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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Question and Answers

Question # 4

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery'?

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

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Question # 5

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Question # 6

Recovery the objectives (RTOs) should be based on

A.

minimum tolerable downtime

B.

minimum tolerable loss of data.

C.

maximum tolerable downtime.

D.

maximum tolerable loss of data

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Question # 7

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Developing contingency plans for key processes

B.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register

D.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 8

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 9

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

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Question # 10

Which of the following provides a risk practitioner with the MOST reliable evidence of a third party's ability to protect the confidentiality of sensitive corporate information?

A.

A signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Control self-assessment (CSA) results

C.

External audit reports

D.

Internal audit reports

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Question # 11

Who should be responsible for determining which stakeholders need to be involved in the development of a risk scenario?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Risk practitioner

C.

Compliance manager

D.

Control owner

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Question # 12

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Question # 13

Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Implement control monitoring.

B.

Improve project management methodology.

C.

Reassess the risk periodically.

D.

Identify compensating controls.

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Question # 14

Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the

use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?

A.

Al systems need to be available continuously.

B.

Al systems can be affected by bias.

C.

Al systems are expensive to maintain.

D.

Al systems can provide false positives.

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Question # 15

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Question # 16

When reporting risk assessment results to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to include to enable risk-based decision making?

A.

Risk action plans and associated owners

B.

Recent audit and self-assessment results

C.

Potential losses compared to treatment cost

D.

A list of assets exposed to the highest risk

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Question # 17

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Question # 18

Several network user accounts were recently created without the required management approvals. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Conduct a comprehensive compliance review.

B.

Develop incident response procedures for noncompliance.

C.

Investigate the root cause of noncompliance.

D.

Declare a security breach and Inform management.

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Question # 19

An organization is planning to move its application infrastructure from on-premises to the cloud. Which of the following is the BEST course of the actin to address the risk associated with data transfer if the relationship is terminated with the vendor?

A.

Meet with the business leaders to ensure the classification of their transferred data is in place

B.

Ensure the language in the contract explicitly states who is accountable for each step of the data transfer process

C.

Collect requirements for the environment to ensure the infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is configured appropriately.

D.

Work closely with the information security officer to ensure the company has the proper security controls in place.

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Question # 20

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

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Question # 21

Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?

A.

Piloting courses with focus groups

B.

Using reputable third-party training programs

C.

Reviewing content with senior management

D.

Creating modules for targeted audiences

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Question # 22

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

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Question # 23

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

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Question # 24

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for risk treatment decisions?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Business manager

C.

Data owner

D.

Risk manager

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Question # 25

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

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Question # 26

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 27

Which of the following describes the relationship between Key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIS)?

A.

KCIs are independent from KRIs KRIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs help in determining risk appetite.

C.

KCIs are defined using data from KRIs.

D.

KCIs provide input for KRIs

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Question # 28

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

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Question # 29

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Question # 30

Which of the following is the BEST success criterion for control implementation?

A.

Adequate resources are allocated to perform the control.

B.

Responsibilities for control execution are properly defined.

C.

Risk is at an acceptable level after the control is in place.

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) for the control are properly defined.

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Question # 31

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Question # 32

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

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Question # 33

Which of the following MUST be captured in a risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk register details

D.

Risk financial impact

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Question # 34

An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization's industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?

A.

Average the ransomware attack frequencies together

B.

Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types

C.

Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom

D.

Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation

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Question # 35

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

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Question # 36

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization’s use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis

B.

Transfer risk to the third party

C.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement

D.

Identify compensating controls

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Question # 37

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Question # 38

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

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Question # 39

Senior management has asked a risk practitioner to develop technical risk scenarios related to a recently developed enterprise resource planning (ERP) system. These scenarios will be owned by the system manager. Which of the following would be the BEST method to use when developing the scenarios?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Delphi technique

C.

Bottom-up approach

D.

Top-down approach

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Question # 40

What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?

A.

To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents

B.

To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures

C.

To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices

D.

To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels

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Question # 41

A risk practitioner has recently become aware of unauthorized use of confidential personal information within the organization. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Establish database activity monitoring

B.

Report the incident to the chief privacy officer (CPO)

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Escalate the issue to the data owner

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Question # 42

What is the BEST recommendation to reduce the risk associated with potential system compromise when a vendor stops releasing security patches and updates for a business-critical legacy system?

A.

Segment the system on its own network.

B.

Ensure regular backups take place.

C.

Virtualize the system in the cloud.

D.

Install antivirus software on the system.

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Question # 43

Which of the following risk activities is BEST facilitated by enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

Aligning business unit risk responses to organizational priorities

B.

Determining attack likelihood per business unit

C.

Adjusting business unit risk tolerances

D.

Customizing incident response plans for each business unit

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Question # 44

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

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Question # 45

Which of the following would MOST likely drive the need to review and update key performance indicators (KPIs) for critical IT assets?

A.

The outsourcing of related IT processes

B.

Outcomes of periodic risk assessments

C.

Changes in service level objectives

D.

Findings from continuous monitoring

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Question # 46

Which of the following BEST enables risk-based decision making in support of a business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

Impact analysis

B.

Control analysis

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Threat analysis

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Question # 47

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

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Question # 48

WhichT5f the following is the MOST effective way to promote organization-wide awareness of data security in response to an increase in regulatory penalties for data leakage?

A.

Enforce sanctions for noncompliance with security procedures.

B.

Conduct organization-w>de phishing simulations.

C.

Require training on the data handling policy.

D.

Require regular testing of the data breach response plan.

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Question # 49

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 50

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 51

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 52

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

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Question # 53

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

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Question # 54

From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?

A.

Updates align with strategic business objectives.

B.

Updates will be approved by the risk owners.

C.

Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.

D.

Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.

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Question # 55

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 56

A service provider is managing a client’s servers. During an audit of the service, a noncompliant control is discovered that will not be resolved before the next audit because the client cannot afford the downtime required to correct the issue. The service provider’s MOST appropriate action would be to:

A.

develop a risk remediation plan overriding the client's decision

B.

make a note for this item in the next audit explaining the situation

C.

insist that the remediation occur for the benefit of other customers

D.

ask the client to document the formal risk acceptance for the provider

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Question # 57

Which of the following is the MOST important update for keeping the risk register current?

A.

Modifying organizational structures when lines of business merge

B.

Adding new risk assessment results annually

C.

Retiring risk scenarios that have been avoided

D.

Changing risk owners due to employee turnover

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Question # 58

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

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Question # 59

Which of the following will provide the BEST measure of compliance with IT policies?

A.

Evaluate past policy review reports.

B.

Conduct regular independent reviews.

C.

Perform penetration testing.

D.

Test staff on their compliance responsibilities.

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Question # 60

Risk mitigation procedures should include:

A.

buying an insurance policy.

B.

acceptance of exposures

C.

deployment of counter measures.

D.

enterprise architecture implementation.

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Question # 61

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

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Question # 62

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.

B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.

C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.

D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.

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Question # 63

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 64

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

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Question # 66

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Question # 67

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

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Question # 68

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 69

Which of the following groups represents the first line of defense?

A.

Internal audit

B.

Compliance committee

C.

External audit

D.

Operational managers

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Question # 70

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting risk indicators (KRIs)? The ability to:

A.

Monitor the performance of a process

B.

Assess the risk associated with risk scenarios

C.

Measure changes in the threat landscape

D.

Refine the organization’s risk appetite

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Question # 71

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

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Question # 72

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

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Question # 73

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 74

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 75

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 76

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 77

Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?

A.

Defined remediation plans

B.

Management sign-off on the scope

C.

Manual testing of device vulnerabilities

D.

Visibility into all networked devices

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Question # 78

Which of the following MUST be updated to maintain an IT risk register?

A.

Expected frequency and potential impact

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Enterprise-wide IT risk assessment

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 79

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 80

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

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Question # 81

IT disaster recovery point objectives (RPOs) should be based on the:

A.

maximum tolerable downtime.

B.

maximum tolerable loss of data.

C.

need of each business unit.

D.

type of business.

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Question # 82

Which of the following BEST enables risk mitigation associated with software licensing noncompliance?

A.

Document IT inventory management procedures.

B.

Conduct annual reviews of license expiration dates.

C.

Perform automated vulnerability scans.

D.

Implement automated IT asset management controls.

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Question # 83

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure software engineers test patches before release to the production environment?

A.

To detect incompatibilities that might disrupt the operation

B.

To provide assurance that deployed patches have been properly authorized

C.

To understand how long it will take to deploy the patch

D.

To support availability by authorizing the release of the patch at the appropriate time

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Question # 84

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

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Question # 85

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

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Question # 86

An IT risk practitioner is evaluating an organization's change management controls over the last six months. The GREATEST concern would be an increase in:

A.

rolled back changes below management's thresholds.

B.

change-related exceptions per month.

C.

the average implementation time for changes.

D.

number of user stories approved for implementation.

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Question # 87

A risk practitioner has become aware of production data being used in a test environment. Which of the following should be the practitioner's PRIMARY concern?

A.

Sensitivity of the data

B.

Readability of test data

C.

Security of the test environment

D.

Availability of data to authorized staff

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Question # 88

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 89

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 90

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

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Question # 91

Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?

A.

Audit findings

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Industry best practices

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Question # 92

An organization's risk management team wants to develop IT risk scenarios to show the impact of collecting and storing credit card information. Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive approach to capture this scenario?

A.

Top-down analysis

B.

Event tree analysis

C.

Control gap analysis

D.

Bottom-up analysis

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Question # 93

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

A.

Perform an in-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

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Question # 94

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the lack of proper control monitoring?

A.

There is potential for an increase in audit findings

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) may not be reliable

C.

The potential for risk realization is increased

D.

Control inefficiencies may go undetected

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Question # 95

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Question # 96

An organization is developing a risk universe to create a holistic view of its overall risk profile. Which of the following is the GREATEST barrier to achieving the initiative's objectives?

A.

Lack of cross-functional risk assessment workshops within the organization

B.

Lack of common understanding of the organization's risk culture

C.

Lack of quantitative methods to aggregate the total risk exposure

D.

Lack of an integrated risk management system to aggregate risk scenarios

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Question # 97

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when a shadow IT application is identified in a business owner's business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Include the application in the business continuity plan (BCP).

B.

Determine the business purpose of the application.

C.

Segregate the application from the network.

D.

Report the finding to management.

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Question # 98

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 99

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a cloud service provider. The provider's controls are inadequate for the organization's level of risk tolerance. As a result, the organization has internally implemented additional backup and recovery controls. Which risk response has been adopted?

A.

Mitigation

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 100

During an IT department reorganization, the manager of a risk mitigation action plan was replaced. The new manager has begun implementing a new control after identifying a more effective option. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Communicate the decision to the risk owner for approval

B.

Seek approval from the previous action plan manager.

C.

Identify an owner for the new control.

D.

Modify the action plan in the risk register.

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Question # 101

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Question # 102

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

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Question # 103

Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?

A.

Transfer the risk.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.

D.

Implement specific monitoring controls.

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Question # 104

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

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Question # 105

Which of the following would MOST effectively reduce risk associated with an increase of online transactions on a retailer website?

A.

Scalable infrastructure

B.

A hot backup site

C.

Transaction limits

D.

Website activity monitoring

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Question # 106

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk trends over time?

A.

Ongoing availability of data

B.

Ability to aggregate data

C.

Ability to predict trends

D.

Availability of automated reporting systems

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Question # 107

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of continuous monitoring?

A.

Optimizing utilization of personnel

B.

Detecting control errors in a timely manner

C.

Aligning operations with policies and procedures

D.

Minimizing the magnitude of loss from an event

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Question # 108

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for monitoring activities performed in a production database environment?

A.

Ensuring that database changes are correctly applied

B.

Enforcing that changes are authorized

C.

Deterring illicit actions of database administrators

D.

Preventing system developers from accessing production data

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Question # 109

An organization has an approved bring your own device (BYOD) policy. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the security risk associated with the inappropriate use of enterprise applications on the devices?

A.

Periodically review application on BYOD devices

B.

Include BYOD in organizational awareness programs

C.

Implement BYOD mobile device management (MDM) controls.

D.

Enable a remote wee capability for BYOD devices

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Question # 110

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

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Question # 111

Which of the following is MOST important requirement to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor contract to ensure data is protected?

A.

The vendor must provide periodic independent assurance reports.

B.

The vendor must host data in a specific geographic location.

C.

The vendor must be held liable for regulatory fines for failure to protect data.

D.

The vendor must participate in an annual vendor performance review.

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Question # 112

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's patch management process?

A.

Average time to implement patches after vendor release

B.

Number of patches tested prior to deployment

C.

Increase in the frequency of patches deployed into production

D.

Percent of patches implemented within established timeframe

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Question # 113

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

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Question # 114

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

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Question # 115

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

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Question # 116

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for documenting the performance of controls?

A.

Obtaining management sign-off

B.

Demonstrating effective risk mitigation

C.

Justifying return on investment

D.

Providing accurate risk reporting

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Question # 117

As part of its risk strategy, an organization decided to transition its financial system from a cloud-based provider to an internally managed system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Reassess whether the risk responses properly address known risks and vulnerabilities

B.

Analyze the risk register to identify potential updates and changes

C.

Evaluate existing control test plans of the system for potential changes

D.

Update the processes within impacted financial control assessments

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Question # 118

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for:

A.

data classification and labeling.

B.

data logging and monitoring.

C.

data retention and destruction.

D.

data mining and analytics.

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Question # 119

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

A.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

B.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

C.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

D.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

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Question # 120

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

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Question # 121

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when prioritizing limited resources needed to implement overdue corrective actions arising from a recent internal audit?

A.

Level of risk impact

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Key control indicator (KCI) measures

D.

Availability of other technical controls

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Question # 122

The PRIMARY reason for tracking the status of risk mitigation plans is to ensure:

A.

the proposed controls are implemented as scheduled.

B.

security controls are tested prior to implementation.

C.

compliance with corporate policies.

D.

the risk response strategy has been decided.

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Question # 123

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

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Question # 124

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

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Question # 125

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response

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Question # 126

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?

A.

Enforce password changes.

B.

Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).

C.

Enforce role-based authentication.

D.

Enforce password encryption.

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Question # 127

One of an organization's key IT systems cannot be patched because the patches interfere with critical business application functionalities. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Additional mitigating controls should be identified.

B.

The system should not be used until the application is changed

C.

The organization's IT risk appetite should be adjusted.

D.

The associated IT risk should be accepted by management.

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Question # 128

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

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Question # 129

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 130

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

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Question # 131

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

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Question # 132

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

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Question # 133

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

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Question # 134

When reviewing the business continuity plan (BCP) of an online sales order system, a risk practitioner notices that the recovery time objective (RTO) has a shorter lime than what is defined in the disaster recovery plan (DRP). Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address this concern?

A.

Adopt the RTO defined in the BCR

B.

Update the risk register to reflect the discrepancy.

C.

Adopt the RTO defined in the DRP.

D.

Communicate the discrepancy to the DR manager for follow-up.

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Question # 135

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Question # 136

An effective control environment is BEST indicated by controls that:

A.

minimize senior management's risk tolerance.

B.

manage risk within the organization's risk appetite.

C.

reduce the thresholds of key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

are cost-effective to implement

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Question # 137

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Question # 138

The BEST way to improve a risk register is to ensure the register:

A.

is updated based upon significant events.

B.

documents possible countermeasures.

C.

contains the risk assessment completion date.

D.

is regularly audited.

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Question # 139

An organization's business gap analysis reveals the need for a robust IT risk strategy. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's PRIMARY consideration when participating in development of the new strategy?

A.

Scale of technology

B.

Risk indicators

C.

Risk culture

D.

Proposed risk budget

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Question # 140

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 141

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

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Question # 142

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

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Question # 143

Which of the following data would be used when performing a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis of running the current business

B.

Cost of regulatory compliance

C.

Projected impact of current business on future business

D.

Expected costs for recovering the business

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Question # 144

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Question # 145

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 146

Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk associated with IT and business misalignment?

A.

Establishing business key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Introducing an established framework for IT architecture

C.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Involving the business process owner in IT strategy

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Question # 147

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization?

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Communication plan

C.

Critical asset inventory

D.

Separation of duties

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Question # 148

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 149

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to ensure user access is maintained on a least-privilege basis?

A.

User authorization

B.

User recertification

C.

Change log review

D.

Access log monitoring

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Question # 150

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

A.

Changes in the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

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Question # 151

Which of the following criteria for assigning owners to IT risk scenarios provides the GREATEST benefit to an organization?

A.

The risk owner understands the effect of loss events on business operations.

B.

The risk owner is a member of senior leadership in the IT organization.

C.

The risk owner has strong technical aptitude across multiple business systems.

D.

The risk owner has extensive risk management experience.

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Question # 152

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

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Question # 153

Which of the following is the PRIMARY concern for a risk practitioner regarding an organization's adoption of innovative big data analytics capabilities?

A.

It may be expensive to maintain a data lake.

B.

It may be difficult to find experts who can develop analytical queries.

C.

There may be a lack of documented processes for big data analysis.

D.

Analytics methods may identify someone who was previously de-identified.

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Question # 154

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

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Question # 155

Which of the following is the MAIN reason for analyzing risk scenarios?

A.

Identifying additional risk scenarios

B.

Updating the heat map

C.

Assessing loss expectancy

D.

Establishing a risk appetite

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Question # 156

Effective risk communication BEST benefits an organization by:

A.

helping personnel make better-informed decisions

B.

assisting the development of a risk register.

C.

improving the effectiveness of IT controls.

D.

increasing participation in the risk assessment process.

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Question # 157

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Question # 158

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

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Question # 159

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

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Question # 160

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

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Question # 161

The PRIMARY reason for prioritizing risk scenarios is to:

A.

provide an enterprise-wide view of risk

B.

support risk response tracking

C.

assign risk ownership

D.

facilitate risk response decisions.

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Question # 162

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.

B.

Improving compliance with control standards.

C.

Providing early detection of control degradation.

D.

Reducing the number of incidents.

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Question # 163

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

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Question # 164

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important course of action after learning that an organization's industry peers have experienced an increase in ransomware attacks?

A.

Recommend additional preventive controls to reduce residual risk.

B.

Document this scenario as a risk event for further risk analysis.

C.

Propose risk acceptance until the organization is directly affected.

D.

Raise a security incident to proactively prevent similar attacks.

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Question # 165

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

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Question # 166

What is the BEST approach for determining the inherent risk of a scenario when the actual likelihood of the risk is unknown?

A.

Use the severity rating to calculate risk.

B.

Classify the risk scenario as low-probability.

C.

Use the highest likelihood identified by risk management.

D.

Rely on range-based estimates provided by subject-matter experts.

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Question # 167

To drive effective risk management, it is MOST important that an organization's policy framework is:

A.

Approved by relevant stakeholders.

B.

Aligned to the functional business structure.

C.

Included in employee onboarding materials.

D.

Mapped to an industry-standard framework.

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Question # 168

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

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Question # 169

A systems interruption has been traced to a personal USB device plugged into the corporate network by an IT employee who bypassed internal control procedures. Of the following, who should be accountable?

A.

Business continuity manager (BCM)

B.

Human resources manager (HRM)

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 170

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 171

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization's IT asset inventory?

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

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Question # 172

The PRIMARY benefit of conducting a risk workshop using a top-down approach instead of a bottom-up approach is the ability to:

A.

identify specific project risk.

B.

obtain a holistic view of IT strategy risk.

C.

understand risk associated with complex processes.

D.

incorporate subject matter expertise.

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Question # 173

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 174

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using IT risk scenarios?

A.

They support compliance with regulations.

B.

They provide evidence of risk assessment.

C.

They facilitate communication of risk.

D.

They enable the use of key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 175

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Question # 176

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

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Question # 177

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 178

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

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Question # 179

What is MOST important for the risk practitioner to understand when creating an initial IT risk register?

A.

Enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

Control environment

C.

IT objectives

D.

Organizational objectives

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Question # 180

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Question # 181

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 182

Following an acquisition, the acquiring company's risk practitioner has been asked to update the organization's IT risk profile What is the MOST important information to review from the acquired company to facilitate this task?

A.

Internal and external audit reports

B.

Risk disclosures in financial statements

C.

Risk assessment and risk register

D.

Business objectives and strategies

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Question # 183

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to examine a post-implementation review report for a control automation tool?

A.

To verify that budget for the project is managed effectively

B.

To confirm compliance with project management methodology

C.

To ensure the risk is managed to an acceptable level

D.

To ensure audit findings are addressed in a timely manner

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Question # 184

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 185

Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Comprehensive security training of developers

B.

Validated security requirements and design documents

C.

Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements

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Question # 186

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Question # 187

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 188

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

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Question # 189

A highly regulated enterprise is developing a new risk management plan to specifically address legal and regulatory risk scenarios What should be done FIRST by IT governance to support this effort?

A.

Request a regulatory risk reporting methodology

B.

Require critical success factors (CSFs) for IT risks.

C.

Establish IT-specific compliance objectives

D.

Communicate IT key risk indicators (KRIs) and triggers

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Question # 190

Which organizational role should be accountable for ensuring information assets are appropriately classified?

A.

Data protection officer

B.

Chief information officer (CIO)

C.

Information asset custodian

D.

Information asset owner

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Question # 191

How does an organization benefit by purchasing cyber theft insurance?

A.

It decreases the amount of organizational loss if risk events occur.

B.

It justifies the acceptance of risk associated with cyber theft events.

C.

It transfers risk ownership along with associated liabilities to a third party.

D.

It decreases the likelihood of risk events occurring.

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Question # 192

A risk practitioner recently discovered that sensitive data from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following i the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment

B.

Implement equivalent security in the test environment.

C.

Prevent the use of production data for test purposes

D.

Mask data before being transferred to the test environment.

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Question # 193

Which of the following situations reflects residual risk?

A.

Risk that is present before risk acceptance has been finalized

B.

Risk that is removed after a risk acceptance has been finalized

C.

Risk that is present before mitigation controls have been applied

D.

Risk that remains after mitigation controls have been applied

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Question # 194

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

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Question # 195

Which of the following BEST confirms the existence and operating effectiveness of information systems controls?

A.

Self-assessment questionnaires completed by management

B.

Review of internal audit and third-party reports

C.

Management review and sign-off on system documentation

D.

First-hand direct observation of the controls in operation

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Question # 196

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

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Question # 197

Which of the following activities is MOST likely to be assigned to the second line in the three lines model?

A.

Validating whether IT risk control systems are operational

B.

Monitoring IT security policy compliance

C.

Calculating phishing attack key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Appropriately configuring the web application firewall (WAF)

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Question # 198

Which of the following is the MOST critical factor to consider when determining an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Fiscal management practices

B.

Business maturity

C.

Budget for implementing security

D.

Management culture

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Question # 199

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Question # 200

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to identify the consequences of losing critical resources due to a disaster?

A.

Risk management action plans

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

What-if technique

D.

Tabletop exercise results

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Question # 201

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Question # 202

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

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Question # 203

The GREATEST benefit of introducing continuous monitoring to an IT control environment is that it:

A.

Enables timely detection of emerging risk

B.

Enables the collection of benchmarking data

C.

Identifies stakeholders involved in the process

D.

Helps to obtain buy-in for future IT investments

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Question # 204

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

A.

business purpose documentation and software license counts

B.

an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager

C.

documentation indicating the intended users of the application

D.

security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts

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Question # 205

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 206

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

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Question # 207

An organization's finance team is proposing the adoption of a blockchain technology to provide a secure method for moving funds. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Recommend permissionless blockchain.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Recommend permissioned blockchain.

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Question # 208

Which of the following BEST protects organizational data within a production cloud environment?

A.

Data encryption

B.

Continuous log monitoring

C.

Right to audit

D.

Data obfuscation

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Question # 209

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 210

Which of the following is the BEST approach to resolve a disagreement between stakeholders regarding the impact of a potential risk scenario?

A.

Modify the risk scenario to address stakeholder concerns.

B.

Calculate the historical impact of risk occurring at industry peers.

C.

Identify data that could be used to help quantify the risk.

D.

Use the highest value of potential impact suggested by the stakeholders.

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Question # 211

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

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Question # 212

Accountability for a particular risk is BEST represented in a:

A.

risk register

B.

risk catalog

C.

risk scenario

D.

RACI matrix

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Question # 213

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when communicating the risk associated with technology end-of-life to business owners?

A.

Cost and benefit

B.

Security and availability

C.

Maintainability and reliability

D.

Performance and productivity

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Question # 214

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

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Question # 215

Which of the following would be MOST useful to management when allocating resources to mitigate risk to the organization?

A.

Risk assessments

B.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

C.

Risk-based audits

D.

Vulnerability analysis

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Question # 216

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 217

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

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Question # 218

The BEST way to determine the likelihood of a system availability risk scenario is by assessing the:

A.

availability of fault tolerant software.

B.

strategic plan for business growth.

C.

vulnerability scan results of critical systems.

D.

redundancy of technical infrastructure.

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Question # 219

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

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Question # 220

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to compare the business impact analysis (BIA) against the organization's business continuity plan (BCP)?

A.

The results of the BIA quantify the BCP objectives and supporting technology for each operational area.

B.

The BCP provides detailed information on alternative facilities to use in case of business interruptions.

C.

The results of the BIA quantify the cost of the technology environment needed to restart each operational area.

D.

The BCP provides the backup and restoration procedures to follow in case of business interruptions.

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Question # 221

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 222

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 223

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of a control owner?

A.

To make risk-based decisions and own losses

B.

To ensure implemented controls mitigate risk

C.

To approve deviations from controls

D.

To design controls that will eliminate risk

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Question # 224

Which of the following provides The BEST information when determining whether to accept residual risk of a critical system to be implemented?

A.

Single loss expectancy (SLE)

B.

Cost of the information system

C.

Availability of additional compensating controls

D.

Potential business impacts are within acceptable levels

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Question # 225

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

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Question # 226

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

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Question # 227

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Question # 228

During a risk assessment, what should an assessor do after identifying threats to organizational assets?

A.

Request funding for the security program

B.

Determine threats to be reported to upper management

C.

Implement controls to achieve target risk levels

D.

Evaluate the controls currently in place

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Question # 229
A.

Ensure compliance with local legislation because it has a higher priority.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop mitigation options.

C.

Terminate the current cloud contract and migrate to a local cloud provider.

D.

Accept the risk because foreign legislation does not apply to the organization.

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Question # 230

During an internal IT audit, an active network account belonging to a former employee was identified. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Conduct a comprehensive review of access management processes.

B.

Declare a security incident and engage the incident response team.

C.

Conduct a comprehensive awareness session for system administrators.

D.

Evaluate system administrators' technical skills to identify if training is required.

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Question # 231

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Question # 232

When determining risk ownership, the MAIN consideration should be:

A.

who owns the business process.

B.

the amount of residual risk.

C.

who is responsible for risk mitigation.

D.

the total cost of risk treatment.

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Question # 233

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

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Question # 234

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

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Question # 235

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Question # 236

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

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Question # 237

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

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Question # 238

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk of noncompliance with data privacy best practices?

A.

Making data available to a larger audience of customers

B.

Data not being disposed according to the retention policy

C.

Personal data not being de-identified properly

D.

Data being used for purposes the data subjects have not opted into

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Question # 239

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to continuously manage after implementing a Zero Trust security model?

A.

Privileged user access reviews

B.

Integration with existing security protocols

C.

Policy enforcement inconsistencies

D.

Network segmentation errors

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Question # 240

The results of a risk assessment reveal risk scenarios with high impact and low likelihood of occurrence. Which of the following would be the BEST action to address these scenarios?

A.

Assemble an incident response team.

B.

Create a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Develop a risk response plan.

D.

Initiate a business impact analysis (BIA).

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Question # 241

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

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Question # 242

An organization has outsourced a critical process involving highly regulated data to a third party with servers located in a foreign country. Who is accountable for the confidentiality of this data?

A.

Third-party data custodian

B.

Data custodian

C.

Regional office executive

D.

Data owner

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Question # 243

It is MOST appropriate for changes to be promoted to production after they are:

A.

communicated to business management

B.

tested by business owners.

C.

approved by the business owner.

D.

initiated by business users.

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Question # 244

Several vulnerabilities have been identified in an organization’s core financial systems. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the associated risk.

B.

Determine the cost of remediation.

C.

Initiate the incident response plan.

D.

Remediate the vulnerabilities.

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Question # 245

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Question # 246

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 247

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

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Question # 248

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

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Question # 249
A.

Average time to contain security incidents

B.

Percentage of systems being monitored

C.

Number of false positives reported

D.

Number of personnel dedicated to security monitoring

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Question # 250

Which of the following is MOST important to consider before determining a response to a vulnerability?

A.

The likelihood and impact of threat events

B.

The cost to implement the risk response

C.

Lack of data to measure threat events

D.

Monetary value of the asset

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Question # 251

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

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Question # 252

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

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Question # 253

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Question # 254

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

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Question # 255

When creating a program to manage data privacy risk, which of the following is MOST important to ensure that the program is successful?

A.

Compliance with industry frameworks

B.

Alignment with applicable legal and regulatory requirements

C.

Approval of mitigating and compensating controls

D.

Adoption of mission and vision statements

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Question # 256

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

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Question # 257

Which of the following is the BEST reason to use qualitative measures to express residual risk levels related to emerging threats?

A.

Qualitative measures require less ongoing monitoring.

B.

Qualitative measures are better aligned to regulatory requirements.

C.

Qualitative measures are better able to incorporate expert judgment.

D.

Qualitative measures are easier to update.

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Question # 258

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

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Question # 259

A business delegates its application data management to the internal IT team. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data custodians

C.

Data analysts

D.

Data owners

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Question # 260

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

Full Access
Question # 261

An organization has allowed its cyber risk insurance to lapse while seeking a new insurance provider. The risk practitioner should report to management that the risk has been:

A.

transferred

B.

mitigated.

C.

accepted

D.

avoided

Full Access
Question # 262

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

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Question # 263

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 264

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization's risk taxonomy?

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

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Question # 265

A new risk practitioner finds that decisions for implementing risk response plans are not being made. Which of the following would MOST likely explain this situation?

A.

Risk ownership is not being assigned properly.

B.

The organization has a high level of risk appetite.

C.

Risk management procedures are outdated.

D.

The organization's risk awareness program is ineffective.

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Question # 266

Which of the following has the GREATEST impact on ensuring the alignment of the risk profile with business objectives?

A.

An effective enterprise-wide risk awareness program

B.

Senior management approval of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Stage gate reviews throughout the risk management process

D.

Incorporation of industry best practice benchmarks and standards

Full Access
Question # 267

An organization is considering adopting artificial intelligence (AI). Which of the

following is the risk practitioner's MOST important course of action?

A.

Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Ensure sufficient pre-implementation testing.

C.

Identify applicable risk scenarios.

D.

Identify the organization's critical data.

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Question # 268

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure adequate resources will be allocated to manage identified risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk within each business unit

B.

Reviewing risk ranking methodology

C.

Promoting an organizational culture of risk awareness

D.

Assigning risk ownership to appropriate roles

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Question # 269

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with excessive access by authorized users?

A.

Monitoring user activity using security logs

B.

Revoking access for users changing roles

C.

Granting access based on least privilege

D.

Conducting periodic reviews of authorizations granted

Full Access
Question # 270

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

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Question # 271

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Question # 272

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

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Question # 273

A bank recently incorporated blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

reflect the results of risk assessments.

B.

be available to all stakeholders.

C.

effectively support a business maturity model.

D.

be reviewed by the IT steering committee.

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Question # 274

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Question # 275

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

Full Access
Question # 276

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

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Question # 277

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

Full Access
Question # 278

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

Full Access
Question # 279

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a recovery point objective (RPO)?

A.

Latency of the alternate site

B.

Amount of acceptable data loss

C.

Time and resources for offsite backups

D.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan (BCP)

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Question # 280

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 281

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

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Question # 282

A risk practitioner has collaborated with subject matter experts from the IT department to develop a large list of potential key risk indicators (KRIs) for all IT operations within theorganization of the following, who should review the completed list and select the appropriate KRIs for implementation?

A.

IT security managers

B.

IT control owners

C.

IT auditors

D.

IT risk owners

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Question # 283

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 284

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

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Question # 285

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Question # 286

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Question # 287

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Question # 288

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the potential organizational impact of emerging privacy regulations?

A.

Evaluate the security architecture maturity.

B.

Map the new requirements to the existing control framework.

C.

Charter a privacy steering committee.

D.

Conduct a privacy impact assessment (PIA).

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Question # 289

After a high-profile systems breach at an organization s key vendor, the vendor has implemented additional mitigating controls. The vendor has voluntarily shared the following set of assessments:

Which of the assessments provides the MOST reliable input to evaluate residual risk in the vendor's control environment?

A.

External audit

B.

Internal audit

C.

Vendor performance scorecard

D.

Regulatory examination

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Question # 290

Which of the following resources is MOST helpful when creating a manageable set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Results of current and past risk assessments

B.

Organizational strategy and objectives

C.

Lessons learned from materialized risk scenarios

D.

Internal and external audit findings

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Question # 291

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

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Question # 292

Which of the following BEST enables senior management to make risk treatment decisions in line with the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Quantitative risk analysis

B.

Industry risk benchmarks

C.

Risk scenarios

D.

Risk remediation plans

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of reviewing security trends reported by a log monitoring system?

A.

Identification of process weaknesses

B.

Assessment of system performance

C.

Confirmation that risk is at acceptable levels

D.

Identification of emerging risk scenarios

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Question # 294

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 295

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 296

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

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Question # 297

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

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Question # 298

An organization is developing a plan to address new information security risks emerging from business changes. Which of the following BEST enables stakeholders to make decisions impacting organizational strategy?

A.

The impact of the new risk is clearly presented

B.

Benchmarking information is provided

C.

Technical expertise to address new risk scenarios is available

D.

The cost of implementing the strategy is within budget

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Question # 299

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

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Question # 300

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 301

Following a review of a third-party vendor, it is MOST important for an organization to ensure:

A.

results of the review are accurately reported to management.

B.

identified findings are reviewed by the organization.

C.

results of the review are validated by internal audit.

D.

identified findings are approved by the vendor.

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Question # 302

An organization is subject to a new regulation that requires nearly real-time recovery of its services following a disruption. Which of the following is the BEST way to manage the risk in this situation?

A.

Move redundant IT infrastructure to a closer location.

B.

Obtain insurance and ensure sufficient funds are available for disaster recovery.

C.

Review the business continuity plan (BCP) and align it with the new business needs.

D.

Outsource disaster recovery services to a third-party IT service provider.

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Question # 303

A public online information security training course is available to an organization's staff. The online course contains free-form discussion fields. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the organization's risk practitioner?

A.

The form may be susceptible to SQL injection attacks.

B.

Data is not encrypted in transit to the site.

C.

Proprietary corporate information may be disclosed.

D.

Staff nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) are not in place.

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Question # 304

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization's defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

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Question # 305

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

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Question # 306

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 307

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 308

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

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Question # 309

A key performance indicator (KPI) has been established to monitor the number of software changes that fail and must be re-implemented. An increase in the KPI indicates an ineffective:

A.

Preventive control

B.

Administrative control

C.

Corrective control

D.

Deterrent control

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Question # 310

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Question # 311

Which of the following would BEST mitigate the risk associated with reputational damage from inappropriate use of social media sites by employees?

A.

Validating employee social media accounts and passwords

B.

Monitoring Internet usage on employee workstations

C.

Disabling social media access from the organization's technology

D.

Implementing training and awareness programs

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Question # 312

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Question # 313

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 314

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are BEST utilized to provide a high-level overview of:

A.

control efficiency

B.

cost effectiveness

C.

return on investment (ROI)

D.

changes in risk tolerance

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Question # 315

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

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Question # 316

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

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Question # 317

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

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Question # 318

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

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Question # 319

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 320

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Question # 321

Which of the following is BEST measured by key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Historical trends of the organizational risk profile

B.

Cost efficiency of risk treatment plan projects

C.

Comprehensiveness of risk assessment procedures

D.

Effectiveness of organizational defense in depth

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Question # 322

An organization's risk register contains a large volume of risk scenarios that senior management considers overwhelming. Which of the following would BEST help to improve the risk register?

A.

Analyzing the residual risk components

B.

Performing risk prioritization

C.

Validating the risk appetite level

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 323

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

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Question # 324

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Question # 325

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

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Question # 326

When developing IT risk scenarios, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

The industry's threat profile.

B.

Incidents occurring at similar organizations.

C.

System performance thresholds.

D.

Organizational objectives.

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Question # 327

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 328

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 329

After the implementation of a remediation plan, an assessment of associated control design and operating effectiveness can determine the level of:

A.

residual risk.

B.

aggregated risk.

C.

audit risk.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 330

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

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Question # 331

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to continuously monitor IT-related risk?

A.

To redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance levels based on changes in risk factors

B.

To update the risk register to reflect changes in levels of identified and new IT-related risk

C.

To ensure risk levels are within acceptable limits of the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance

D.

To help identify root causes of incidents and recommend suitable long-term solutions

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Question # 332

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Question # 333

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

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Question # 334

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for a risk practitioner to identify stakeholders for each IT risk scenario?

A.

To ensure enterprise-wide risk management

B.

To establish control ownership

C.

To enable a comprehensive view of risk

D.

To identify key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 335

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 336

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 337

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?

A.

Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.

B.

Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.

C.

Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.

D.

There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.

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Question # 338

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of aggregating the impact of IT risk scenarios and reflecting the results in the enterprise risk register?

A.

To ensure IT risk appetite is communicated across the organization

B.

To ensure IT risk impact can be compared to the IT risk appetite

C.

To ensure IT risk ownership is assigned at the appropriate organizational level

D.

To ensure IT risk scenarios are consistently assessed within the organization

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Question # 339

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 340

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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Question # 341

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

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Question # 342

Which of the following is MOST important information to review when developing plans for using emerging technologies?

A.

Existing IT environment

B.

IT strategic plan

C.

Risk register

D.

Organizational strategic plan

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Question # 343

A rule-based data loss prevention {DLP) tool has recently been implemented to reduce the risk of sensitive data leakage. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this implementation?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk impact

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Question # 344

Sensitive data has been lost after an employee inadvertently removed a file from the premises, in violation of organizational policy. Which of the following controls MOST likely failed?

A.

Background checks

B.

Awareness training

C.

User access

D.

Policy management

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Question # 345

Which of the following is MOST important for developing effective key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Engaging sponsorship by senior management

B.

Utilizing data and resources internal to the organization

C.

Including input from risk and business unit management

D.

Developing in collaboration with internal audit

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Question # 346

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

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Question # 347

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Question # 348

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 350

Establishing and organizational code of conduct is an example of which type of control?

A.

Preventive

B.

Directive

C.

Detective

D.

Compensating

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Question # 351

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted when a global organization is required by law to implement a new data protection regulation across its operations?

A.

Risk ownership assignments

B.

Threat profile

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Risk profile

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Question # 352

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Question # 353

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 354

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure future risk levels do not exceed the organization's risk appetite?

A.

Establishing a series of key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Adding risk triggers to entries in the risk register.

C.

Implementing key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Developing contingency plans for key processes.

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Question # 355

Days before the realization of an acquisition, a data breach is discovered at the company to be acquired. For the accruing organization, this situation represents which of the following?

A.

Threat event

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk event

D.

Security incident

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Question # 356

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

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Question # 357

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with outsourcing network management to an external vendor who will have access to sensitive information assets?

A.

Prepare a skills matrix to illustrate tasks and required expertise.

B.

Require periodic security assessments of the vendor within the contract.

C.

Perform due diligence to enable holistic assessment of the vendor.

D.

Plan a phased approach for the transition of processes to the vendor.

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Question # 358

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

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Question # 359

A risk practitioner observed Vial a high number of pokey exceptions were approved by senior management. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action to determine root cause?

A.

Review the risk profile

B.

Review pokey change history

C.

interview the control owner

D.

Perform control testing

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Question # 360

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 361

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 362

Which of the following scenarios presents the GREATEST risk for a global organization when implementing a data classification policy?

A.

Data encryption has not been applied to all sensitive data across the organization.

B.

There are many data assets across the organization that need to be classified.

C.

Changes to information handling procedures are not documented.

D.

Changes to data sensitivity during the data life cycle have not been considered.

Full Access
Question # 363

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 364

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

Full Access
Question # 365

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

Full Access
Question # 366

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.

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Question # 367

After mapping generic risk scenarios to organizational security policies, the NEXT course of action should be to:

A.

record risk scenarios in the risk register for analysis.

B.

validate the risk scenarios for business applicability.

C.

reduce the number of risk scenarios to a manageable set.

D.

perform a risk analysis on the risk scenarios.

Full Access
Question # 368

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of establishing an organization's risk tolerance and appetite?

A.

To align with board reporting requirements

B.

To assist management in decision making

C.

To create organization-wide risk awareness

D.

To minimize risk mitigation efforts

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Question # 369

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Including trend analysis of risk metrics

B.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data

D.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

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Question # 370

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Full Access
Question # 371

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to help management prioritize risk response?

A.

Align business objectives to the risk profile.

B.

Assess risk against business objectives

C.

Implement an organization-specific risk taxonomy.

D.

Explain risk details to management.

Full Access
Question # 372
A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 373

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

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Question # 374

A review of an organization s controls has determined its data loss prevention {DLP) system is currently failing to detect outgoing emails containing credit card data. Which of the following would be MOST impacted?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Residual risk

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 375

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

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Question # 376

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

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Question # 377

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk action plans

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Question # 378

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

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Question # 379

Of the following, who is responsible for approval when a change in an application system is ready for release to production?

A.

Information security officer

B.

IT risk manager

C.

Business owner

D.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

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Question # 380

A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

obtain management approval for policy exception.

B.

develop an improved password software routine.

C.

select another application with strong password controls.

D.

continue the implementation with no changes.

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Question # 381

During an organization's simulated phishing email campaign, which of the following is the BEST indicator of a mature security awareness program?

A.

A high number of participants reporting the email

B.

A high number of participants deleting the email

C.

A low number of participants with questions for the help desk

D.

A low number of participants opening the email

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Question # 382

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a third-party cloud provider. Which of the following is the risk practitioner s BEST course of action?

A.

Accept the risk and document contingency plans for data disruption.

B.

Remove the associated risk scenario from the risk register due to avoidance.

C.

Mitigate the risk with compensating controls enforced by the third-party cloud provider.

D.

Validate the transfer of risk and update the register to reflect the change.

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Question # 383

Which of the following is the MOST important criteria for selecting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Historical data availability

B.

Implementation and reporting effort

C.

Ability to display trends

D.

Sensitivity and reliability

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Question # 384

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

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Question # 385

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

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Question # 386

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

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Question # 387

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 388

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 389

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

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Question # 390

Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Question # 391

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

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Question # 392

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 393

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

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Question # 394

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's risk management processes are mature?

A.

Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager

B.

Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners

C.

Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions

D.

The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans

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Question # 395

An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?

A.

Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.

B.

Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.

C.

Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.

D.

Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.

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Question # 396

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Question # 397

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

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Question # 398

In which of the following scenarios would a risk practitioner be required to provide the MOST justification for a risk assessment?

A.

Modeling a threat-based risk event

B.

Calculating mean time between failures (MTBF)

C.

Using a semi-quantitative approach

D.

Calculating adjusted loss expectancy (ALE)

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Question # 399

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Question # 400

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 401

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when managing a risk event related to theft and disclosure of customer information?

A.

Protecting the organization from negative publicity

B.

Performing a root cause analysis to prevent incident recurrence

C.

Containing the impact of the incident to affected customers

D.

Preventing further dissemination of customer information

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Question # 402

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

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Question # 403

Which of the following tools is MOST effective in identifying trends in the IT risk profile?

A.

Risk self-assessment

B.

Risk register

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk map

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Question # 404

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to ensure policies and standards are properly documented within the risk management process?

A.

It facilitates the use of a framework for risk management.

B.

It establishes a means for senior management to formally approve risk practices.

C.

It encourages risk-based decision making for stakeholders.

D.

It provides a basis for benchmarking against industry standards.

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Question # 405

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 406

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 407

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 408

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

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Question # 409

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) provide value to risk owners?

A.

Ongoing training

B.

Timely notification

C.

Return on investment (ROI)

D.

Cost minimization

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Question # 410

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Reviewing business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Collaborating with IT audit

C.

Conducting vulnerability assessments

D.

Obtaining input from key stakeholders

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Question # 411

Which of the following is the BEST course of action to reduce risk impact?

A.

Create an IT security policy.

B.

Implement corrective measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Leverage existing technology

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Question # 412

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

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Question # 413

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 414

An organization that has been the subject of multiple social engineering attacks is developing a risk awareness program. The PRIMARY goal of this program should be to:

A.

reduce the risk to an acceptable level.

B.

communicate the consequences for violations.

C.

implement industry best practices.

D.

reduce the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 415

An organization must make a choice among multiple options to respond to a risk. The stakeholders cannot agree and decide to postpone the decision. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted?

A.

Transfer

B.

Mitigation

C.

Avoidance

D.

Acceptance

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Question # 416

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

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Question # 417

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a disaster recovery management (DRM) framework and related processes?

A.

Restoring IT and cybersecurity operations

B.

Assessing the impact and probability of disaster scenarios

C.

Ensuring timely recovery of critical business operations

D.

Determining capacity for alternate sites

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Question # 418

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

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Question # 419

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Question # 420

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

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Question # 421

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

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Question # 422

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 423

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

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Question # 424

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

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Question # 426

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

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Question # 427

In order to determining a risk is under-controlled the risk practitioner will need to

A.

understand the risk tolerance

B.

monitor and evaluate IT performance

C.

identify risk management best practices

D.

determine the sufficiency of the IT risk budget

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Question # 428

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

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Question # 429

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 430

Which of the following would offer the MOST insight with regard to an organization's risk culture?

A.

Risk management procedures

B.

Senior management interviews

C.

Benchmark analyses

D.

Risk management framework

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Question # 431

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 432

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Question # 433

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 434

The cost of maintaining a control has grown to exceed the potential loss. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Insufficient risk tolerance

B.

Optimized control management

C.

Effective risk management

D.

Over-controlled environment

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Question # 435

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Question # 436

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 437

An organization has contracted with a cloud service provider to support the deployment of a new product. Of the following, who should own the associated risk?

A.

The head of enterprise architecture (EA)

B.

The IT risk manager

C.

The information security manager

D.

The product owner

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Question # 438

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

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Question # 439

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

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Question # 440

Which of the following would BEST support the integrity of online financial transactions?

A.

Developing an integrated audit facility

B.

Implementing audit trail logs

C.

Deploying multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Implementing blockchain technology

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Question # 441

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

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Question # 442

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

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Question # 443

An organization is reviewing a contract for a Software as a Service (SaaS) sales application with a 99.9% uptime service level agreement (SLA). Which of the following BEST describes ownership of availability risk?

A.

The risk is shared by both organizations.

B.

The liability for the risk is owned by the cloud provider.

C.

The risk is transferred to the cloud provider.

D.

The liability for the risk is owned by the sales department.

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Question # 444

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

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Question # 445

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 446

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

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Question # 447

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Question # 448

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 449

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations' risk management programs

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Question # 450

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

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Question # 451

After a business unit implemented an Internet of Things (IoT) solution, the organization became aware of an emerging risk from the interoperability of IoT devices. Which of the following should be done FIRST in response to this situation?

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Update the risk profile.

C.

Re-evaluate the risk tolerance.

D.

Inform executive leadership.

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Question # 452

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development?

A.

Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk.

B.

Business owners have authority to approve control implementation.

C.

Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors.

D.

Business owners are able to assess the impact.

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Question # 453

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Question # 454

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when assessing the likelihood that a recently discovered software vulnerability will be exploited?

A.

The skill level required of a threat actor

B.

The amount of personally identifiable information (PH) disclosed

C.

The ability to detect and trace the threat action

D.

The amount of data that might be exposed by a threat action

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Question # 455

An internal audit report reveals that a legacy system is no longer supported Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action before recommending a risk response'

A.

Review historical application down me and frequency

B.

Assess the potential impact and cost of mitigation

C.

identify other legacy systems within the organization

D.

Explore the feasibility of replacing the legacy system

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Question # 456

Which of the following is the MOST useful indicator to measure the efficiency of an identity and access management process?

A.

Number of tickets for provisioning new accounts

B.

Average time to provision user accounts

C.

Password reset volume per month

D.

Average account lockout time

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Question # 457

An organization has determined that risk is not being adequately tracked and

managed due to a distributed operating model. Which of the following is the

BEST way to address this issue?

A.

Increase the frequency of risk assessments.

B.

Revalidate the organization's risk appetite

C.

Create a centralized portfolio of risk scenarios.

D.

Create dashboards for risk metrics.

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Question # 458

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 459

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner's NEXT action?

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

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Question # 460

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

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Question # 461

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

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Question # 462

Which of the following is the BEST response when a potential IT control deficiency has been identified?

A.

Remediate and report the deficiency to the enterprise risk committee.

B.

Verify the deficiency and then notify the business process owner.

C.

Verify the deficiency and then notify internal audit.

D.

Remediate and report the deficiency to senior executive management.

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Question # 463

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 464

Which of the following BEST informs decision-makers about the value of a notice and consent control for the collection of personal information?

A.

A comparison of the costs of notice and consent control options

B.

Examples of regulatory fines incurred by industry peers for noncompliance

C.

A report of critical controls showing the importance of notice and consent

D.

A cost-benefit analysis of the control versus probable legal action

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Question # 465

An organization has completed a project to implement encryption on all databases that host customer data. Which of the following elements of the risk register should be updated the reflect this change?

A.

Risk likelihood

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

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Question # 466

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

define the IT risk framework for the organization

B.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting

C.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies

D.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance

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Question # 467

Which of the following BEST indicates effective information security incident management?

A.

Monthly trend of information security-related incidents

B.

Average time to identify critical information security incidents

C.

Frequency of information security incident response plan testing

D.

Percentage of high-risk security incidents

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Question # 468

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

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Question # 469

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

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Question # 470

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 471

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

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Question # 472

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

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Question # 473

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

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Question # 474

Which of the following is the BEST way to help ensure risk will be managed properly after a business process has been re-engineered?

A.

Reassessing control effectiveness of the process

B.

Conducting a post-implementation review to determine lessons learned

C.

Reporting key performance indicators (KPIs) for core processes

D.

Establishing escalation procedures for anomaly events

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Question # 475

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

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Question # 476

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

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Question # 477

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

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Question # 478

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 479

Which of the following is the MOST efficient method for monitoring control effectiveness?

A.

Conduct control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Review system performance logs

C.

Compare controls to business metrics

D.

Perform independent periodic control testing

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Question # 480

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do NEXT after learning that Internet of Things (loT) devices installed in the production environment lack appropriate security controls for

sensitive data?

A.

Assess the threat and associated impact.

B.

Evaluate risk appetite and tolerance levels

C.

Recommend device management controls

D.

Enable role-based access control.

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Question # 481

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

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Question # 482

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 483

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure MOST likely demonstrates:

A.

corporate culture alignment

B.

low risk tolerance

C.

high risk tolerance

D.

corporate culture misalignment.

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Question # 484

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

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Question # 485

A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.

B.

Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.

C.

Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.

D.

Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.

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Question # 486

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

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Question # 487

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 488

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 489

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

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Question # 490

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

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Question # 491

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when reviewing an organization's risk register?

A.

Risk ownership is recorded.

B.

Vulnerabilities have separate entries.

C.

Control ownership is recorded.

D.

Residual risk is less than inherent risk.

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Question # 492

Concerned about system load capabilities during the month-end close process, management requires monitoring of the average time to complete tasks and monthly reporting of the findings. What type of measure has been established?

A.

Service level agreement (SLA)

B.

Critical success factor (CSF)

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

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Question # 493

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

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Question # 494

Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of enterprise architecture (EA)?

A.

To document all implemented systems reflecting the architectural views relevant to the IT team

B.

To provide a vision of the future state and generate strategy to move from current to future state

C.

To implement a governance framework that aligns with the desired organizational structure

D.

To develop and design a technology framework to be used by all IT staff within the organization

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Question # 495

An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk strategy

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 496

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

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Question # 497

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

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Question # 498

A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:

A.

include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,

B.

include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,

C.

include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,

D.

publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.

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Question # 499

Which of the following BEST facilities the alignment of IT risk management with enterprise risk management (ERM)?

A.

Adopting qualitative enterprise risk assessment methods

B.

Linking IT risk scenarios to technology objectives

C.

linking IT risk scenarios to enterprise strategy

D.

Adopting quantitative enterprise risk assessment methods

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Question # 500

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 501

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

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Question # 502

Which of the following is MOST important when discussing risk within an organization?

A.

Adopting a common risk taxonomy

B.

Using key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Creating a risk communication policy

D.

Using key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 503

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

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Question # 504

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk associated with Internet of Things (IoT) technology?

A.

The inability to monitor via network management solutions

B.

The lack of relevant IoT security frameworks to guide the risk assessment process

C.

The heightened level of IoT threats via the widespread use of smart devices

D.

The lack of updates for vulnerable firmware

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Question # 505

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 506

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to report changes and trends in the IT risk profile to senior management?

A.

To ensure risk owners understand their responsibilities

B.

To ensure IT risk is managed within acceptable limits

C.

To ensure the organization complies with legal requirements

D.

To ensure the IT risk awareness program is effective

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Question # 507

An IT risk practitioner has been tasked to engage key stakeholders to assess risk for key IT risk scenarios. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this activity?

A.

Establishing the available risk mitigation budget

B.

Verifying the relevance of risk ratings

C.

Demonstrating compliance to regulatory bodies

D.

Assessing IT risk management culture

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Question # 508

An organization has committed to a business initiative with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

A.

Recommend rejection of the initiative.

B.

Change the level of risk appetite.

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk.

D.

Initiate a reassessment of the risk.

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Question # 509

Which of the following enterprise architecture (EA) controls BEST mitigates the risk of increasingly complex systems becoming compromised by unauthorized network access?

A.

Requirements to change default settings on network devices

B.

Continuous network vulnerability scanning and remediation

C.

Complex password policy and procedures

D.

Continuous access verification and authentication

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Question # 510

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor’s AI technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Regular security updates

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Adequate vendor support

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Question # 511

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Question # 512

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 513

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 514

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when developing an organization's risk management strategy?

A.

Complexity of technology architecture

B.

Disaster recovery strategy

C.

Business operational requirements

D.

Criteria for assessing risk

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Question # 515

Which of the following practices would be MOST effective in protecting personality identifiable information (Ptl) from unauthorized access m a cloud environment?

A.

Apply data classification policy

B.

Utilize encryption with logical access controls

C.

Require logical separation of company data

D.

Obtain the right to audit

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Question # 516

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

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Question # 517

When evaluating enterprise IT risk management it is MOST important to:

A.

create new control processes to reduce identified IT risk scenarios

B.

confirm the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance

C.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management

D.

review alignment with the organization's investment plan

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Question # 518

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 519
A.

Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.

B.

Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.

C.

Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.

D.

Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.

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Question # 520

Which of the following can be affected by the cost of risk mitigation alternatives?

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Risk factors

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Current risk rating

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Question # 521

Which of the following BEST helps to balance the costs and benefits of managing IT risk?

A.

Prioritizing risk responses

B.

Evaluating risk based on frequency and probability

C.

Considering risk factors that can be quantified

D.

Managing the risk by using controls

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Question # 522

Which of the following should be given the HIGHEST priority when developing a response plan for risk assessment results?

A.

Risk that has been untreated

B.

Items with a high inherent risk

C.

Items with the highest likelihood of occurrence

D.

Risk that exceeds risk appetite

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Question # 523

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

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Question # 524

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

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Question # 525

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

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Question # 526

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

B.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

C.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault no matter how far the distance apart.

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Question # 527

An organization is measuring the effectiveness of its change management program to reduce the number of unplanned production changes. Which of the following would be the BEST metric to determine if the program is performing as expected?

A.

Decrease in the time to move changes to production

B.

Ratio of emergency fixes to total changes

C.

Ratio of system changes to total changes

D.

Decrease in number of changes without a fallback plan

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Question # 528

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

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Question # 529

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Question # 530

Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?

A.

Utilization of a cross-functional team

B.

Participation by IT subject matter experts

C.

Integration of contingency planning

D.

Validation by senior management

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Question # 531

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing a data protection management plan?

A.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

B.

Identify critical data.

C.

Establish a data inventory.

D.

Conduct a risk analysis.

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Question # 532

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for logging in a production database environment?

A.

To provide evidence of activities

B.

To prevent illicit actions of database administrators (DBAs)

C.

To ensure that changes are authorized

D.

To ensure that changes made are correctly applied

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Question # 533

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

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Question # 534

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when assessing the risk exposure associated with ransomware?

A.

Potentially impacted business processes

B.

Recent changes in the environment

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Suspected phishing events

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Question # 535

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation of a risk practitioner for an organization that recently changed its organizational structure?

A.

Communicate the new risk profile.

B.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

C.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

D.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

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Question # 536

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

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Question # 537

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Question # 538

Which of the following deficiencies identified during a review of an organization's cybersecurity policy should be of MOST concern?

A.

The policy lacks specifics on how to secure the organization's systems from cyberattacks.

B.

The policy has gaps against relevant cybersecurity standards and frameworks.

C.

The policy has not been reviewed by the cybersecurity team in over a year.

D.

The policy has not been approved by the organization's board.

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Question # 539

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Question # 540

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

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Question # 541

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

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Question # 542

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Question # 543

An organization is outsourcing a key database to be hosted by an external service provider. Who is BEST suited to assess the impact of potential data loss?

A.

Public relations manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

Business manager

D.

Database manager

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Question # 544

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 545

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

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Question # 546

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (Al) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

B.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

C.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

D.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

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Question # 547

Changes in which of the following are MOST likely to trigger the need to reassess inherent risk?

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Industry benchmarks

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Question # 548

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

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Question # 549

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 550

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

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Question # 551

Who should be responsible (of evaluating the residual risk after a compensating control has been

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Risk practitioner

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Question # 552

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 553

A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.

B.

suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.

C.

revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.

D.

evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.

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Question # 554

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Question # 555

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

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Question # 556

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

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Question # 557

The PRIMARY benefit of maintaining an up-to-date risk register is that it helps to:

A.

implement uniform controls for common risk scenarios.

B.

ensure business unit risk is uniformly distributed.

C.

build a risk profile for management review.

D.

quantify the organization's risk appetite.

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Question # 558

What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

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Question # 559

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 560

Which of the following situations would cause the GREATEST concern around the integrity of application logs?

A.

Weak privileged access management controls

B.

Lack of a security information and event management (SIEM) system

C.

Lack of data classification policies

D.

Use of hashing algorithms

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Question # 561

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

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Question # 562

The MOST important consideration when selecting a control to mitigate an identified risk is whether:

A.

the cost of control exceeds the mitigation value

B.

there are sufficient internal resources to implement the control

C.

the mitigation measures create compounding effects

D.

the control eliminates the risk

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Question # 563

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization's use of AI technology?

A.

The AI system's contract does not include a right-to-audit clause

B.

The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose

C.

The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure

D.

The AI system results have not been validated

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Question # 564

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

A.

The organization's business process owner

B.

The organization's information security manager

C.

The organization's vendor management officer

D.

The vendor's risk manager

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Question # 565

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when awarding a project to a third-party service provider whose servers are located offshore?

A.

Difficulty of monitoring compliance due to geographical distance

B.

Cost implications due to installation of network intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

C.

Delays in incident communication

D.

Potential impact on data governance

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Question # 566

Which of the following would be the BEST senior management action to influence a strong risk-aware culture within an organization?

A.

Initiating disciplinary actions against individuals causing incidents

B.

Identifying the root cause of incidents

C.

Sponsoring changes to prevent recurrence of incidents

D.

Reviewing the risk register and preparing incident reports

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Question # 567

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

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Question # 568

The risk associated with an asset before controls are applied can be expressed as:

A.

a function of the likelihood and impact

B.

the magnitude of an impact

C.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of control.

D.

the likelihood of a given threat

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