enterprise security architecture roadmap
Stakeholder requirements
Legal and regulatory requirements
Business impact analysis (BIA)
Risk appetite should be primarily driven by stakeholder requirements. Stakeholder requirements are the needs and expectations of the internal and external parties that have an interest or influence in the organization’s objectives or operations, such as the board, management, employees, customers, regulators, investors, etc. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue in order to achieve its objectives. Risk appetite should be driven by stakeholder requirements, because they reflect the organization’s mission, vision, values, and strategy, and they provide the basis and direction for the organization’s risk management activities. Risk appetite should also be aligned and communicated with stakeholder requirements, because they affect the organization’s performance and reputation, and they require the organization’s accountability and transparency. The other options are not the primary drivers of risk appetite, although they may be considered or influenced by risk appetite. Enterprise security architecture roadmap, legal and regulatory requirements, and businessimpactanalysis (BIA) are all factors that could affect the organization’s risk profile, risk assessment, or risk response, but they do not necessarily determine or reflect the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary?
Obtain approval to retire the control.
Update the status of the control as obsolete.
Consult the internal auditor for a second opinion.
Verify the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan.
 The best course of action for a risk practitioner upon learning that a control under internal review may no longer be necessary is to obtain approval to retire the control. This will help to ensure that the control is removed in a controlled and documented manner, and that the relevant stakeholders are informed and agree with the decision. Retiring unnecessary controls can also help to optimize the control environment, reduce costs and complexity, and improve efficiency and performance. Updating the status of the control as obsolete, consulting the internal auditor for a second opinion, and verifying the effectiveness of the original mitigation plan are not the best courses of action, as they may not address the root cause of the control’s obsolescence, and may delay or complicate the control retirement process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.1.1.2, page 1071
1: ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC®) Exam Guide, Answer to Question 649.
One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?
Additional mitigating controls should be identified.
The system should not be used until the application is changed
The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.
The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.
The risk practitioner’s best recommendation when one of an organization’s key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities is to identify additional mitigating controls, as they may reduce the likelihood or impact of the vulnerabilities being exploited, and align the residual risk with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. The other options are not the best recommendations, as they may not address the risk adequately, or may introduce unacceptable consequences, such as disrupting the businessoperations, changing the risk strategy, or accepting excessive risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 111.
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?
Verify authorization by senior management.
Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level
Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime
Update the risk response in the risk register.
The risk practitioner’s most important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance is to verify authorization by senior management. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and agreeing to bear the risk and its potential consequences. Risk tolerance is the acceptable or allowable level of variation or deviation from the expected or desired outcomes or objectives. When the risk acceptance exceeds the risk tolerance, it means that the organization is taking on more risk than it can handle or afford. Therefore, the risk practitioner should verify that the risk acceptance is authorized by senior management, who have the authority and accountability for making risk management decisions and ensuring that they are aligned with the organizational strategy and objectives. The other options are not as important as verifying authorization by senior management, as they are related to the adjustments, conditions, or documentation of the risk acceptance, not the approval or validation of the risk acceptance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: IT Risk Response Options, page 133.
An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:
risk mitigation.
risk evaluation.
risk appetite.
risk tolerance.
 Risk tolerance is the best term to describe the situation where an organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. Risk tolerance is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in order to achieve its objectives. Risk tolerance defines the acceptable variation in outcomes related to specific performance measures, such as availability, reliability, or security. Risk tolerance is usually expressed as a range, such as 99% +/- 0.5%. Risk mitigation, risk evaluation, and risk appetite are not the correct terms to describe this situation, because they refer to different aspects of risk management, such as reducing, assessing, or pursuing risk, respectively. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1, page 1-8.
Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward.
Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.
 Emerging risk is a risk that is new or evolving, and has the potential to significantly affect the enterprise’s objectives, performance, or reputation. Emerging risk can arise from changes in the internal or external environment, such as technological innovations, regulatory developments, or social trends. The best way to support communication of emerging risk is to include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda. The enterprise risk committee is a group of senior executives who oversee the enterprise-wide risk management program, and provide guidance and direction to the risk owners and practitioners. By including the emerging risk on the agenda, the risk practitioner can ensure that the enterprise risk committee is aware of the risk, its causes, impacts, and likelihood, and can decide on the appropriate risk response strategy and actions. The other options are not the best way to support communication of emerging risk, as they involve different aspects of the risk management process:
Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact means that the risk practitioner adjusts the risk levels after considering the existing or planned risk responses. This may not befeasible or accurate for emerging risk, as the risk responses may not be defined or implemented yet, or may not be effective for the new or evolving risk.
Adjust inherent risk levels upward means that the risk practitioner increases the risk levels before considering any risk responses. This may not reflect the true nature or magnitude of the emerging risk, as the inherent risk levels are based on the assumptions and estimates of the risk practitioner, and may not account for the uncertainties or complexities of the emerging risk.
Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring means that the risk practitioner records and tracks the emerging risk, its causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, and owners. This is an important step in the risk management process, but it does not necessarily support communication ofthe emerging risk, as the risk register may not be accessible or visible to all the relevant stakeholders, or may not be updated or reviewed frequently enough to capture the changes in the emerging risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.2.2, pp. 21-22.
An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?
Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.
Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.
Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.
Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.
Assessing the impact of applying the patches on the production environment is the most important task to be performed prior to implementation, because it helps to identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the patching process. Patching is a process ofapplying updates or fixes to software or hardware to address vulnerabilities, bugs, or performance issues. Patching is essential for maintaining the security and functionality of IT systems, but it also introduces the risk of introducing new problems or breaking existing features. Therefore, before applying patches, the organization should assess the impact of the patches on the production environment, such as compatibility, performance, availability, functionality, and security. Surveying other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches, seeking information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches, and determining in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches are all helpful tasks to be performed prior to implementation, but they are not the most important task, as they do not directly address the impact of the patches on the production environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2, page 211
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?
Identify and analyze risk.
Achieve business objectives
Minimi2e business disruptions.
Identify threats and vulnerabilities.
The primary objective of risk management is to achieve business objectives, as risk management involves identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks that may affect the desired outcomes and performance of the organization, and aligning them with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. Identifying and analyzing risk, minimizing business disruptions, andidentifying threats and vulnerabilities are not the primary objectives, as they are more related to the process, outcome, or source of risk management, respectively, rather than the purpose or value of risk management. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 99.
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?
Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles
Establishing minimum cloud security requirements
Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters
Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security
The primary driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy is to establish minimum cloud security requirements, as they specify the standards and expectations for the protection of the data and systems in the cloud environment, and ensure the alignment and compliance of the cloud security strategy with the organizational objectives and regulations. The other options are not the primary drivers, as they are more related to the evaluation, enforcement, or education of the cloud securitypolicy, respectively, rather than the establishment of the cloud security policy. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to adopt key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk monitoring and reporting process?
To provide data for establishing the risk profile
To provide assurance of adherence to risk management policies
To provide measurements on the potential for risk to occur
To provide assessments of mitigation effectiveness
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of the controls that are implemented to mitigate the risks. KCIs can help to monitor the status and health of the controls, as well as to identify any issues or gaps that need to be addressed. The primary reason to adopt KCIs in the risk monitoring and reporting process is to provideassessments of mitigation effectiveness, meaning that they can help to evaluate how well the controls are reducing the risk exposure and achieving the desired outcomes. KCIs can also help to support the risk management decision making and improvement actions, as well as to demonstrate the value and benefits of the controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1.2, p. 115-116
Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?
Identify the potential risk.
Monitor employee usage.
Assess the potential risk.
Develop risk awareness training.
The security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is the possibility and impact of unauthorized access, disclosure, or use of the data or information that are collected, stored, or transmitted by the wearable devices, such as smartwatches, fitness trackers, or glasses, that are worn or used by the employees12.
The first step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace is to identify the potential risk, which is the process of recognizing and describing the sources,causes, and consequences of the risk, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation34.
Identifying the potential risk is the first step because it provides the basis and input for the subsequent steps of the risk management process, such as assessing, treating, monitoring, and communicating the risk34.
Identifying the potential risk is also the first step because it enables the organization to understand and prioritize the risk, and to allocate the appropriate resources and controls for the risk management process34.
The other options are not the first step, but rather possible subsequent steps that may depend on or follow the identification of the potential risk. For example:
Monitoring employee usage is a step that involves collecting and analyzing data and information on the frequency, duration, and purpose of the wearable devices that are used by the employees, and detecting and reporting any deviations, anomalies, or issues that may indicate a security risk5 . However, this step is not the first step because it requires theidentification of the potential risk to provide the guidance and standards for the monitoring process5 .
Assessing the potential risk is a step that involves estimating and evaluating the likelihood and impact of the risk, and the level of risk exposure or tolerance for the organization34. However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the information and data for the assessment process34.
Developing risk awareness training is a step that involves educating and training the employees and other stakeholders on the security risks and best practices associated with the wearable technology, and informing them of their roles, obligations, and responsibilities for the risk management process . However, this step is not the first step because it requires the identification of the potential risk to provide the content and objectives for the training process . References =
1: Wearable Devices in the Workplace: Security Threats and Protection1
2: 10 security risks of wearables | CSO Online2
3: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
4: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
5: Continuous Monitoring - ISACA3
Continuous Monitoring: A New Approach to Risk Management - ISACA Journal4
What Is Security Awareness Training and Why Is It Important? - Kaspersky5
Security Awareness Training - Cybersecurity Education Online | Proofpoint US
Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?
Defined remediation plans
Management sign-off on the scope
Manual testing of device vulnerabilities
Visibility into all networked devices
The most important factor when identifying an organization’s risk exposure associated with IoT devices is visibility into all networked devices. This means having a comprehensive inventory of all the IoT devices connected to the organization’s network, as well as their configurations, functions, and security status. Visibility enables the organization to identify the potential threats and vulnerabilities that IoT devices pose, as well as the impact and likelihood of those risks. Visibility also helps the organization to monitor the behavior and performance of IoT devices, detect any anomalies or incidents, and respond accordingly. Without visibility, the organization may be unaware of the existence, location, or condition of some IoT devices, which could lead to undetected breaches, data loss, or operational disruptions. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 1: IT Risk Identification, Section 1.4: IT Risk Identification Methods and Techniques, Page 28; 8 Internet of Things Threats and Risks to Be Aware of - SecurityScorecard Blog.
Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?
Control standard operating procedures
Latest security assessment
Current security threat report
Updated risk register
Thelatest security assessmentprovides a detailed evaluation of the control’s performance and identifies gaps or weaknesses. This is critical for determining the effectiveness of a system security control in mitigating threats.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?
Ongoing availability of data
Ability to aggregate data
Ability to predict trends
Availability of automated reporting systems
Ongoing availability of data is the most important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time, as it ensures that the KRIs can provide timely and reliable information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposureand the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they should be aligned with the enterprise’s risk appetite and objectives. Ongoing availability ofdatameans that the data sources and collection methods for the KRIs are consistent, accessible, and sustainable, and that the data quality and integrity are maintained and verified. Ability to aggregate data, ability to predict trends, and availability of automated reporting systems are not the most important considerations, as they do not affect the validity and usefulness of the KRIs, but rather the presentation and analysis of the KRI data. References = CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question213; ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 213.
Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?
To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk
To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms
To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy
To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy
An independent review is typically sought to provide an objective assessment of the IT risk management program, ensuring that it aligns with the organization’s overall strategy andobjectives. The reviewer can identify areas where the program may not be effectively addressing the organization’s strategic goals or where improvements can be made to better manage IT risks.
Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?
An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions
An increase in the number of change events pending management review
A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)
A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds
Risk threshold exceptions are instances when a KRI exceeds or falls below a predefined level or point that triggers an action or a warning. An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions indicates that the KRIs are not reflecting the current risk exposure or environment accurately oreffectively. This may suggest that the KRIs are outdated, irrelevant, or poorly defined. Therefore, the KRIs should be revised to ensure that they are aligned with the organizational objectives, risk appetite, and risk management strategy.
References
•Key Risk Indicators: A Practical Guide | SafetyCulture
•Key Risk Indicators: Examples & Definitions - SolveXia
•Choosing and Using Key Risk Indicators - Institute of Risk Management
When confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, which of the following is MOST important to review?
Results of benchmarking studies
Results of risk assessments
Number of emergency change requests
Maturity model
The number of emergency change requests is the most important factor to review when confirming whether implemented controls are operating effectively, as it indicates the frequency and severity of incidents or issues that require urgent changes to the controls, and may reflect the control deficiencies or failures. The results of benchmarking studies, the results of risk assessments, and the maturity model are not the most important factors, as they are more related to the comparison, evaluation, or improvement of the controls, respectively, rather than the confirmation of the control effectiveness. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?
Data protection officer
Chief information officer (CIO)
Information asset custodian
Information asset owner
The organizational role that should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified is the information asset owner, as they have the authority and responsibility to define the classification, retention, and disposal requirements for the information assets they own, and to manage the risk and controls related to the information assets. The other options are not the correct roles, as they have different roles and responsibilities related to the protection, governance, or maintenance of the information assets, respectively, rather than the classification of the information assets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?
Implement new controls.
Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).
Redesign the process.
Re-evaluate the existing control design.
ï‚· Understanding KPIs:
Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are metrics used to evaluate the efficiency and effectiveness of a process. They must be accurate and relevant to provide meaningful insights.
ï‚· Process Inefficiency Despite No Control Issues:
If a KPI shows inefficiency but no control issues are noted, it suggests that the KPI may not be accurately reflecting the process performance.
Recalibrating the KPI ensures that it correctly measures what it is intended to, providing a true picture of the process efficiency.
ï‚· Steps for Recalibration:
Review the current KPI and its alignment with process objectives.
Adjust the KPI parameters or thresholds to better reflect process performance.
Validate the recalibrated KPI with historical data to ensure accuracy.
ï‚· Comparing Other Actions:
Implementing New Controls:Premature without understanding the root cause of the KPI discrepancy.
Redesigning the Process:Extensive and unnecessary if the KPI is simply miscalibrated.
Re-Evaluating Existing Control Design:Important but secondary to ensuring KPI accuracy.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual emphasizes the importance of accurate KPIs in monitoring process performance and the need for recalibration when discrepancies are found (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.14 Key Performance Indicators)​​.
The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:
determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.
identify critical business functions and resources.
define roles and responsibilities for implementation.
identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.
A business continuity plan (BCP) is a system of prevention and recovery from potential threats to a company. The plan ensures that personnel and assets are protected and are able to function quickly in the event of a disaster1. The first task when developing a BCP should be to identify critical business functions and resources, because this will help to determine the scope, objectives, and priorities of the plan. Critical business functions and resources are those that are essential for the continuity of the company’s operations, and that would cause significant disruption or damage if they were interrupted or lost. By identifying critical business functions and resources, the company can focus its efforts and resources on protecting and restoring them, and minimizing the impact of a disaster. The other options are not the first task when developing a BCP, because they depend on the identification of critical business functions and resources, as explained below:
A. Determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site is a task that relates to the recovery strategy of the BCP, which aims to restore the data and information systems that support the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which data and information systems are critical, and what level of availability and recovery they require.
C. Define roles and responsibilities for implementation is a task that relates to the organization and governance of the BCP, which aims to assign and communicate the duties and expectations of the personnel involved in the plan. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which personnel are critical, and what functions and resources they are responsible for.
D. Identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications is a task that relates to the analysis and evaluation of the BCP, which aims to measure the acceptable downtime and recovery speed of the critical business functions and resources. However, this task cannot be performed without first identifying which business applications are critical, and what impact and likelihood they have. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. What Is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP), and How Does It Work?, Business continuity plan (BCP) in 8 steps, with templates | BDC.ca, How Develop a Business Continuity Plan - Invenio IT, Business Continuity Planning | Ready.gov, Develop a Robust Business Continuity Plan | Wrike
A key risk indicator (KRI) threshold has reached the alert level, indicating data leakage incidents are highly probable. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?
Update the KRI threshold.
Recommend additional controls.
Review incident handling procedures.
Perform a root cause analysis.
A key risk indicator (KRI) is a metric that measures the level of risk exposure or the likelihood of a risk event1. A KRI threshold is a predefined value or range that triggers an alert or action when the KRI reaches or exceeds it2. A data leakage incident is an unauthorized or accidental exposure of sensitive or confidential data to external parties3.
When a KRI threshold reaches the alert level, indicating that data leakage incidents are highly probable, the risk practitioner’s first course of action should be to review the incident handling procedures. Incident handling procedures are the plans and actions to be taken in the event of a data breach or security incident, such as data leakage4. Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to:
Verify the roles and responsibilities of the incident response team and other stakeholders
Confirm the communication and escalation channels and protocols
Identify the tools and resources available for incident detection, containment, analysis, eradication, recovery, and reporting
Evaluate the readiness and preparedness of the organization to respond to a data leakage incident
Update or revise the procedures as needed to reflect the current situation and risk level
Reviewing the incident handling procedures can help the risk practitioner to ensure that the organization can respond to a data leakage incident effectively and efficiently, minimizing the potential or expected impact on the organization’s operations, reputation, or objectives.
The other options are not the first course of action for the risk practitioner, although they may be relevant or necessary at later stages of the risk management process. Updating the KRI threshold, which means adjusting the value or range that triggers an alert or action, may be appropriate if the KRI threshold is too high or too low, but it does not address the imminent risk of data leakage or the response plan. Recommending additional controls, which means suggesting new or improved measures to prevent, detect, or mitigate data leakage, may be useful for reducing the risk exposure or impact, but it does not ensure that the organization is ready or capable to handle a data leakage incident. Performing a root cause analysis, which means finding and identifying the underlying factors that contributed to the risk event, may be helpful for learning from the incident and improving the risk management strategy, but it is usually done after the incident has occurred and resolved, not before.
References = Key Risk Indicators: Definition, Examples, and Best Practices, KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva, What is Data Leakage? Definition, Causes, and Prevention, Incident Response Planning: Best Practices for Businesses
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?
Perform a gap analysis
Conduct system testing
Implement compensating controls
Update security policies
 Performing a gap analysis is the best recommendation for a risk practitioner upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization. A gap analysis can help identify the current state of compliance, the desired state of compliance, and the actions needed to achieve compliance. Conducting system testing, implementing compensating controls, and updating security policies are possible actions that may result from the gap analysis, but they arenot the best initial recommendation. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 1; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 143.
The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:
the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.
security controls are tested prior to implementation.
compliance with corporate policies.
the risk response strategy has been decided.
The primary reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure that the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled, as this can help to reduce the risk exposure of the organization and to achieve the desired risk objectives. Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also help to monitor and evaluate the performance and effectiveness of the risk controls, and to identify and address any issues or gaps that may arise during the implementation.Tracking the status of risk mitigation plans can also provide feedback and information to the risk owners and stakeholders, and enable them to adjust the risk strategy and response actions accordingly. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 251. CRISC Sample Questions 2024, Question 251. ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 251. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?
To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls
To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level
To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers
To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment
Key control indicators (KCIs) are metrics that measure the performance of a control in reducing the causes, consequences, or likelihood of a risk. They help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the internal control environment, which is the set of policies, procedures, and practices that support the achievement of organizational objectives and the management of risks. By monitoring KCIs, organizations can identify and address any gaps or weaknesses in their internal controls and ensure that they are operating as intended.
References
•ISACA CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, Domain 3: Risk Response, Section 3.2.2: Control Design and Implementation
•KRI Framework for Operational Risk Management | Workiva
•What is the difference between key risk indicators and key control indicators?
After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:
determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.
record the scenarios into the risk register.
continue with a qualitative risk analysis.
continue with a quantitative risk analysis.
After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager’s next step should be to record the scenarios into the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, impacts, likelihood, responses, owners, and status. Recording the scenarios into the risk registerhelps to document and communicate the risks to the project team and stakeholders, and to facilitate the subsequent risk analysis and response processes. The other options are not the next steps, but rather the subsequent steps after recording the scenarios into the risk register. Determining if the scenarios need to be accepted or responded to is part of the risk evaluation and treatment process, which requires a prior risk analysis. Continuing with a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis is part of the risk assessment process, which requires a prior risk identification and documentation. References = Risk Register: A Project Manager’s Guide with Examples [2023] • Asana; Risk Identification in Project Management; 6.3. The 5 Steps of the Risk Management Process
A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?
The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.
The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.
The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.
Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.
Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest, because it may create a situation where the risk practitioner’s personal or professional interests or relationships interfere with their objectivity, independence, or impartiality in conducting the risk assessment. A conflict of interest is a type of risk that may compromise the integrity, quality, or validity of the risk assessment process and outcomes, and may damage the reputation or trust of the risk practitioner or the organization. A conflict of interest may arise when the risk practitioner has a direct or indirect connection or involvement with the subject or stakeholder of the risk assessment, such as a previous or current role, responsibility, or relationship, that may influence or bias theirjudgment or decision. Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest, as the risk practitioner may have a prior or residual interest or loyalty to the financialprocess team or the new critical application, and may not be able to assess the risk in a fair and unbiased manner.
The risk assessment team being overly confident of its ability to identify issues, the risk practitioner being unfamiliar with recent application and process changes, and the risk practitioner still having access rights to the financial system are all possible concerns with the request, but they are not the greatest concern, as they do not necessarily imply a conflict of interest, and they may be mitigated or resolved by other means, such as training, documentation, or review.
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?
Monitoring
Analysis
Identification
Response selection
Key risk indicators (KRIs) are most useful during the monitoring phase of the risk management process, as they provide timely and relevant information on the current and future risk status and performance. KRIs are metrics that measure the level of risk exposure and the effectiveness of risk response strategies, and they have predefined thresholds that indicate the acceptable or unacceptable risk status. By monitoring the KRIs, the risk practitioner can identify and report any changes or deviations in the risk level, and take appropriate actions to manage the risk. KRIs are not most useful during the analysis, identification, or response selection phases, as they do not help to assess the likelihood or impact of the risk, to find the sources or causes of the risk, or to evaluate or choose the optimal risk response option. References = CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, question 222.
An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager's BEST course of action?
Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.
Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.
Review software license to determine the vendor's responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.
Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.
The risk manager’s best course of action when discovering significant vulnerabilities in a commercial off-the-shelf software product is to review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders. This means that the risk manager should assess the potential impact and likelihood of the vulnerabilities being exploited, as well as the benefits and costs of using the software product. The risk manager should also consult with the relevant stakeholders, such as the business owners, the IT department, the security team, and the vendor, to understand their perspectives, expectations, and requirements. Based on this analysis, the risk manager should decide whether to proceed with the implementation, delay it until the next release,or look for alternative solutions. The risk manager should also document and communicate the decision and the rationale behind it, and monitor the situation for any changes or new developments.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Running vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities is a useful step to confirm the existence and severity of the vulnerabilities, but it is not sufficient to address the risk. The risk manager still needs to evaluate the trade-offs between implementing and postponing the software product, and involve the stakeholders in the decision-making process.
Reviewing the software license to determine the vendor’s responsibility regarding vulnerabilities is an important step to understand the contractual obligations and liabilities of the vendor, but it is not enough to mitigate the risk. The risk manager still needs to consider the impact and likelihood of the vulnerabilities, and the benefits and costs of the software product, and consult with the stakeholders to decide the best course of action.
Requiring the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation is an unrealistic and impractical option, as the vendor has already stated that the vulnerabilities will not be corrected until the next release. The risk manager cannot force the vendor to change their schedule or priorities, and may risk damaging the relationship with the vendor. The risk manager should instead work with the vendor to understand the nature and scope of the vulnerabilities, and the expected timeline and features of the next release, and use this information to inform the risk assessment and decision-making process.
A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:
ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.
negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.
reassess the risk to confirm the impact.
obtain approval from senior management.
A risk owner is the individual who is accountable for the management of a specific risk. A risk owner can decide to accept a high-impact risk if the control that mitigates the risk is adversely affecting the process efficiency. However, before updating the risk register, which is a document that records and tracks the identified risks and their responses, it is most important for the risk practitioner to obtain approval from senior management. Senior management is the group of executives who have the authority and responsibility for the strategic direction and performance of the organization. Obtaining approval from senior management can help ensure that the risk acceptance decision is aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and policies, and that the potential consequences of the high-impact risk are understood and accepted by the top-level decision makers. Obtaining approval from senior management can also help communicate and justify the risk acceptance decision to other stakeholders, such as regulators, auditors, customers, etc., and avoid any conflicts or misunderstandings that may arise from the risk acceptance decision. References = Why Assigning a Risk Owner is Important and How to Do It Right, Risk Ownership: A brief guide, Creating a Risk Register: All You Need to Know.
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:
risk appetite.
security policies
process maps.
risk tolerance level
When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should first focus on IT risk appetite, which is the amount of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its IT objectives, before action is deemed necessary to reduce the risk1. IT risk appetite reflects the organization’s IT risk attitude and its willingness to accept risk in specific scenarios, with a governance model in place for IT risk oversight. IT risk appetite helps to guide the organization’s approach to IT risk and IT risk management, and to align its IT risk decisions with its business objectives and context. The other options are not the best answers, as they are either derived from or dependent on the IT risk appetite. IT security policies are the rules and guidelines that define the organization’s IT security objectives, requirements, and responsibilities, and they are based on the IT risk appetite. IT process maps are the graphical representations of the IT processes, activities, and tasks that support the organization’s IT objectives, and they are influenced by the IT risk appetite. IT risk tolerance level is the acceptable variation between the IT risk thresholds and the IT objectives, and it is determined by the IT risk appetite. References = IT Risk Resources | ISACA; RiskAppetite vs. Risk Tolerance: What is the Difference?; IT Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics; IT Risk Management Framework - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis?
Quantitative analysis might not be possible.
Risk factors might not be relevant to the organization
Implementation costs might increase.
Inherent risk might not be considered.
 According to the CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, the greatest concern when using a generic set of IT risk scenarios for risk analysis is that the risk factors might not be relevant to the organization. This is because generic risk scenarios are not tailored to the specific context, objectives, and environment of the organization, and they may not capture the unique threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that the organization faces. Therefore, using generic risk scenarios may result in inaccurate or incomplete risk assessment and analysis, and may lead to ineffective or inappropriate risk responses. To avoid this, the organization should customize the risk scenarios to reflect its own situation and needs, and involve the relevant stakeholders and experts in the process. References = CRISC 351-400 topic3 Flashcards, Generic IT Risk Scenarios for Risk Analysis: The Greatest Concern
An organization has granted a vendor access to its data in order to analyze customer behavior. Which of the following would be the MOST effective control to mitigate the risk of customer data leakage?
Enforce criminal background checks.
Mask customer data fields.
Require vendor to sign a confidentiality agreement.
Restrict access to customer data on a "need to know'' basis.
According to the Hierarchy of Controls, the most effective way to prevent and control hazards is to eliminate them or substitute them with safer alternatives. In this case, the hazard is the potential leakage of customer data by the vendor. Therefore, the most effective control would be to eliminate or substitute the customer data with masked or anonymized data fields. This would prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing any sensitive or identifiable information about the customers. Masking customer data fields is an example of an engineering control, which reduces or prevents hazards from coming into contact with workers or third parties. References = Hierarchy of Controls, 5 Risk Control Measures In The Workplace
An organization's senior management is considering whether to acquire cyber insurance. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to enable management’s decision?
Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
Conduct a SWOT analysis.
Provide data on the number of risk events from the last year.
Report on recent losses experienced by industry peers.
Acost-benefit analysisevaluates the financial implications of acquiring cyber insurance versus the potential loss exposure. This approach enables informed decision-making by comparing the insurance cost with the potential savings from covered risks.
The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:
communicate risk to senior management
assign risk ownership
facilitate internal audit
determine the appropriate level of control
Classifying information assets is a process of identifying and categorizing the data and information resources that are owned, controlled, or used by an organization, based on their value, sensitivity, and criticality.
Classifying information assets helps to determine the appropriate level of control that is needed to protect them from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. Control level refers to the degree of protection or assurance that a control provides against a risk.
Classifying information assets also helps to communicate risk to senior management, assign risk ownership, and facilitate internal audit. These are other benefits of risk management that are not directly related to determining the appropriate level of control.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 11
Information Technology & Security, page 5
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 3
Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?
Lack of technical expertise
Combining incompatible duties
Unauthorized data usage
Denial of service attacks
The most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider is unauthorized data usage, which means the misuse, disclosure, or theft of the organization’s data by the service provider or its employees, contractors, or subcontractors1. Unauthorized data usage can pose significant risks to the organization, such as:
Data security and privacy breaches, which can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data, and expose the organization to legal liability, regulatory penalties, reputational damage, or loss of trust and credibility2.
Data quality and accuracy issues, which can affect the reliability and validity of the data, and impair the decision-making, reporting, or performance of the organization3.
Data ownership and control issues, which can limit the access and rights of the organization to its own data, and create dependency or lock-in with the service provider4.
The other options are not the most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, because:
Lack of technical expertise is a potential but not prevalent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may affect the quality and efficiency of the services provided by the service provider, and the compatibility and integration of the services with the organization’s systems and processes5. However, most service providers have sufficient technical expertise in their domain or field, and they can offer specialized skills or resources that the organization may not have internally6.
Combining incompatible duties is a possible but not frequent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may create conflicts of interest or segregation of duties issues for the service provider or the organization, and increase the risk of errors, fraud, or abuse7. However, most service providers have adequate governance and control mechanisms to prevent or mitigate such issues, and they can adhere to the organization’s policies and standards regarding the separation of duties8.
Denial of service attacks is a rare but not common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may disrupt the availability or functionality of the services provided by the service provider, and affect the operations or continuity of the organization. However, most service providers have robust security measures and contingency plans to protect and recover from such attacks, and they can ensure the resilience and reliability of the services.
References =
Unauthorized Data Usage - CIO Wiki
What is outsourcing? Definitions, benefits, challenges, processes, advice | CIO
The Pros and Cons of Outsourcing in 2023 - GrowthForce
13 Common Problems of Outsourcing and How to Avoid Them - ENOU Labs
The Top 10 Problems with Outsourcing Implementation - SSON
10 problems with outsourcing (+ Solutions for each) - Time Doctor Blog
Segregation of Duties - CIO Wiki
Outsourcing Governance - CIO Wiki
[Denial-of-Service Attack - CIO Wiki]
[Business Continuity Planning - CIO Wiki]
Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?
Operating controls for risk mitigation
Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls
Providing assurance on risk management processes
Recommending risk treatment options
Providing assurance on risk management processes is the activity that should only be performed by the third line of defense, because it is the role and responsibility of the independent andobjective assurance function, such as internal audit or external audit, to evaluate and report on the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk management processes and controls. The third line of defense is the last layer of the three lines of defense model, which is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of different functions and levels within the organization for risk management and control. The first line of defense is the operational management and staff, who are responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing the risks and controls within their areas of responsibility. The second line of defense is the oversight and support functions, such as risk management, compliance, or legal, who are responsible for establishing and monitoring the risk policies, standards, and frameworks, and providing guidance and advice to the first line of defense. The third line of defense is the assurance function, who are responsible for providing independent and objective assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management processes and controls, and reporting to the senior management and the board of directors. Operating controls for risk mitigation, testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls, and recommending risk treatment options are all activities that can be performed by the first or second line of defense, but not by the third line of defense, as they are not part of the assurance function. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.4.1, page 59
A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization's operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?
Patch the operating system immediately
Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability
Invoke the organization's incident response plan
Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization's IT environment
Before acting, the risk practitioner mustevaluate the threat in the organizational context. This includes checking system exposure, current mitigations, and potential business impact. Only then can an informed decision (such as patching or mitigation) be made.
A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?
Impact of the change on inherent risk
Approval for the change by the risk owner
Business rationale for the change
Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change
Risk owner approval ensures accountability and alignment of the changes with the enterprise’s risk management strategy. It reflects adherence to the principles ofRisk Ownership and Governance, critical for maintaining control over mitigation activities.
What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?
Mitigation and control value
Volume and scope of data generated daily
Business criticality and sensitivity
Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)
Data classification is the process of organizing data in groups based on their attributes and characteristics, and then assigning class labels that describe a set of attributes that hold true for the corresponding data sets1. Data classification helps an organization understand the value of its data, determine whether the data is at risk, and implement controls to mitigate risks1. Data classification also helps an organization comply with relevant industry-specific regulatory mandates such as SOX, HIPAA, PCI DSS, and GDPR1.
The most important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme are the business criticality and sensitivity of the data2. Business criticality refers to the impact of data loss or compromise on the organization’s operations, reputation, and objectives2. Sensitivityrefers to the level of confidentiality, integrity, and availability required for the data2. Data that is highly critical and sensitive should be classified and protected accordingly, as it poses the highest risk to the organization if mishandled or breached2.
Some of the best practices for data classification are3:
Inventory your data: Identify all data assets within your organization.
Define data categories: Create a classification scheme that suits your organization’s needs.
Assign responsibility: Designate individuals or teams responsible for data classification.
Implement classification tools: Invest in tools and technologies that facilitate data classification.
Educate and train: Raise awareness and provide guidance on data classification policies and procedures.
Review and audit: Monitor and evaluate the effectiveness and compliance of data classification.
References = What is Data Classification? | Best Practices & Data Types | Imperva, What Is Data Classification? The 5 Step Process & Best Practices for Classifying Data | Splunk, Top 10 Best Practices for Securing Your Database - 2023
Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?
Periodic assessments
Change management
Awareness training
Policy updates
Continuous risk management process improvement is the practice of evaluating and enhancing the risk management process on a regular basis, to ensure that it is effective, efficient, and aligned with the business objectives and strategy. Continuous risk management processimprovement can help identify and address the gaps, weaknesses, or opportunities for improvement in the risk management process, and ensure that the process is responsive and adaptable to the changing risk environment. The most effective method for continuous risk management process improvement is periodic assessments, which are systematic and objective evaluations of the risk management process, performed at predefined intervals or after significant events. Periodic assessments can help measure and monitor the performance and maturity of the risk management process, using criteria such as the risk management framework, standards, policies, procedures, methods, tools, roles, responsibilities, and results. Periodic assessments can also help identify and analyze the strengths, weaknesses, threats, and opportunities of the risk management process, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement. Periodic assessments can also help communicate and report the status and progress of the risk management process to the stakeholders, and obtain their input and support for improvement actions. References = Continuous Risk Management Guidebook, p. 7-8, ISO 31000: riskmanagement and its continuous improvement, How Continuous Monitoring Drives Risk Management.
A business impact analysis (BIA) enables an organization to determine appropriate IT risk mitigation actions by:
validating whether critical IT risk has been addressed.
assigning accountability for IT risk to business functions.
identifying IT assets that support key business processes.
defining the requirements for an IT risk-aware culture
Business Impact Analysis (BIA):
Objective: The primary objective of a BIA is to identify and evaluate the effects of disruptions on business operations. This includes determining the criticality of IT assets that support key business processes.
Risk Mitigation: By identifying critical IT assets, organizations can prioritize risk mitigation efforts to ensure that key business processes remain operational during and after disruptions.
Appropriate IT Risk Mitigation:
Critical Asset Identification: Knowing which IT assets are essential allows for targeted risk mitigation strategies. This ensures resources are allocated efficiently to protect the most important systems.
Impact Assessment: Understanding the impact of potential disruptions on critical IT assets helps in developing effective disaster recovery and continuity plans.
Comparison with Other Options:
Validating Critical IT Risk: While important, this is typically part of a broader BIA process rather than its primary objective.
Assigning Accountability for IT Risk: This is crucial for governance but does not directly enable risk mitigation actions.
Defining IT Risk-aware Culture: Important for overall risk management but does not directly influence specific mitigation actions.
Best Practices:
Detailed Asset Inventory: Maintain an up-to-date inventory of IT assets and their dependencies on business processes.
Regular Updates and Reviews: Continuously update the BIA to reflect changes in the IT environment and business processes.
When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:
risk map
cause-and-effect diagram
maturity model
technology strategy plan.
A risk map is the best method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization’s risk appetite, as it is a graphical tool that displays the level and priority of risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as velocity, persistence, and urgency. A risk map can help to compare and communicate the risk levels across different business units, processes, and projects, and to align them with the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance. A risk map can also help to identify the gaps and overlaps in risk management, and to support the decision making and resource allocation for risk response. A cause-and-effect diagram is a tool that helps to identify and analyze the root causes and consequences of a risk or a problem, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A maturity model is a tool that helps to assess and improve the capability and performance of a process or a function, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. A technology strategy plan is a document that outlines the vision, goals, and objectives of the organization’s use of information and technology, but it does not measure the risk against the organization’s risk appetite. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 97.
From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?
The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster
Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.
All business-critical systems are successfully tested.
All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).
A disaster recovery test is a simulation of a disaster scenario that evaluates the effectiveness and readiness of the disaster recovery plan. The main purpose of a disaster recovery test is to ensure that the organization can resume its normal operations as quickly as possible after a disaster, with minimal or no data loss. Therefore, the most important objective of a disaster recovery test from a business perspective is to verify that all critical data can be recovered within the RTOs, which are the maximum acceptable time frames for restoring the data and systems after a disaster. If the RTOs are not met, the organization may face significant financial, operational, and reputationallosses. The other options are not the most important objectives of a disaster recovery test, although they may be beneficial outcomes. Gaining assurance that the organization can recover from a disaster is a subjective and qualitative goal, while recovering data within RTOs is a measurable and quantitative goal. Discovering errors in the disaster recovery process is a valuable result of a disaster recovery test, but it is not the primary objective. The objective is to correct the errors and improve the process, not just to find them. Testing all business criticalsystems is a necessary step in a disaster recovery test, but it is not the ultimate goal. The goal is to ensure that the systems can be restored and function properly within the RTOs. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 197-1981; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 572
Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool?
Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities
Inaccurate reporting of results
Increased number of vulnerabilities
Network performance degradation
The greatest concern for a risk practitioner with the use of a vulnerability scanning tool is the inaccurate reporting of results. A vulnerability scanning tool is a software that scans the network or system for known vulnerabilities and generates a report of the findings. However, the tool may produce false positives (reporting vulnerabilities that do not exist) or false negatives (missing vulnerabilities that do exist). This can lead to incorrect risk assessment, ineffective risk response, and wasted resources. Increased time to remediate vulnerabilities, increased number of vulnerabilities, and network performance degradation are other possible concerns, but they are not as critical as the inaccurate reporting of results. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, question 7; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 202.
Which of the following approaches would BEST help to identify relevant risk scenarios?
Engage line management in risk assessment workshops.
Escalate the situation to risk leadership.
Engage internal audit for risk assessment workshops.
Review system and process documentation.
The best approach to identify relevant risk scenarios is to engage line management in risk assessment workshops. Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe how a risk event could occur and what the consequences could be1. Identifying risk scenarios can help to understand and communicate the nature and impact of the risks, and to design and evaluate the risk responses2. To identify relevant risk scenarios, it is important to involve the people who are responsible for or affected by the risks, such as the line managers. Line managers are the managers who oversee the operational activities and processes of the organization, and whoreport to the senior or executive management3. By engaging line managers in risk assessment workshops, the organization can:
Leverage the line managers’ knowledge and experience of the operational environment, the business objectives, the stakeholder expectations, and the potential threats and opportunities4.
Encourage the line managers’ participation and collaboration in the risk identification and analysis process, and foster a risk-aware culture and mindset5.
Enhance the line managers’ ownership and accountability of the risks and the risk responses, and ensure their alignment and commitment to the risk management strategy and objectives6.
The other options are not the best approaches to identify relevant risk scenarios, because:
Escalating the situation to risk leadership is not an effective or efficient way to identify risk scenarios, as it may bypass or undermine the line managers’ role and responsibility in the risk management process. Risk leadership is the function or role that provides the vision, direction, andguidance for the risk management activities and initiatives of the organization7. Escalating the situation to risk leadership may imply that the line managers are not capable or willing to identify and manage the risks, or that the risk leadership is not aware or involved in the riskmanagement process. This may create confusion, conflict, or distrust among the risk management stakeholders, and reduce the quality and credibility of the risk scenarios.
Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops is not a suitable or appropriate way to identify risk scenarios, as it may violate the independence and objectivity of the internal audit function. Internal audit is an independent and objective assurance and consulting activity that evaluates and improves the effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control processes8. Engaging internal audit for risk assessment workshops may compromise the internal audit’s role and mandate, as it may create a conflict of interest or a self-review threat. Internal auditshould not be involved in the risk identification and analysis process, but rather provide assurance or advice on the adequacy and reliability of the process.
Reviewing system and process documentation is not a sufficient or comprehensive way to identify risk scenarios, as it may overlook or miss some important or emerging risks. System and process documentation are the records or artifacts that describe the structure, functions, features, and requirements of the organization’s systems and processes. Reviewing system and process documentation can help to identify some risks that are related to the design, implementation, or operation of the systems and processes, but it cannot capture all the risks that may affect the organization. Some risks may arise from external or internal factors that are not reflected or updated in the system and process documentation, such as changes in the market, technology, regulation, or stakeholder expectations.
References =
Risk Scenarios Toolkit - ISACA
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack - ISACA
Line Manager - CIO Wiki
Engaging Line Managers in Risk Management - IRM
Risk Culture - CIO Wiki
Risk Ownership - CIO Wiki
Risk Leadership - CIO Wiki
Internal Audit - CIO Wiki
[System Documentation - CIO Wiki]
A control owner responsible for the access management process has developed a machine learning model to automatically identify excessive access privileges. What is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Review the design of the machine learning model against control objectives.
Adopt the machine learning model as a replacement for current manual access reviews.
Ensure the model assists in meeting regulatory requirements for access controls.
Discourage the use of emerging technologies in key processes.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action is to review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, because this will help to evaluate the suitability, effectiveness, and reliability of the model as a control measure. A machine learning model is a type of artificial intelligence that can learn from data and make predictions or decisions based on the data. A machine learning model can be used to automate or enhance the access management process, such as by identifying excessive access privileges, detecting unauthorized access, or recommending access rights. However, a machine learning model also introduces new risks and challenges, such as data quality, model accuracy, model bias, model explainability, model security, and model governance. Therefore, the risk practitioner should review the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, which are the specific goals or outcomes that the control is intended to achieve. The control objectives can be derived from the IT riskmanagement strategy, the IT governance framework, the IT policies and standards, and the regulatory requirements. The review of the machine learning model should cover the following aspects: - The data sources and inputs: The risk practitioner should verify that the data used to train and test the machine learning model is relevant, complete, accurate, consistent, and representative of the access management process and the access rights. The risk practitioner should also check that the data is collected, stored, processed, and transmitted in a secure and compliant manner, and that the data privacy and confidentiality are protected. - The model algorithms and outputs: The risk practitioner should validate that the model algorithms are appropriate, robust, and transparent for the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner should also evaluate that the model outputs are accurate, reliable, and interpretable, and that they provide meaningful and actionable insights orrecommendations for the access management process and the control objectives. - The model performance and monitoring: The riskpractitioner should measure and monitor the model performance and effectiveness against the control objectives and the predefined metrics and indicators. The risk practitioner should also ensure that the model is updated and maintained regularly to reflect the changes in the access management process and the access rights, and that the model is audited and reviewed periodically to ensure its compliance and quality. By reviewing the design of the machine learning model against the control objectives, the risk practitioner can ensure that the model is fit for purpose and adds value to the access management process and the control objectives. The risk practitioner can also identify and mitigate any potential risks or issues that may arise from the use of the machine learning model as a control measure. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: Risk Response and Mitigation, Section 3.3: Control Design and Implementation, pp. 124-1271, Manage roles in your workspace - Azure Machine Learning2, Dataset Inference: Ownership Resolution in Machine Learning3
When classifying and prioritizing risk responses, the areas to address FIRST are those with:
low cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
high cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels
low cost effectiveness ratios and low risk levels.
 The areas to address first when classifying and prioritizing risk responses are those with high cost effectiveness ratios and high risk levels, as they represent the most optimal and urgent risk responses that can reduce the risk exposure and impact significantly with a reasonable cost. Theother options are not the areas to address first, as they may indicate suboptimal or less urgent risk responses that may not align with the risk tolerance and appetite of the organization. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 109.
Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?
Community cloud
Private cloud
Hybrid cloud
Public cloud
A private cloud is a type of cloud computing deployment that provides the consumer exclusive access to a pool of computing resources that are owned, managed, and operated by the consumer or a third-party provider on behalf of the consumer.
A private cloud provides the consumer the greatest degree of control over the environment, because the consumer can customize and configure the resources according to their specific needs and preferences, and can apply their own security and governance policies and standards.
The other options are not the types of cloud computing deployment that provide the consumer the greatest degree of control over the environment. They are either shared or limited by the provider’s settings and rules.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 23
Information Technology & Security, page 17
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 15
Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST
review the key risk indicators.
conduct a risk analysis.
update the risk register
reallocate risk response resources.
 Following a significant change to a business process, the risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to first conduct a risk analysis to evaluate the current level of risk exposure and compare it with the previous level. This will help to verify whether the change has indeed reduced the risk, and by how much. The risk analysis will also help to identify any new or residual risks that may have emerged as a result of the change. The other options are not the first actions to take, but rather the subsequent steps after conducting a risk analysis. Reviewing the key risk indicators, updating the risk register, and reallocating risk response resources are all important activities, but they depend on the outcome of the risk analysis. References = CRISC EXAM TOPIC 2 LONG; CRISC Q&A Domain 1; Managing Change Risk - Oliver Wyman
A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:
include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,
include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,
include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,
publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.
 A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment, such as new or emerging risks, changes in risk levels, risk responses, or control effectiveness. The best way to engage stakeholder attention is to include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs, meaning that the report should highlight the key points and findings that are relevant and important for the stakeholder’s role, responsibility, and interest. The summary should also explain how the information affects the stakeholder’s objectives, expectations, and decisions. The summary should be concise, clear, and compelling, and should capture the stakeholder’s attention and interest. The report can also include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks, a roadmap to achieve operational excellence, or an option to publish the report on-demand for stakeholders, but these are not the best ways to engage stakeholder attention, as they may not be directly related to the stakeholder’s needs or may overwhelm the stakeholder with too much information. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.4.1, p. 124-125
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:
helps in calculating the expected cost of controls
uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.
can be used m a cost-benefit analysts
can be used to determine the indirect business impact.
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis is a quantitative method that estimates the expected monetary loss that can result from a risk over a one year period. The ALE is calculated by multiplying the single loss expectancy (SLE), which is the monetary loss from a single occurrence of a risk, by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO), which is the frequency of the risk occurring in a year. The ALE can be used in a cost-benefit analysis to compare the cost of implementing a control or a risk response with the expected benefit of reducing the loss. The ALE can help to justify the investment in risk management and to prioritize the risks based on their financial impact. The other options are not accurate descriptions of the ALE method of risk analysis, as they involve different aspects or methods of risk analysis. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.2.1, pp. 60-61.
Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?
The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions
The number of servers with local credentials to install patches
The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements
The number of servers running the software patching service
This KPI measures how well the server patch management process meets the agreed-upon standards and expectations for timeliness, quality, and security. It reflects the efficiency and effectiveness of the patch deployment and the compliance with the patch policy. It also helps to identify and address any issues or delays that may affect the patching performance.
References
•Patch Management KPI Metrics - Motadata
•KPI Examples for Patch and Vulnerability Management - Heimdal Security
•Measuring the Effectiveness of Your Patch Management Strategy - Automox
A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:
mature
ineffective.
optimized.
inefficient.
The result of a control working as desired, but having an annual cost of maintenance that exceeds the expected annual loss exposure, is that the control is inefficient, as it implies that the control is not cost-effective or optimal, and may require a review or adjustment. The other options are not the correct results, as they do not reflect the performance or adequacy of the control, but rather the maturity, effectiveness, or optimization of the control, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 154.
Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?
Conduct a simulated phishing attack.
Update spam filters
Revise the acceptable use policy
Strengthen disciplinary procedures
The best recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization is to conduct a simulated phishing attack, as it tests the awareness and behavior of the employees in responding to a realistic and targeted email scam, and identifies the areas and individuals that need improvement or training. Updating spam filters, revising the acceptable use policy, and strengthening disciplinary procedures are not the best recommendations, as they may not address the human factor of the risk, or may be too reactive or punitive, respectively. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 155.
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?
Expertise in both methodologies
Maturity of the risk management program
Time available for risk analysis
Resources available for data analysis
The most important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis is the time available for risk analysis, as this affects the level of detail and accuracy that can be achieved in the risk assessment process. Qualitative risk analysis is a method that uses subjective judgments and ratings to measure and prioritize the risks based on their likelihood and impact, as well as other factors such as urgency, velocity, and persistence. Qualitative risk analysis is usually faster and simpler than quantitative risk analysis, but it may also be less precise and consistent. Quantitative risk analysis is a method that uses numerical data and mathematicalmodels to measure and prioritize the risks based on theirprobability and magnitude, as well as other factors such as frequency, duration, and correlation. Quantitative risk analysis is usually more complex and time-consuming than qualitative risk analysis, but it may also provide more objective and reliable results. The other options are not the most important considerations when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis, although they may have some influence or relevance. Expertise in both methodologies is desirable, but it does not determine the choice of the risk analysis method, as it depends on the availability and suitability of the experts for the specific risk context and objectives. Maturity of the risk management program is important, but it does not dictate the choice of the risk analysis method, as it depends on the level of integration and alignment of the risk management activities with the enterprise’s strategy and goals. Resources available for data analysis are relevant, but they do not decide the choice of the risk analysis method, as they depend on the quality and availability of the data sources and tools for the risk assessment process. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Assessment, page 81.ST
The percentage of unpatched systems is a:
threat vector.
critical success factor (CSF).
key performance indicator (KPI).
key risk indicator (KRI).
The percentage of unpatched systems is best classified as a Key Risk Indicator (KRI). KRIs are metrics used by organizations to provide an early signal of increasing risk exposures in various areas of the business. Here’s a
Understanding KRIs:
Definition: KRIs are specific metrics that provide insights into the risk level of an organization. They help in identifying potential risks that could impact the business negatively if not addressed promptly.
Purpose: KRIs are used to monitor the effectiveness of risk management strategies and to provide an early warning system for emerging risks.
Percentage of Unpatched Systems as a KRI:
Indicator of Vulnerability: The percentage of unpatched systems directly indicates how vulnerable an organization is to cyber threats. Unpatched systems are a common entry point for attackers, making this metric critical for assessing the organization's exposure to cyber risks.
Impact on Security Posture: A high percentage of unpatched systems can significantly increase the likelihood of security incidents, making it a valuable metric for risk management.
Proactive Risk Management: By monitoring this KRI, organizations can take proactive measures to address vulnerabilities before they are exploited.
Comparison with Other Options:
Threat Vector: A threat vector refers to the path or means by which a threat can reach and impact an asset. It is not a metric like the percentage of unpatched systems.
Critical Success Factor (CSF): CSFs are essential elements necessary for an organization to achieve its mission. While important, they are not specific metrics used to measure risk.
Key Performance Indicator (KPI): KPIs measure how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives. While related, KPIs focus on performance rather than risk exposure.
Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?
Implementing control activities
Monitoring control effectiveness
Conducting control self-assessments
Owning risk scenarios
The second line of defense is a group of functions that provide oversight, guidance, and monitoring of the risk management activities of the first line of defense. The second line of defense includes risk management, compliance, and internal control departments. Their key responsibility is to monitor the effectiveness of the control activities implemented by the first line of defense, and to report any issues or gaps to senior management and the board. The second line of defense also supports the first line of defense by providing frameworks, policies, tools,and techniques to identify, measure, and manage risks. The other options are not the key responsibility of the second line of defense, as explained below:
A. Implementing control activities is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which consists of the business units and process owners that own and manage the risks associated with their daily operations.
C. Conducting control self-assessments is a technique used by the first line of defense to evaluate the design and operation of their own controls, and to identify and report any deficiencies or improvement opportunities.
D. Owning risk scenarios is the responsibility of the first line of defense, which is accountable for the risks inherent in their business activities, and for developing and executing risk response strategies. References = Modernizing The Three Lines of Defense Model | Deloitte US, The second line of defence: fit for purpose, not an uncomfortable fit | Knowledge | Linklaters, COSO’s Take on the Three Lines of Defense | ERM - Enterprise Risk Management, Three Lines of Defense | Risk Management - Schneider Downs CPAs, What is the Three Lines of Defense Approach to Risk Management?
The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:
capability to implement the response
importance of IT risk within the enterprise
effectiveness of risk response options
alignment of response to industry standards
The effectiveness of risk response options is the best criteria when selecting a risk response, because it reflects the degree to which the response can reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or enhance the benefit or opportunity of the risk. The effectiveness of risk response options can be evaluated by considering factors such as cost, feasibility, timeliness, and alignment with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite. The other options are not as good as the effectiveness of risk response options, because they do not measure the outcome or value of the response, but rather focus on the input or process of the response, as explained below:
A. Capability to implement the response is a criteria that considers the availability and adequacy of the resources, skills, and knowledge required to execute the response. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
B. Importance of IT risk within the enterprise is a criteria that considers the significance and priority of the risk in relation to the organization’s strategy, objectives, and operations. Whilethis is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result.
D. Alignment of response to industry standards is a criteria that considers the compliance and conformity of the response with the best practices, norms, and expectations of the industry or sector. While this is an important factor to consider, it does not indicate how well the response can address the risk or achieve the desired result. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.2, page 40. How to Select Your Risk Responses -Rebel’s Guide to Project Management, Risk Response Plan in Project Management: Key Strategies & Tips, Risk Responses - options for managing risk - Stakeholdermap.com
Which of the following is the BEST method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database''
Implement role-based access control
Implement a data masking process
Include sanctions in nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Install a data loss prevention (DLP) tool
Implementing a data masking process is the best method to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized employee viewing confidential data in a database. Data masking is the process of replacing sensitive data with fictitious but realistic data, such as changing names, addresses, phone numbers, etc. Data masking protects the privacy and confidentiality of the data, while still allowing for testing, analysis, or training purposes. Implementing role-based access control, including sanctions in NDAs, and installing a DLP tool are also useful methods to reduce the risk of data exposure, but they are not as effective as data masking, which prevents the data from being accessed in the first place. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?
Apply data classification policy
Utilize encryption with logical access controls
Require logical separation of company data
Obtain the right to audit
The most effective practice in protecting personally identifiable information (PII) from unauthorized access in a cloud environment is to utilize encryption with logical access controls. Encryption is a technique that transforms the data into an unreadable or unintelligible form, making it inaccessible or unusable by unauthorized parties. Logical access controls are the mechanisms or rules that regulate who can access, view, modify, or delete the data, based on their identity, role, or privilege. By utilizing encryption with logical access controls, the PII can be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or theft, both in transit and at rest, in a cloud environment. The other options are not as effective as utilizing encryption with logical access controls, as they are related to the classification, separation, or audit of the data, not the protection or security of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.3: IT Risk Response Implementation, page 145.
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?
Internal audit reports
Access reviews
Threat modeling
Root cause analysis
The risk landscape is the set of internal and external factors and conditions that may affect the organization’s objectives and operations, and create or influence the risks that the organization faces. The risk landscape is dynamic and complex, and it may change over time due to various drivers or events, such as technological innovations, market trends, regulatory changes, customer preferences, competitor actions, environmental issues, etc.
The best way to identify changes to the risk landscape is threat modeling, which is the process of identifying, analyzing, and prioritizing the potential threats or sources of harm that may exploit the vulnerabilities or weaknesses in the organization’s assets, processes, or systems, and cause adverse impacts or consequences for the organization. Threat modeling can help the organization to anticipate and prepare for the changes in the risk landscape, and to design and implement appropriate controls or countermeasures to mitigate or prevent the threats.
Threat modeling can be performed using various techniques, such as brainstorming, scenario analysis, attack trees, STRIDE, DREAD, etc. Threat modeling can also be integrated with the risk management process, and aligned with the organization’s objectives and risk appetite.
The other options are not the best ways to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they do not provide the same level of proactivity, comprehensiveness, and effectiveness of identifying and addressing the potential threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Internal audit reports are the documents that provide the results and findings of the internal audits that are performed to assess and evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s governance, risk management, and control functions. Internal audit reports can provide useful information and recommendations on the current state and performance of the organization, and identify the issues or gaps that need to be addressed or improved, but they are not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they areusually retrospective and reactive, and they may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Access reviews are the processes of verifying and validating the access rights and privileges that are granted to the users or entities that interact with the organization’s assets, processes, orsystems, and ensuring that they are appropriate and authorized. Access reviews can provide useful information and feedback on the security and compliance of the organization’s access management, and identify and revoke any unauthorized or unnecessary access rights or privileges, but they are not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because they are usually periodic and specific, and they may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization.
Root cause analysis is the process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. Root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact, but it is not the best way to identify changes to the risk landscape, because it is usually retrospective and reactive, and it may not cover all the relevant or emerging threats or sources of harm that may affect the organization. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 19-20, 23-24, 27-28, 31-32, 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 167
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?
An annual contract review
A service level agreement (SLA)
A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework
A requirement to provide an independent audit report
A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract between a SaaS vendor and a customer that defines the quality and availability of the SaaS service, as well as the responsibilities and obligations of both parties. An SLA is most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement because it sets the expectations and standards for the SaaS service, provides a mechanism for measuring and monitoring the serviceperformance, and establishes the remedies and penalties for service failures or breaches. An SLA can also help to mitigate the risks and liabilities associated with SaaS delivery, such as data security, privacy, compliance, and disaster recovery. The other options are not the most important to include in a SaaS vendor agreement, although they may be beneficial or desirable depending on the context and nature of the SaaS service. An annual contract review is a process of evaluating and revising the SaaS vendor agreement to reflect the changing needs and circumstances of the customer and the vendor, but it is not a mandatory or essential element of the agreement. A requirement to adopt an established risk managementframework is a way of ensuring that the SaaS vendor follows the best practices and standards for identifying, assessing, and mitigating the risks related to the SaaS service, but it is not a specific or measurable term of the agreement. A requirement to provide an independent audit report is a way of verifying and validating the SaaS vendor’s compliance with the SLA and other contractual obligations, but it is not a direct or primary component of the agreement. References = SaaS Agreements: Key Contractual Provisions, SaaS Agreement: Everything You Need to Know, Essential checklist for SaaS agreement negotiations, KeyClauses To Understand and Evaluate in SaaS Contracts, SaaS Reseller Agreement: Everything You Need to Know
While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?
Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key
Engaging a third party to validate operational controls
Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor
Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key
Encryption is a technique that transforms data into an unreadable format using a secret key, so that only authorized parties can access and decrypt the data. Encryption can help to protectsensitive data from unauthorized access or disclosure, especially when the data is stored or transmitted in the cloud1.
Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key is a control that will best reduce the risk associated with a data breach, because it can help to:
Prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing the sensitive data, intentionally or unintentionally
Limit the exposure or impact of the data breach, even if the vendor’s systems or networks are compromised by hackers or malicious insiders
Maintain the confidentiality and integrity of the sensitive data, regardless of the vendor’s liability or responsibility
Enhance the trust and confidence of the customers and stakeholders, who may be concerned about the vendor’s refusal to accept liability for a data breach23
The other options are not as effective as ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key for reducing the risk associated with a data breach. Engaging a third party to validate operational controls is a control that can help to verify and improve the vendor’s security practices and processes, but it does not guarantee that the vendor will prevent or respond to a data breach adequately or timely. Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor is not a control, but rather a business decision that may increase the risk associated with a data breach, as the vendor may have access to or disclose the sensitive data of both parties, or may favor one party over the other. Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key is a control that can help to encrypt specific fields or columns of data, such as names, addresses, or credit card numbers, but it does not prevent the vendor from accessing or disclosing the data, as the vendor has the encryption key4. References =
Encryption - ISACA
Cloud Encryption: Using Data Encryption in The Cloud
Cloud Encryption: Why You Need It and How to Do It Right
Field-Level Encryption - ISACA
[CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition]
Which of the following is MOST important for managing ethical risk?
Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes
Developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations
Identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior
Establishing a code of conduct for employee behavior is the most important factor for managing ethical risk, because it defines the standards and expectations for ethical conduct and decision making within the organization, and provides guidance and direction for employees to act in a responsible and ethical manner. Ethical risk is the risk of violating the moral principles or values that govern the behavior and actions of individuals or organizations, such as honesty, integrity, fairness, or respect. A code of conduct is a document that outlines the ethical principles, values, and rules that the organization and its employees must follow, and the consequences of non-compliance. A code of conduct helps to promote a positive and ethical culture within the organization, and to prevent or mitigate the ethical risks that may arise from conflicts of interest, fraud, corruption, discrimination, or other misconduct. Involving senior management in resolving ethical disputes, developing metrics to trend reported ethics violations, and identifying the ethical concerns of each stakeholder are all useful factors for managing ethical risk, but they are not the most important factor, as they do not directly address the ethical conduct and decision making of employees. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2, Section 2.5.1, page 67
Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?
Cost of risk mitigation
Asset criticality
Acceptable risk level
Business impact assessment
ï‚· Business Impact Assessment (BIA):
BIA identifies and evaluates the potential effects of interruptions to critical business operations. It helps determine the priority of risk mitigation efforts based on the potential impact on business functions.
BIA provides detailed information on which processes and systems are most critical to the organization's operations and their respective impact levels.
ï‚· Prioritizing Risk Mitigation:
The results of a BIA guide decision-makers in prioritizing which risks to address first based on their potential to disrupt critical business operations.
Risks that could cause significant operational, financial, or reputational damage are prioritized higher.
ï‚· Comparing Other Factors:
Cost of Risk Mitigation:Important but secondary to understanding the impact on business operations.
Asset Criticality:Relevant but typically part of the BIA process.
Acceptable Risk Level:Defines the threshold but does not prioritize specific risks.
ï‚· References:
The CRISC Review Manual discusses how BIA facilitates risk prioritization by identifying critical processes and their impacts (CRISC Review Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.7 Business Impact Analysis)​​.
What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?
Seek approval from the control owner.
Update the action plan in the risk register.
Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.
Validate that the control has an established testing method.
The first thing that a risk practitioner should do upon learning that a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan is to reassess the risk level associated with the new control. This is because the new control may have a different effect on the likelihood and impact of the risk, and may introduce new risks or modify existing ones. The risk practitioner should evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the newcontrol, and compare the residual risk with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization. The risk practitioner should also communicate the results of the risk reassessment to the relevant stakeholders, and update the risk register and action plan accordingly. The other options are not the first things that a risk practitioner should do, although they may be necessary or appropriate at a later stage. Seeking approval from the control owner is important, but it does not address the potential changes in the risk level or the alignment with the risk management objectives. Updating the action plan in the risk register is a good practice, but it should be done after the risk reassessment and with the consent of the risk owner. Validating that the control has an established testing method is a part of the control assurance process, but it does not provide information on the risk level or the risk response effectiveness. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 151.
An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?
Number of business change management requests
Number of revisions to security policy
Number of security policy exceptions approved
Number of changes to firewall rules
A security policy exception is a deviation from the established security policy that is granted to an individual or a group for a specific purpose or period of time. A security policy exception may be necessary when the security policy is too restrictive, outdated, or incompatible with the business requirements or objectives. However, a security policy exception also introduces a risk to the organization, as it may weaken the security posture, expose the organization to threats orvulnerabilities, or violate the compliance or regulatory obligations. Therefore, an upward trend in the number of security policy exceptions approved should be of most concern, as it indicates that the security policy is not effective or aligned with the organization’s needs and goals, and that the organization is accepting more risk than desired. The other options are not as concerning as the number of security policy exceptions approved, because they do not imply a direct or immediate risk to the organization, but rather reflect the normal or expected activities of the security management process, as explained below:
A. Number of business change management requests is a metric that measures the volume and frequency of the requests to modify the business processes, systems, or functions. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the organization is undergoing a transformation, innovation, or improvement, which may have positive or negative impacts on the organization’s performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the change management requests may be properly assessed, approved, and implemented, following the established change management procedures and controls.
B. Number of revisions to security policy is a metric that measures the amount and extent of the changes made to the security policy over time. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the security policy is being updated, refined, or enhanced, which may improve or maintain the security posture and compliance of the organization. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the revisions to the security policy may be based on the best practices, standards, and expectations for security management, and may be communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
D. Number of changes to firewall rules is a metric that measures the number and type of the modifications made to the firewall configuration, which controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. An upward trend in this metric may indicate that the firewall is being adjusted, optimized, or customized, which may increase or decrease the firewall performance and security. However, this metric does not necessarily imply a risk to the organization, as the changes to the firewall rules may be justified, authorized, and validated,following the established firewall management procedures and controls. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.1, page 115. Security Policy Exceptions: What Are They and How to Manage Them, Security Policy Exceptions: How to Handle Them in a Secure Manner, Security Policy Exceptions: A Necessary Evil?
Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?
Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.
Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.
Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.
Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.
Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users should be of most concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC). This is because testing without input from end users can result in poor quality, usability, and functionality of the system, as well as increased errors, defects, and rework. Testing without input from end users can also lead to user dissatisfaction, resistance, and non-compliance, as well as misalignment with the business requirements and objectives. According to the CRISC Review Manual 2022, one of the key risk identification techniques for IT projects is to involve the end users and other relevant parties in the testing process1. According to the CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual 2022, testing without input from end users is the correct answer to this question2.
Testing in phases, overriding segregation of duties controls, and using data anonymization are not the most concerning issues for a risk practitioner reviewing the SDLC. These are possible practices or techniques that can be used in the testing process, but they do not necessarily pose significant risks or problems. Testing in phases can help ensure that the system meets the technical and functional specifications, as well as the user acceptance criteria, at each stage of the development. Overriding segregation of duties controls can be justified and authorized during the testing phases, as long as the controls are restored and verified before the system goes live. Using data anonymization can help protect the privacy and security of the data used in the testing process, as well as comply with the relevant regulations and standards.
The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:
define the IT risk framework for the organization
populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting
comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies
prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance
An IT risk awareness program shouldprimarily ensure that employees and stakeholders understand and comply with the organization's risk and information security policies. ISACA highlights that an awareness program must reinforce policy understanding to drive compliant and secure behavior across the organization.
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Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?
Avoidance
Acceptance
Mitigation
Transfer
Risk avoidance involves ceasing activities that expose the organization to significant risks, such as shutting down the sales order system. This decision aligns withRisk Treatment Strategiesaimed at eliminating exposure.
Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?
Inability to access key information
Complex security administration
User resistance to single sign-on
Single point of failure
Single sign-on (SSO)simplifies authentication but introduces asingle point of failure. If the SSO mechanism is compromised or goes down, it can result in the loss of access across multiple systems, leading to widespread business disruption or security breaches.
A Software as a Service (SaaS) provider has determined that the risk of a client's sensitive data being compromised is low. Which of the following is the client's BEST course of action?
Implement additional controls to address the risk
Accept the risk based on the provider's risk assessment
Review the provider's independent audit results
Ensure the contract includes breach notification requirements
Instead of relying solely on the provider’s internal assessment, the client should validate control effectiveness throughindependent audit reports(e.g., SOC 2 Type II). These provide third-party assurance.
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?
Risk reporting
Risk classification
Risk monitoring
Risk identification
Centralizing IT systems is a process of consolidating and integrating the IT systems or resources in the organization into a single or unified platform or location. Centralizing IT systems helps to improve risk reporting, because it helps to simplify and standardize the risk management process and activities, and to enhance the visibility and transparency of the IT risks and controls. Centralizing IT systems also helps to improve risk reporting, because it helps to facilitate and automate the risk data collection, analysis, and evaluation, and to provide consistent and comprehensive risk information and insights to the organization’s stakeholders, such as the board, management, business units, and IT functions. The other options are not the greatest benefit of centralizing IT systems, although they may be related to the risk management process. Risk classification, risk monitoring, and risk identification are all activities that can help to support or improve the risk management process, but they do not necessarily benefit from centralizing IT systems
Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?
Risk tolerance is decreased.
Residual risk is increased.
Inherent risk is increased.
Risk appetite is decreased
A critical patch is a software update that fixes a security vulnerability or a bug that may affect the performance, functionality, or reliability of a system or a network. A critical patch implementation is a process that applies the software update to the system or network in a timely and effective manner. The failure of a critical patch implementation is a situation where the software update is not applied or not applied correctly, which may expose the system or networkto various threats, such as data theft, data corruption, data leakage, or denial of service. The failure of a critical patch implementation would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile by increasing the residual risk. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the risk response, which means the risk that is not avoided, transferred, or mitigated by the existing controls or measures. The failure of a critical patch implementation would increase the residual risk, as it would reduce the effectiveness or efficiency of the existing controls or measures that are supposed to address the security vulnerability or the bug. The failure of a critical patch implementation would also increase the likelihood or impact of the potential threats, as well as the exposure or consequences of the system or network. The other options are not the correct changes that would be reflected in an organization’s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation, although they may be affected or related. Risk tolerance is the degree of variation from the risk appetite that the organization is not willing to accept. Risk tolerance may be decreased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become more cautious or conservative in accepting the risk, but it is not a direct or immediate change in the risk profile. Inherent risk is the risk that exists in the absence of any controls or measures, which means the risk that is inherent to the system or network or the environment. Inherent risk may be increased by the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the system or network may become more vulnerable or susceptible to the threats, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile considers the existing controls or measures. Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite may be decreasedby the failure of a critical patch implementation, as the organization may become less willing orable to accept the risk, but it is not a change in the risk profile, as the risk profile reflects the actual or current risk level, not the desired or expected risk level. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 32-331; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 972; What is a Critical Patch? - Definition from Techopedia3; What is Residual Risk? - Definition from Techopedia4
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?
Sensitivity of the data
Readability of test data
Security of the test environment
Availability of data to authorized staff
Production data is the data that is used in the actual operation of a system or application, such as customer information, financial records, transactions, etc.
Test data is the data that is used in the testing or development of a system or application, such as dummy data, sample data, simulated data, etc.
A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. This indicates that there is a risk of unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction of the production data, which may affect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data.
The primary concern of the risk practitioner in this situation is the sensitivity of the data. This means that the risk practitioner should assess how valuable, critical, or confidential the data is, and what would be the impact or consequence if the data is compromised or lost.
The sensitivity of the data helps to determine the level of protection and control that is needed to safeguard the data, and the priority and urgency of the risk response actions.
The other options are not the primary concerns of the risk practitioner in this situation. They are either secondary or not essential for data protection.
The references for this answer are:
Risk IT Framework, page 32
Information Technology & Security, page 26
Risk Scenarios Starter Pack, page 24
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?
Unencrypted data
Lack of redundant circuits
Low bandwidth connections
Data integrity
The greatest concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet is unencrypted data, as this exposes the data to unauthorized access, interception, modification, or disclosure, which may compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data. Healthcare data is sensitive and personal information that may include medical records, diagnoses, treatments, prescriptions, insurance claims, and biometric data. Healthcare data is subject to various legal and regulatory requirements, such as the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) in the United States, that mandate the protection and privacy of the data. Encryption is a method of transforming the data into an unreadable format that can only be accessed or restored by authorized parties who have the decryption key. Encryption helps to prevent or reduce the risk of data breaches, identity theft, fraud, or other malicious attacks. The other options are not the greatest concerns associated with the transmission of healthcare dataacross the internet, although they may pose some challenges or issues. Lack of redundant circuits is a concern for the reliability and continuity of the data transmission, but it does notaffect the security or privacy of the data. Low bandwidth connections is a concern for the speed andefficiency of the data transmission, but it does not affect the security or privacy of the data. Data integrity is a concern for the accuracy and completeness of the data, but it does not necessarily depend on the encryption of the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4: Risk Response, page 156.
The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:
Identify new or emerging risk issues.
Satisfy audit requirements.
Survey and analyze historical risk data.
Understand internal and external threat agents.
The primary objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis is to identify new or emerging risk issues that may affect the enterprise’s objectives, processes, or resources. This helps to update the risk profile and prioritize the risk responses accordingly. Satisfying audit requirements, surveying and analyzing historical risk data, and understanding internal and external threat agents are secondary objectives that support the primary objective of risk identification. References = Risk IT Framework, 2nd Edition, page 22; CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, page 64.
Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:
automation cannot be applied to the control
business benefits exceed the loss exposure.
the end-user license agreement has expired.
the control is difficult to enforce in practice.
The most likely justification for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control is when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure. Risk acceptance is a risk response strategy that involves acknowledging and tolerating the risk, without taking any action to reduce or transfer the risk. An exception to a security control is a deviation or non-compliance from the established security policy or standard, due to a valid business reason or circumstance. Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be justified when the business benefits exceed the loss exposure, which means that the value or advantage of the exception outweighs the potential cost or harm of the risk. For example, an exception to a security control may enable faster or easier access to the system or data, which may improve the productivity, efficiency, or satisfaction of the users or customers, and generate more revenue or profit for the business. The business benefits of the exception may exceed the loss exposure of the risk, which may be low or negligible, or may be mitigated by other controls or factors. Therefore, risk acceptance of an exception to a security control may be a reasonable and rational decision, based on the cost-benefit analysis of the exception and the risk. Automation cannot be applied to the control, the end-user license agreement has expired, and the control is difficult to enforce in practice are not the most likely justifications for risk acceptance of an exception to a security control, as they are either irrelevant or insufficient reasons, and they do not consider the business benefits or the loss exposure of the exception and the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 50.
Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?
Using the risk management process
Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance
Reviewing results of the annual company external audit
Adopting internationally accepted controls
Using the risk management process will best ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives, as it involves identifying, assessing, responding, and monitoring the risks that may affect the achievement of the business goals and objectives, and designing and implementing controls to mitigate those risks. Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance, reviewing results of the annual company external audit, and adopting internationally accepted controls are also good practices, but they are not the best, as they do not necessarily align the controls with the business goals and objectives. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 146.
Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?
Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.
Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.
Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.
Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.
Personal data is any information that relates to an identified or identifiable individual, such as name, address, email, phone number, etc. Processing personal data involves collecting, storing, using, disclosing, or deleting it. Processing personal data poses various risks to the privacy and security of the data subjects,such as unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss. Therefore, processing personal data requires appropriate technical and organizational measures to safeguard the data and to comply with the relevant laws and regulations. One of the most effective practices to safeguard the processing of personal data is to use tokenization. Tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive equivalents, called tokens, that have no meaning or value outside of a specific system or context. Tokenization reduces the risk of exposing personal data to unauthorized parties, as the tokens cannot be reversed or linked back to the original data without the proper key or algorithm. Tokenization also helps to minimize the amount of personal data that is stored or transmitted, and to limit the scope of compliance requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.2.2, p. 196-197
Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?
Lack of alignment to best practices
Lack of risk assessment
Lack of risk and control procedures
Lack of management approval
Risk assessment is a key process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks associated with the implementation of an emerging technology. It helps to determine the potential impact and likelihood of the risks, as well as the appropriate risk responses and controls. Lack of risk assessment can lead to poor decision making, inadequate risk mitigation, and unexpected consequences. Therefore, it should be of greatest concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1, p. 226-227
In the design phase.
During pre-production testing.
Once in the production environment.
Throughout development.
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
Automated code reviews are most effective when integrated throughout the development lifecycle. Continuous reviews allow early detection and remediation of vulnerabilities, preventing security issues from propagating into later stages such as testing or production. Performing code reviews only at the end or once in production is less effective as vulnerabilities may already be embedded. The proactive approach in development reduces risk significantly
The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:
develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy
develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios
identify root causes for relevant events
perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis
Low-probability, high-impact events are those that have a low chance of occurring but would cause significant harm if they do. These events are often difficult to predict and quantify, but they can have a major impact on the organization’s objectives, reputation, or operations. By including these events in a risk assessment, the organization can develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios that reflect the potential consequences of different outcomes1. This can help the organization to prioritize its risk management activities and allocate its resources accordingly.
References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 5: Risk Assessment Process
The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?
Perform a root cause analysis
Perform a code review
Implement version control software.
Implement training on coding best practices
A root cause analysis is a process of identifying and understanding the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in a problem or incident that has occurred or may occur in the organization. A root cause analysis can provide useful insights and solutions on the origin and nature of the problem or incident, and prevent or reduce its recurrence or impact.
Performing a root cause analysis is the risk practitioner’s best recommendation when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because it can help the organization to address the following questions:
Why did the application code require rework?
What were the errors or defects in the application code?
How did the errors or defects affect the functionality or usability of the application?
Who was responsible or accountable for the application code development and testing?
When and how were the errors or defects detected and reported?
What were the costs or consequences of the rework for the organization and its stakeholders?
How can the errors or defects be prevented or minimized in the future?
Performing a root cause analysis can help the organization to improve and optimize the application code quality and performance, and to reduce or eliminate the need for rework. It can also help the organization to align the application code development and testing with the organization’s objectives and requirements, and to comply with the organization’s policies and standards.
The other options are not the risk practitioner’s best recommendations when the number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold, because they do not address the main purpose and benefit of performing a root cause analysis, which is to identify and understand the underlying or fundamental causes or factors that contribute to or result in the problem or incident.
Performing a code review is a process of examining and evaluating the application code for its quality, functionality, and security, using the input and feedback from the peers, experts, or tools. Performing a code review can help the organization to identify and resolve the errors or defects in the application code, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it doesnot indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing version control software is a process of using a software tool to manage and track the changes and modifications to the application code, and to ensure the consistency and integrity of the application code. Implementing version control software can help theorganization to control and monitor the application code development and testing, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders.
Implementing training on coding best practices is a process of providing and facilitating the learning and development of the skills and knowledge on the principles, guidelines, and standards for the application code development and testing. Implementing training on coding best practices can help the organization to enhance the competence and performance of the application code developers and testers, but it is not the risk practitioner’s best recommendation, because it does not indicate why the application code required rework, and how the errors or defects affected the organization and its stakeholders. References =
ISACA, CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, 2022, pp. 40-41, 47-48, 54-55, 58-59, 62-63
ISACA, CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database, 2022, QID 189
CRISC Practice Quiz and Exam Prep
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?
Risk ownership is recorded.
Vulnerabilities have separate entries.
Control ownership is recorded.
Residual risk is less than inherent risk.
 The most important factor to ensure when reviewing an organization’s risk register is that the risk ownership is recorded, as it indicates the authority and responsibility for managing the risk and its associated controls, and facilitates the communication and accountability of the risk management process and activities. The other options are not the most important factors, as they are more related to theidentification, classification, or measurement of the risk, respectively, rather than the management of the risk. References = CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 101.
The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:
align with audit results.
benchmark with competitor s actions.
reference best practice.
focus on the business drivers
The best way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to focus on the business drivers, which are the factors that influence the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
Focusing on the business drivers means aligning the risk mitigation actions with the organization’s strategic goals, priorities, and values, and demonstrating how the actions will support or enhance the organization’s capabilities, opportunities, and competitive advantage12.
Focusing on the business drivers also means communicating the benefits, costs, and trade-offs of the risk mitigation actions to the relevant stakeholders, and showing how the actions will address the organization’s risk appetite, tolerance, and exposure12.
The other options are not the best way to justify the risk mitigation actions, but rather possible sources of information or guidance that may support the justification. For example:
Aligning with audit results is a way to validate the effectiveness and efficiency of the risk mitigation actions, and to identify any gaps or weaknesses that need improvement34. However, audit results may not reflect the organization’s current or future business drivers, and may not capture the full scope or impact of the risk mitigation actions34.
Benchmarking with competitor’s actions is a way to compare the organization’s risk mitigation actions with the best practices or standards of the industry or market, and to identify any areas of improvement or differentiation56. However, competitor’s actions may not be suitable or applicable for the organization’s specific context, needs, or challenges, and may not align with the organization’s business drivers56.
Referencing best practice is a way to adopt the proven or accepted methods or techniques for risk mitigation, and to ensure the quality and consistency of the risk mitigation actions78. However, best practice may not be the most optimal or innovative solution for the organization’s unique situation, and may not address the organization’s business drivers78. References =
1: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
2: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
3: IT Audit and Assurance Standards, ISACA, 2014
4: IT Audit and Assurance Guidelines, ISACA, 2014
5: Benchmarking IT Risk Management Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2017
6: Benchmarking: A Tool for Improving IT Risk Management, ISACA Now Blog, March 27, 2017
7: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Journal, Volume 1, 2018
8: IT Risk Management Best Practices, ISACA Now Blog, January 9, 2018
Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Key management indicators (KMIs)
Key performance indicators (KPIs)
Key control indicators (KCIs)
The best type of indicators to measure the effectiveness of an organization’s firewall rule set are key control indicators (KCIs). A firewall is a device or software that filters the network traffic based on a set of rules or policies. A firewall rule set is the configuration of the firewall that defines the criteria for allowing or blocking the traffic. A key control indicator is a metric that measures the performance and effectiveness of a control in achieving its objectives and mitigating the risks. A key control indicator can help to evaluate the adequacy and efficiency of the firewall rule set, and to identify any gaps, weaknesses, or issues that need to be addressed.Key risk indicators (KRIs), key management indicators (KMIs), and key performance indicators (KPIs) are not as suitable as key control indicators, as they measure different aspects of the risk management process, such as the level and nature of the risk exposure, the alignment and integration of the risk management activities, and the achievement of the risk management goals and targets. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 220.
The PRIMARY reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to:
ensure policy and regulatory compliance.
assess the proliferation of new threats.
verify Internet firewall control settings.
identify vulnerabilities in the system.
The primary reason for periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is to identify vulnerabilities in the system, because this will help to improve the security and resilience of the applications and the data they process. A penetration test is a simulated cyberattack that aims to exploit the weaknesses and gaps in the security of an application or a system. A penetration test can reveal the vulnerabilities that may not be detected by other methods, such as automated scanning or code review. A penetration test can also measure the impact and severity of the vulnerabilities, as well as the effectiveness of the existing controls and defenses. A penetration test can also provide recommendations and solutions to remediate the vulnerabilities and prevent future attacks. Internet-facing applications are programs and services that are accessible from the internet, such as web applications, APIs, cloud services, or VPN gateways. Internet-facing applications are exposed to a variety of cyber threats, such as denial-of-service attacks, SQL injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, or credential stuffing attacks. These threats can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the applications and the data they handle. Therefore, periodic penetration testing of Internet-facing applications is essential to identify vulnerabilities in the system and to protect the applications and the data from cyberattacks. References = Web Application Penetration Testing: A Practical Guide - BrightSecurity1, The Basics of Web Application Penetration Testing | Turing2, Periodic Penetration Testing: What is the best pentesting frequency …
Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.
Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management
The organization-wide control budget is expanded.
IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the sources, causes, and consequences of IT-related risks, and the potential impacts on the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation12.
A corporate risk register is a document that records and tracks the significant risks that the organization faces, and the responses and actions that are taken to address them34.
The greatest benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register is that exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile, which is a comprehensive and integrated representation of the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives, performance, and value creation56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile means that the organization has a complete and consistent view of the IT risk landscape, and the potential impacts andinterdependencies of IT risks on other types of risks, such as financial, operational, strategic, or reputational risks56.
Exposure is integrated into the organization’s risk profile also means that the organization can make informed and balanced decisions on the risk responses and actions, and allocate the appropriate resources and priorities to the IT risk management and control processes56.
The other options are not the greatest benefit, but rather possible outcomes or consequences of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register. For example:
Corporate incident escalation protocols are established is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has defined and implemented the procedures and mechanisms for reporting and resolving IT-related incidents,and for escalating them to the appropriate authorities or levels when necessary78. However, this outcome does not measure or reflect the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may depend on other factors such as the frequency, severity, or complexity of the incidents78.
Risk appetite cascades to business unit management is a consequence of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has communicated and aligned the risk appetite, which is the amount and type of risk that the organization is willing to accept or pursue, to the business unit management, who are responsible for executing the risk strategy and objectives at the operational level . However, this consequence does not indicate or imply the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which may vary depending on the context, environment, or stakeholder expectations .
The organization-wide control budget is expanded is an outcome of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register that indicates the organization has increased the amount of resources and funds that are allocated to the control processes, which are the procedures and activities that aim to ensure the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s operations, the reliability of its information, and the compliance with its policies and regulations . However, this outcome does not affect or determine the exposure or the risk profile of the organization, which is independent of the control budget . References =
1: IT Risk Scenarios - Morland-Austin3
2: Risk Scenarios Toolkit, ISACA, 2019
3: Risk Register Template and Examples | Prioritize and Manage Risk1
4: Risk Register Examples for Cybersecurity Leaders4
5: Risk IT Framework, ISACA, 2009
6: IT Risk Management Framework, University of Toronto, 2017
7: Security Incident Reporting and Response, University of Toronto, 2017
8: Security Incident Reporting and Response, ISACA, 2019
Risk Appetite: Linking Strategy, Risk and Performance, ISACA, 2012
Risk Appetite and Tolerance, ISACA Journal, Volume 4, 2013
The Control Process | Principles of Management2
Control Management: What it is + Why It’s Essential | Adobe Workfront5
What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?
Segment the system on its own network.
Ensure regular backups take place.
Virtualize the system in the cloud.
Install antivirus software on the system.
The best recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system is to segment the system on its own network. Network segmentation is the process of dividing a network into smaller subnetworks or segments, based on different criteria, such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation helps to isolate the system from the rest of the network, and limit the exposure and access to the system. Network segmentation also helps to improve the performance and security of the network, by reducing the network traffic and congestion, and enhancing the monitoring and control capabilities. The other options are not as effective as segmenting the system on its own network, although they may provide some additional protection or recovery options. Ensuring regular backups take place, virtualizing the system in the cloud, and installing antivirus software on the system are all measures that can helpto reduce the risk of data loss or system damage, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of security patches and updates for the system. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.1, page 3-11.
Which of the following is the BEST course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring?
Perform a risk assessment.
Perform root cause analysis.
Initiate disciplinary action.
Update the incident response plan.
An incident is an unplanned event that disrupts or degrades the normal operation or performance of an IT service, system, or network1. An incident can cause various negative impacts, such as service outages, data losses, security breaches, or customer dissatisfaction2. An incident can recur if the underlying cause or problem of the incident is not properly identified and resolved3.
The best course of action to help reduce the probability of an incident recurring is to perform root cause analysis. Root cause analysis is a systematic process of finding and eliminating the fundamental cause or problem that led to the incident4. Root cause analysis can help to:
Prevent or minimize the recurrence of the incident by addressing the source of the problem, not just the symptoms or effects
Identify and implement corrective or preventive actions that can effectively resolve or mitigate the problem
Learn from the incident and improve the IT service, system, or network quality and reliability
Enhance the incident management and problem management processes and capabilities5
References = What is an Incident?, Incident Management - Wikipedia, Problem Management - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis - Wikipedia, Root Cause Analysis: A Guide for Business Leaders
Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?
Escalate to senior management.
Transfer the risk.
Implement monitoring controls.
Recalculate the risk.
The risk practitioner’s best course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations is to escalate to senior management, as they have the authority and responsibility to decide on the appropriate risk response and allocate the necessary resources. Transferring the risk, implementing monitoring controls, and recalculating the risk are possible risk responses, but they require senior management approval and direction. References = Risk Scenarios Toolkit, page 19; CRISC Review Manual, 7th Edition, page 107.
Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?
Comparing the actual process with the documented process
Reviewing access logs for user activity
Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees
Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy
 The best way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process is to reconcile a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. This will ensure that the access rights of the employees who have left the organization are revoked in a timely and accurate manner, and that there are no orphaned or unauthorized accounts that could pose a security risk. Comparing the actual process with the documented process, reviewing access logs for user activity, and reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy are also useful methods, but they are not as direct and conclusive as reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage?
Deleting the data from the file system
Cryptographically scrambling the data
Formatting the cloud storage at the block level
Degaussing the cloud storage media
The best way to ensure data is properly sanitized while in cloud storage is to cryptographically scramble the data. Cryptographic scrambling is the process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm. Cryptographic scrambling protects the data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion, even if the cloud storage provider or a third party gains access to the data. Cryptographic scrambling also ensures that the data can be restored to its original form using the same key or algorithm, if needed. The other options are not as effective as cryptographic scrambling, because they either do not completely remove the data,or they make it impossible to recover the data. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 3-21.
Senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization's business partners. The BEST course of action for a risk practitioner would be to submit a report to senior management containing the:
possible risk and suggested mitigation plans.
design of controls to encrypt the data to be shared.
project plan for classification of the data.
summary of data protection and privacy legislation.
The best course of action for a risk practitioner when senior management is deciding whether to share confidential data with the organization’s business partners is to submit a report to senior management containing the possible risk and suggested mitigation plans. A risk practitioner is a professional who is responsible for identifying, assessing, and managing the risks that could affect the organization’s objectives or operations. A risk practitioner should provide senior management with the information and guidance they need to make informed and effective decisions regarding the sharing of confidential data. A risk practitioner should submit a report that outlines the possible risk scenarios, such as data loss, theft, or compromise, and theirlikelihood and impact. A risk practitioner should also suggest mitigation plans, such as encryption, access control, monitoring, or contractual agreements, that could reduce or transfer the risk. The other options are not as effective as submitting a report containing the possible risk and suggested mitigation plans, although they may be part of or derived from the report. Designing controls to encrypt the data to be shared, developing a project plan for classification of the data, and summarizing the data protection and privacy legislation are all activities or outcomes that could be included or referenced in thereport, but they are not the best course of action for a risk practitioner. References = CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.1, page 2-23
An organization is reviewing a contract for a Software as a Service (SaaS) sales application with a 99.9% uptime service level agreement (SLA). Which of the following BEST describes ownership of availability risk?
The risk is shared by both organizations.
The liability for the risk is owned by the cloud provider.
The risk is transferred to the cloud provider.
The liability for the risk is owned by the sales department.
Even with SLAs in place, both parties must manage aspects of availability risk. The provider manages infrastructure, while the organization is responsible for business impact.
An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?
The balanced scorecard
A cost-benefit analysis
The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning
 A cost-benefit analysis is a tool that compares the costs and benefits of different alternatives, such as updating software or continuing to use end-of-life software. A cost-benefit analysis can provide the mosthelpful information to justify investing in updated software, as it can show the potential savings, benefits, and risks of each option, and help the decision-makers choose the best course of action. A cost-benefit analysis can also include qualitative factors, such as security, compliance, performance, and customer satisfaction, that may be affected by the software update. References = ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 231. CRISC by Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 8. CRISC: Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 231. CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control – Question231.
Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the
use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?
Al systems need to be available continuously.
Al systems can be affected by bias.
Al systems are expensive to maintain.
Al systems can provide false positives.
An IT risk practitioner has determined that mitigation activities differ from an approved risk action plan. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?
Report the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO).
Validate the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures.
Update the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions.
Revert the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained
This can help to:
Ensure that the implemented measures are effective and efficient in reducing the risk level to an acceptable level, and that they are aligned with the risk appetite and tolerance of the organization2.
Identify and address any gaps, issues, or challenges that may arise from the deviation from the approved risk action plan, and recommend and implement appropriate improvement actions or contingency plans3.
Communicate and report the results and outcomes of the validation to the relevant stakeholders, such as the risk owner, the risk committee, or the chief risk officer, and obtain their feedback and approval4.
The other options are not the best course of action, because:
Reporting the observation to the chief risk officer (CRO) is not the best course of action, as it may not provide sufficient information or evidence to support the deviation from the approved risk action plan. The CRO may not be able to evaluate or approve the implemented risk mitigation measures without knowing their adequacy or impact on the risk level5.
Updating the risk register with the implemented risk mitigation actions is not the best course of action, as it may not reflect the current or accurate risk status or performance. The risk register is a document that records and summarizes the key information and data about the identified risks and the risk responses6. Updating the risk register without validating the adequacy of the implemented risk mitigation measures may create inconsistencies or inaccuracies in the risk register.
Reverting the implemented mitigation measures until approval is obtained is not the best course of action, as it may expose the organization to higher or unacceptable levels of risk. Reverting the implemented mitigation measures may undo or negate the benefits or outcomes of the risk mitigation, and may increase the likelihood or impact of the risk events7.
References =
ISACA Risk Starter Kit provides risk management templates and policies
Risk Appetite and Tolerance - CIO Wiki
Risk Monitoring and Review - The National Academies Press
Risk Reporting - CIO Wiki
Chief Risk Officer - CIO Wiki
Risk Register - CIO Wiki
Risk Mitigation - CIO Wiki
Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?
Requiring a printer access code for each user
Using physical controls to access the printer room
Using video surveillance in the printer room
Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured
The best control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information when print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room is to require a printer access code for each user. A printer access code is a unique and secret code that the user needs to enter on the printer device to release and retrieve the print job. Requiring a printer access code for each user is the best control, as it helps to prevent or limit the unauthorized access, viewing, or copying ofthe confidential information on the print job, especially if the print job is left unattended or forgotten on the printer device. Requiring a printer access code for each user also helps to ensure the accountability and traceability of the user who sent the print job, and to support the audit and monitoring of the printer activity. Using physical controls to access the printer room, using video surveillance in the printer room, and ensuring printer parameters are properly configured are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as requiring a printer access code for each user, as they do not directly prevent or limit the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information on the print job, and they may not deter or detect the unauthorized access or misuse of the print job by the authorized users who have access to the printer room or device. References = CRISC Review Manual, 6th Edition, ISACA, 2015, page 217.
Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?
Role-specific technical training
Change management audit
Change control process
Risk assessment
The best way to mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates is to implement a change control process. A change control process is a set of procedures that ensures that any changes to the infrastructure are planned, approved, tested, implemented, and documented in a consistent and controlled manner. A change control process helps to reduce the risk of errors, conflicts, disruptions, or security breaches that could result from infrastructure updates. A change controlprocess also helps to monitor and evaluate the impact and effectiveness of the changes, and to ensure that they align with the enterprise’s objectives and requirements. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section 3.3.1, page 1391
Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?
The scenarios are based on past incidents.
The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.
The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.
The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.
 Risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe potential events or actions that could affect the achievement of enterprise objectives. The design of relevant risk scenarios should consider the following factors: the risk appetite and tolerance of the enterprise, the key risk indicators and risk drivers, the potential impact and likelihood of the scenarios, and the alignment with the risk management capabilities of the enterprise. The scenarios should be realistic, plausible, and consistent with the enterprise’s context and objectives. The scenarios should also be reviewed and updated periodically to reflect changes in the internal and external environment. The alignment with the risk management capabilities is the most critical factor, as it ensures that the scenarios are relevant for the decision making and risk response processes of the enterprise. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.2, pp. 67-69.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?
Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities
Providing guidance on the design of effective controls
Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)
Providing benchmarking on other organizations' risk management programs
The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:
facilitate resource availability.
help ensure objectives are met.
safeguard corporate assets.
help prevent operational losses.
According to the What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important? article, risk management is the systematic process of identifying, assessing, and mitigating threats or uncertainties that can affect your organization. The primary goal of a risk management program is to help ensure objectives are met, by aligning the risk management process with the organization’s strategy, vision, mission, values, and objectives. By having a risk management program, an organization can identify potential problems before they occur and have a plan for addressing them, as well as monitor and report on the effectiveness of the risk responses. This can help the organization to achieve its desired outcomes and create value for its stakeholders. References = What Is Risk Management & Why Is It Important?
A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?
Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues
Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents
Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation
Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business
When prioritizing IT risks, scenarios with thehighest impact on business objectivesshould be the primary focus. ISACA’s CRISC guidance notes that risks should be prioritized by considering both their likelihood and their potential impact on organizational goals. This ensures resources and attention are focused on the most significant threats.
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A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?
Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)
Key risk indicators (KRIs)
Centralized risk register
Risk heat map
A risk heat map is a graphical tool that displays the overall risk of the project to senior management by showing the probability and impact of individual risks in a matrix format. A risk heat map can help to prioritize the risks, communicate the risk exposure, and monitor the risk response. A risk heat map can also show the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the organization, as well as the residual risk after the risk response. The other options are not the most effective ways to represent the overall risk of the project to senior management, although they may be useful or complementary to the risk heat map. Aggregated key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the performance of the project against the objectives, but they do not show the uncertainty or variability of the project outcomes. Key risk indicators (KRIs) are metrics that measure the level of risk or the effectiveness of the risk response, but they do not show the relationship between the probability and impact of the risks. A centralizedrisk register is a document that records the details of the individual risks, such as the description, category, cause, effect, probability, impact, response, and status, but it does not show the overall risk of the project in a visual or concise way. References = Managing overall project risk, Project Risk Management – Quick Reference Guide, 10 Common Project Risks (Plus the Steps To Solve Them), What Is Project Risk Management: Benefits, Challenges, Best Practices
An IT project risk was identified during a monthly steering committee meeting. Which of the following roles is BEST positioned to approve the risk mitigation response?
Product owner
IT manager
Project sponsor
Project coordinator
The project sponsor holds the ultimate accountability for the project's success and is typically responsible for approving significant decisions, including risk mitigation responses. Their role involves ensuring that the project aligns with business objectives and that risks are managed appropriately to achieve desired outcomes.
TESTED 16 Aug 2025