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CRISC Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

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Question # 5

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

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Question # 6

A maturity model is MOST useful to an organization when it:

A.

benchmarks against other organizations

B.

defines a qualitative measure of risk

C.

provides a reference for progress

D.

provides risk metrics.

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Question # 7

An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the countrywhere it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?

A.

Analyze data protection methods.

B.

Understand data flows.

C.

Include a right-to-audit clause.

D.

Implement strong access controls.

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Question # 8

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

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Question # 9

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

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Question # 10

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

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Question # 11

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

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Question # 12

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the

progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?

A.

Senior management

B.

Project manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

IT risk manager

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Question # 13

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST to support the implementation of governance around organizational assets within an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

Develop a detailed risk profile.

B.

Hire experienced and knowledgeable resources.

C.

Schedule internal audits across the business.

D.

Conduct risk assessments across the business.

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Question # 14

A migration from an in-house developed system to an external cloud-based solution is affecting a previously rated key risk scenario related to payroll processing. Which part of the risk register should be updated FIRST?

A.

Payroll system risk factors

B.

Payroll system risk mitigation plans

C.

Payroll process owner

D.

Payroll administrative controls

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Question # 15

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

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Question # 16

Reviewing which of the following provides the BEST indication of an organizations risk tolerance?

A.

Risk sharing strategy

B.

Risk transfer agreements

C.

Risk policies

D.

Risk assessments

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Question # 17

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

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Question # 18

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department's roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization's information security risk profile

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Question # 19

The risk appetite for an organization could be derived from which of the following?

A.

Cost of controls

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

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Question # 20

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) provides the BEST insight into the risk associated with IT systems being unable to meet the required availability service level in the future?

A.

Percentage of IT systems having defined incident management service levels

B.

Percentage of IT systems having met the availability service level

C.

Percentage of IT outsourced systems having met the availability service level

D.

Percentage of IT systems routinely running at peak utilization

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Question # 21

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

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Question # 22

Who is responsible for IT security controls that are outsourced to an external service provider?

A.

Organization's information security manager

B.

Organization's risk function

C.

Service provider's IT management

D.

Service provider's information security manager

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Question # 23

Which of the following is the STRONGEST indication an organization has ethics management issues?

A.

Employees do not report IT risk issues for fear of consequences.

B.

Internal IT auditors report to the chief information security officer (CISO).

C.

Employees face sanctions for not signing the organization's acceptable use policy.

D.

The organization has only two lines of defense.

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Question # 24

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

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Question # 25

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

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Question # 26

Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key

control to address a risk scenario?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT manager

C.

System owner

D.

Data custodian

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Question # 27

Which of the following is MOST important when defining controls?

A.

Identifying monitoring mechanisms

B.

Including them in the risk register

C.

Aligning them with business objectives

D.

Prototyping compensating controls

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Question # 28

An organization is concerned that a change in its market situation may impact the current level of acceptable risk for senior management. As a result, which of the following is MOST important to reevaluate?

A.

Risk classification

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk strategy

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 29

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

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Question # 30

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

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Question # 31

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

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Question # 32

Which of the following conditions presents the GREATEST risk to an application?

A.

Application controls are manual.

B.

Application development is outsourced.

C.

Source code is escrowed.

D.

Developers have access to production environment.

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Question # 33

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is fcr the risk manager to

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

C.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

D.

inform the development team of the concerns and together formulate risk reduction measures.

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Question # 34

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization's change management process?

A.

Increase in the frequency of changes

B.

Percent of unauthorized changes

C.

Increase in the number of emergency changes

D.

Average time to complete changes

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Question # 35

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

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Question # 36

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

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Question # 37

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern when reviewing the results of an independent control assessment to determine the effectiveness of a vendor's control environment?

A.

The report was provided directly from the vendor.

B.

The risk associated with multiple control gaps was accepted.

C.

The control owners disagreed with the auditor's recommendations.

D.

The controls had recurring noncompliance.

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Question # 38

An organization practices the principle of least privilege. To ensure access remains appropriate, application owners should be required to review user access rights on a regular basis by obtaining:

A.

business purpose documentation and software license counts

B.

an access control matrix and approval from the user's manager

C.

documentation indicating the intended users of the application

D.

security logs to determine the cause of invalid login attempts

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Question # 39

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization has implemented IT performance requirements?

A.

Service level agreements(SLA)

B.

Vendor references

C.

Benchmarking data

D.

Accountability matrix

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Question # 40

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

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Question # 41

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

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Question # 42

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

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Question # 43

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

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Question # 44

Participants in a risk workshop have become focused on the financial cost to mitigate risk rather than choosing the most appropriate response. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this type of issue in the long term?

A.

Perform a return on investment analysis.

B.

Review the risk register and risk scenarios.

C.

Calculate annualized loss expectancy of risk scenarios.

D.

Raise the maturity of organizational risk management.

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Question # 45

Which of the following provides the MOST comprehensive information when developing a risk profile for a system?

A.

Results of a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

A mapping of resources to business processes

D.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Question # 46

Which of the following is the BEST method for determining an enterprise's current appetite for risk?

A.

Comparative analysis of peer companies

B.

Reviews of brokerage firm assessments

C.

Interviews with senior management

D.

Trend analysis using prior annual reports

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Question # 47

An organization automatically approves exceptions to security policies on a recurring basis. This practice is MOST likely the result of:

A.

a lack of mitigating actions for identified risk

B.

decreased threat levels

C.

ineffective service delivery

D.

ineffective IT governance

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Question # 48

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

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Question # 49

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

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Question # 50

Legal and regulatory risk associated with business conducted over the Internet is driven by:

A.

the jurisdiction in which an organization has its principal headquarters

B.

international law and a uniform set of regulations.

C.

the laws and regulations of each individual country

D.

international standard-setting bodies.

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Question # 51

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to have in place when developing a risk management framework?

A.

A strategic approach to risk including an established risk appetite

B.

A risk-based internal audit plan for the organization

C.

A control function within the risk management team

D.

An organization-wide risk awareness training program

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Question # 52

An organization allows programmers to change production systems in emergency situations. Which of the following is the BEST control?

A.

Implementing an emergency change authorization process

B.

Periodically reviewing operator logs

C.

Limiting the number of super users

D.

Reviewing the programmers' emergency change reports

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Question # 53

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

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Question # 54

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

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Question # 55

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

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Question # 56

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

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Question # 57

An organization is implementing internet of Things (loT) technology to control temperature and lighting in its headquarters. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

A.

Insufficient network isolation

B.

impact on network performance

C.

insecure data transmission protocols

D.

Lack of interoperability between sensors

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Question # 58

Who is PRIMARILY accountable for identifying risk on a daily basis and ensuring adherence to the organization's policies?

A.

Third line of defense

B.

Line of defense subject matter experts

C.

Second line of defense

D.

First line of defense

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Question # 59

Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s PRIMARY focus when determining whether controls are adequate to mitigate risk?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Level of residual risk

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Risk appetite

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Question # 60

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

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Question # 61

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

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Question # 62

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

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Question # 63

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

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Question # 64

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

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Question # 65

Which of the following is the MOST important component of effective security incident response?

A.

Network time protocol synchronization

B.

Identification of attack sources

C.

Early detection of breaches

D.

A documented communications plan

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Question # 66

An organization has adopted an emerging technology without following proper processes. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action to address this risk?

A.

Accept the risk because the technology has already been adopted.

B.

Propose a transfer of risk to a third party with subsequent monitoring.

C.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine risk exposure.

D.

Recommend to senior management to decommission the technology.

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Question # 67

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management's primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

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Question # 68

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

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Question # 69

When creating a separate IT risk register for a large organization, which of the following is MOST important to consider with regard to the existing corporate risk 'register?

A.

Leveraging business risk professionals

B.

Relying on generic IT risk scenarios

C.

Describing IT risk in business terms

D.

Using a common risk taxonomy

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Question # 70

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

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Question # 71

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

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Question # 72

A risk practitioner implemented a process to notify management of emergency changes that may not be approved. Which of the following is the BEST way to provide this information to management?

A.

Change logs

B.

Change management meeting minutes

C.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 73

An organization discovers significant vulnerabilities in a recently purchased commercial off-the-shelf software product which will not be corrected until the next release. Which of the following is the risk manager's BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk of implementing versus postponing with stakeholders.

B.

Run vulnerability testing tools to independently verify the vulnerabilities.

C.

Review software license to determine the vendor's responsibility regarding vulnerabilities.

D.

Require the vendor to correct significant vulnerabilities prior to installation.

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Question # 74

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of engaging the risk owner during the risk assessment process?

A.

Identification of controls gaps that may lead to noncompliance

B.

Prioritization of risk action plans across departments

C.

Early detection of emerging threats

D.

Accurate measurement of loss impact

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Question # 75

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

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Question # 76

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation upon learning of an updated cybersecurity regulation that could impact the organization?

A.

Perform a gap analysis

B.

Conduct system testing

C.

Implement compensating controls

D.

Update security policies

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Question # 77

Which of the following is an IT business owner's BEST course of action following an unexpected increase in emergency changes?

A.

Evaluating the impact to control objectives

B.

Conducting a root cause analysis

C.

Validating the adequacy of current processes

D.

Reconfiguring the IT infrastructure

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Question # 78

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 79

Which of the following, who should be PRIMARILY responsible for performing user entitlement reviews?

A.

IT security manager

B.

IT personnel

C.

Data custodian

D.

Data owner

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Question # 80

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

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Question # 81

Performing a background check on a new employee candidate before hiring is an example of what type of control?

A.

Detective

B.

Compensating

C.

Corrective

D.

Preventive

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Question # 82

Which of the following is the MOST essential characteristic of a good IT risk scenario?

A.

The scenario is aligned to business control processes.

B.

The scenario is aligned to the organization’s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

The scenario is aligned to a business objective.

D.

The scenario is aligned to known vulnerabilities in information technology.

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Question # 83

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

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Question # 84

Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST when establishing IT risk management processes?

A.

Collect data of past incidents and lessons learned.

B.

Conduct a high-level risk assessment based on the nature of business.

C.

Identify the risk appetite of the organization.

D.

Assess the goals and culture of the organization.

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Question # 85

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

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Question # 86

The BEST indication that risk management is effective is when risk has been reduced to meet:

A.

risk levels.

B.

risk budgets.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk capacity.

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Question # 87

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?

A.

Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.

B.

Obtain management's consent to accept the risk.

C.

Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.

D.

Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.

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Question # 89

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

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Question # 90

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

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Question # 91

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

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Question # 92

Which stakeholders are PRIMARILY responsible for determining enterprise IT risk appetite?

A.

Audit and compliance management

B.

The chief information officer (CIO) and the chief financial officer (CFO)

C.

Enterprise risk management and business process owners

D.

Executive management and the board of directors

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Question # 93

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for an organization on a multi-year cloud implementation to publish a cloud security policy?

A.

Evaluating gaps in the on-premise and cloud security profiles

B.

Establishing minimum cloud security requirements

C.

Enforcing compliance with cloud security parameters

D.

Educating IT staff on variances between on premise and cloud security

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Question # 94

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

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Question # 95

Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?

A.

Lack of technical expertise

B.

Combining incompatible duties

C.

Unauthorized data usage

D.

Denial of service attacks

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Question # 96

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 97

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

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Question # 98

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?

A.

Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps

B.

Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

C.

Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels

D.

Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices

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Question # 99

Optimized risk management is achieved when risk is reduced:

A.

with strategic initiatives.

B.

to meet risk appetite.

C.

within resource availability.

D.

below risk appetite.

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Question # 100

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

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Question # 101

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

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Question # 102

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

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Question # 103

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

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Question # 104

An organization uses one centralized single sign-on (SSO) control to cover many applications. Which of the following is the BEST course of action when a new application is added to the environment after testing of the SSO control has been completed?

A.

Initiate a retest of the full control

B.

Retest the control using the new application as the only sample.

C.

Review the corresponding change control documentation

D.

Re-evaluate the control during (he next assessment

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Question # 105

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

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Question # 106

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

A.

Contracting to third parties

B.

Establishing employee awareness training

C.

Setting target dates to complete actions

D.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

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Question # 107

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

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Question # 108

Which of the following BEST indicates the efficiency of a process for granting access privileges?

A.

Average time to grant access privileges

B.

Number of changes in access granted to users

C.

Average number of access privilege exceptions

D.

Number and type of locked obsolete accounts

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Question # 109

Management has noticed storage costs have increased exponentially over the last 10 years because most users do not delete their emails. Which of the following can BEST alleviate this issue while not sacrificing security?

A.

Implementing record retention tools and techniques

B.

Establishing e-discovery and data loss prevention (DLP)

C.

Sending notifications when near storage quota

D.

Implementing a bring your own device 1BVOD) policy

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Question # 110

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

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Question # 111

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the transmission of healthcare data across the internet?

A.

Unencrypted data

B.

Lack of redundant circuits

C.

Low bandwidth connections

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 112

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of using IT risk scenarios?

A.

They support compliance with regulations.

B.

They provide evidence of risk assessment.

C.

They facilitate communication of risk.

D.

They enable the use of key risk indicators (KRls)

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Question # 113

Which of the following should be done FIRST when developing an initial set of risk scenarios for an organization?

A.

Refer to industry standard scenarios.

B.

Use a top-down approach.

C.

Consider relevant business activities.

D.

Use a bottom-up approach.

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Question # 114

Which of the following is MOST important to review when an organization needs to transition the majority of its employees to remote work during a crisis?

A.

Customer notification plans

B.

Capacity management

C.

Access management

D.

Impacts on IT project delivery

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Question # 115

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

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Question # 116

An organization's decision to remain noncompliant with certain laws or regulations is MOST likely influenced by:

A.

The region in which the organization operates.

B.

Established business culture.

C.

Risk appetite set by senior management.

D.

Identified business process controls.

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Question # 117

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?

A.

Data storage and collection methods

B.

Data owner preferences

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Choice of encryption algorithms

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Question # 118

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

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Question # 119

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

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Question # 120

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

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Question # 121

Vulnerabilities have been detected on an organization's systems. Applications installed on these systems will not operate if the underlying servers are updated. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Recommend the business change the application.

B.

Recommend a risk treatment plan.

C.

Include the risk in the next quarterly update to management.

D.

Implement compensating controls.

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Question # 122

An IT department has provided a shared drive for personnel to store information to which all employees have access. Which of the following parties is accountable for the risk of potential loss of confidential information?

A.

Risk manager

B.

Data owner

C.

End user

D.

IT department

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Question # 123

Which of the following would prompt changes in key risk indicator {KRI) thresholds?

A.

Changes to the risk register

B.

Changes in risk appetite or tolerance

C.

Modification to risk categories

D.

Knowledge of new and emerging threats

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Question # 124

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

A.

amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.

B.

amount of risk present in the organization.

C.

variance against objectives.

D.

number of incidents.

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Question # 125

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

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Question # 126

A department allows multiple users to perform maintenance on a system using a single set of credentials. A risk practitioner determined this practice to be high-risk. Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate this risk?

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Audit trail review

C.

Multi-factor authentication

D.

Data encryption at rest

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Question # 127

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

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Question # 128

When evaluating a number of potential controls for treating risk, it is MOST important to consider:

A.

risk appetite and control efficiency.

B.

inherent risk and control effectiveness.

C.

residual risk and cost of control.

D.

risk tolerance and control complexity.

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Question # 129

An organization is considering modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments. To reduce the risk of data exposure, which of the following should the organization do FIRST?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Update the security strategy.

C.

Implement additional controls.

D.

Update the risk register.

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Question # 130

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

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Question # 131

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

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Question # 132

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization's risk management program has not reached the desired maturity level?

A.

Significant increases in risk mitigation budgets

B.

Large fluctuations in risk ratings between assessments

C.

A steady increase in the time to recover from incidents

D.

A large number of control exceptions

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Question # 133

A change management process has recently been updated with new testing procedures. What is the NEXT course of action?

A.

Monitor processes to ensure recent updates are being followed.

B.

Communicate to those who test and promote changes.

C.

Conduct a cost-benefit analysis to justify the cost of the control.

D.

Assess the maturity of the change management process.

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Question # 134

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

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Question # 135

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

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Question # 136

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

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Question # 137

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

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Question # 138

Which of the following criteria is MOST important when developing a response to an attack that would compromise data?

A.

The recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

The likelihood of a recurring attack

C.

The organization's risk tolerance

D.

The business significance of the information

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Question # 139

Who is the BEST person to an application system used to process employee personal data?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data privacy manager

C.

System administrator

D.

Human resources (HR) manager

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Question # 140

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of implementing key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Confirming the adequacy of recovery plans.

B.

Improving compliance with control standards.

C.

Providing early detection of control degradation.

D.

Reducing the number of incidents.

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Question # 141

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

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Question # 142

An internal audit report reveals that not all IT application databases have encryption in place. Which of the following information would be MOST important for assessing the risk impact?

A.

The number of users who can access sensitive data

B.

A list of unencrypted databases which contain sensitive data

C.

The reason some databases have not been encrypted

D.

The cost required to enforce encryption

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Question # 143

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

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Question # 144

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

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Question # 145

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

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Question # 146

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

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Question # 147

Which of the following BEST supports an accurate asset inventory system?

A.

Asset management metrics are aligned to industry benchmarks

B.

Organizational information risk controls are continuously monitored

C.

There are defined processes in place for onboarding assets

D.

The asset management team is involved in the budgetary planning process

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Question # 148

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

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Question # 149

During implementation of an intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor network traffic, a high number of alerts is reported. The risk practitioner should recommend to:

A.

reset the alert threshold based on peak traffic

B.

analyze the traffic to minimize the false negatives

C.

analyze the alerts to minimize the false positives

D.

sniff the traffic using a network analyzer

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Question # 150

Which of the following should be the MAIN consideration when validating an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Comparison against regulations

B.

Maturity of the risk culture

C.

Capacity to withstand loss

D.

Cost of risk mitigation options

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Question # 151

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to managing an organization's end-user devices?

A.

Incomplete end-user device inventory

B.

Unsupported end-user applications

C.

Incompatible end-user devices

D.

Multiple end-user device models

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Question # 152

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

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Question # 153

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

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Question # 154

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

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Question # 155

An unauthorized individual has socially engineered entry into an organization's secured physical premises. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent future occurrences?

A.

Employ security guards.

B.

Conduct security awareness training.

C.

Install security cameras.

D.

Require security access badges.

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Question # 156

Which of the following presents the GREATEST concern associated with the

use of artificial intelligence (Al) systems?

A.

Al systems need to be available continuously.

B.

Al systems can be affected by bias.

C.

Al systems are expensive to maintain.

D.

Al systems can provide false positives.

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Question # 157

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

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Question # 158

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

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Question # 159

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

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Question # 160

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

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Question # 161

The PRIMARY objective of testing the effectiveness of a new control before implementation is to:

A.

ensure that risk is mitigated by the control.

B.

measure efficiency of the control process.

C.

confirm control alignment with business objectives.

D.

comply with the organization's policy.

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Question # 162

An organization is conducting a review of emerging risk. Which of the following is the BEST input for this exercise?

A.

Audit reports

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Financial forecasts

D.

Annual threat reports

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Question # 163

Of the following, who should be responsible for determining the inherent risk rating of an application?

A.

Application owner

B.

Senior management

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 164

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

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Question # 165

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 166

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

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Question # 167

When reviewing a report on the performance of control processes, it is MOST important to verify whether the:

A.

business process objectives have been met.

B.

control adheres to regulatory standards.

C.

residual risk objectives have been achieved.

D.

control process is designed effectively.

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Question # 168

A recent regulatory requirement has the potential to affect an organization's use of a third party to supply outsourced business services. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a gap analysis.

B.

Terminate the outsourcing agreement.

C.

Identify compensating controls.

D.

Transfer risk to the third party.

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Question # 169

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to understand management's approach to organizational risk?

A.

Organizational structure and job descriptions

B.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance

C.

Industry best practices for risk management

D.

Prior year's risk assessment results

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Question # 170

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?

A.

Control owner

B.

Data owner

C.

System owner

D.

Application owner

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Question # 171

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

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Question # 172

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization's risk appetite

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Question # 173

An online payment processor would be severely impacted if the fraud detection system has an outage. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this risk?

A.

Implement continuous control monitoring.

B.

Communicate the risk to management.

C.

Introduce recovery control procedures.

D.

Document a risk response plan.

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Question # 174

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

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Question # 175

An engineer has been assigned to conduct data restoration after a server storage failure. However, the procedure was not successful. Which of the following is the MOST probable cause of this situation?

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Failure to prepare a business continuity plan (BCP)

C.

Insufficient data captured in the business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Insufficient definition of the recovery point objective (RPO)

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Question # 176

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

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Question # 177

A risk practitioner is preparing a report to communicate changes in the risk and control environment. The BEST way to engage stakeholder attention is to:

A.

include detailed deviations from industry benchmarks,

B.

include a summary linking information to stakeholder needs,

C.

include a roadmap to achieve operational excellence,

D.

publish the report on-demand for stakeholders.

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Question # 178

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for measuring the security of a blockchain network?

A.

Number of active nodes

B.

Blockchain size in gigabytes

C.

Average transaction speed

D.

Number of validated transactions

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Question # 179

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

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Question # 180

An organization has established workflows in its service desk to support employee reports of security-related concerns. Which of the following is the MOST efficient approach to analyze these concerns?

A.

Map concerns to organizational assets.

B.

Sort concerns by likelihood.

C.

Align concerns to key vendors.

D.

Prioritize concerns based on frequency of reports.

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Question # 181

An IT project risk was identified during a monthly steering committee meeting. Which of the following roles is BEST positioned to approve the risk mitigation response?

A.

Product owner

B.

IT manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Project coordinator

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Question # 182

Which of the following poses the GREATEST risk to an organization's operations during a major it transformation?

A.

Lack of robust awareness programs

B.

infrequent risk assessments of key controls

C.

Rapid changes in IT procedures

D.

Unavailability of critical IT systems

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Question # 183

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

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Question # 184

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

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Question # 185

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

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Question # 186

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

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Question # 187

The BEST way to validate that a risk treatment plan has been implemented effectively is by reviewing:

A.

results of a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

the original risk response plan.

C.

training program and user awareness documentation.

D.

a post-implementation risk and control self-assessment (RCSA).

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Question # 188

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

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Question # 189

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

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Question # 190

A risk practitioner finds that data has been misclassified. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

A.

Unauthorized access

B.

Data corruption

C.

Inadequate retention schedules

D.

Data disruption

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Question # 191

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

A.

Testing is completed in phases, with user testing scheduled as the final phase.

B.

Segregation of duties controls are overridden during user testing phases.

C.

Data anonymization is used during all cycles of end-user testing.

D.

Testing is completed by IT support users without input from end users.

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Question # 192

Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?

A.

Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated

B.

Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register

C.

Communicating the register to key stakeholders

D.

Performing regular reviews and updates to the register

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Question # 193

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

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Question # 194

Recent penetration testing of an organization's software has identified many different types of security risks. Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause for the identified risk?

A.

SIEM software is producing faulty alerts.

B.

Threat modeling was not utilized in the software design process.

C.

The configuration management process is not applied consistently during development.

D.

An identity and access management (IAM) tool has not been properly integrated into the software.

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Question # 195

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

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Question # 196

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

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Question # 197

Which of the following activities is a responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Challenging risk decision making

B.

Developing controls to manage risk scenarios

C.

Implementing risk response plans

D.

Establishing organizational risk appetite

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Question # 198

Continuous monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs) will:

A.

ensure that risk will not exceed the defined risk appetite of the organization.

B.

provide an early warning so that proactive action can be taken.

C.

provide a snapshot of the risk profile.

D.

ensure that risk tolerance and risk appetite are aligned.

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Question # 199

Which of the following risk scenarios would be the GREATEST concern as a result of a single sign-on implementation?

A.

User access may be restricted by additional security.

B.

Unauthorized access may be gained to multiple systems.

C.

Security administration may become more complex.

D.

User privilege changes may not be recorded.

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Question # 200

Which of the following would BEST prevent an unscheduled application of a patch?

A.

Network-based access controls

B.

Compensating controls

C.

Segregation of duties

D.

Change management

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Question # 201

Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation if the level of risk in the IT risk profile has decreased and is now below management's risk appetite?

A.

Optimize the control environment.

B.

Realign risk appetite to the current risk level.

C.

Decrease the number of related risk scenarios.

D.

Reduce the risk management budget.

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Question # 202

Which of the following is the BEST method to maintain a common view of IT risk within an organization?

A.

Collecting data for IT risk assessment

B.

Establishing and communicating the IT risk profile

C.

Utilizing a balanced scorecard

D.

Performing and publishing an IT risk analysis

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Question # 203

Which of the following will BEST help an organization evaluate the control environment of several third-party vendors?

A.

Review vendors' internal risk assessments covering key risk and controls.

B.

Obtain independent control reports from high-risk vendors.

C.

Review vendors performance metrics on quality and delivery of processes.

D.

Obtain vendor references from third parties.

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Question # 204

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

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Question # 205

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

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Question # 206

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

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Question # 207

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

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Question # 208

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the risk associated with the leakage of confidential data?

A.

Maintain and review the classified data inventor.

B.

Implement mandatory encryption on data

C.

Conduct an awareness program for data owners and users.

D.

Define and implement a data classification policy

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Question # 209

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

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Question # 210

Warning banners on login screens for laptops provided by an organization to its employees are an example of which type of control?

A.

Corrective

B.

Preventive

C.

Detective

D.

Deterrent

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Question # 211

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?

A.

Reducing the need for audit reviews

B.

Facilitating continuous control monitoring

C.

Improving control process efficiency

D.

Complying with functional requirements

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Question # 212

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

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Question # 213

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

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Question # 214

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

A.

communication

B.

identification.

C.

treatment.

D.

assessment.

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Question # 215

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of appropriate key performance indicators (KPIs) for a risk management program?

A.

Reviewing control objectives

B.

Aligning with industry best practices

C.

Consulting risk owners

D.

Evaluating KPIs in accordance with risk appetite

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Question # 216

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to address an organization's need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

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Question # 217

Which of the following should be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing an organization risk register after the completion of a series of risk assessments?

A.

Several risk action plans have missed target completion dates.

B.

Senior management has accepted more risk than usual.

C.

Risk associated with many assets is only expressed in qualitative terms.

D.

Many risk scenarios are owned by the same senior manager.

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Question # 218

Which of the following methods is an example of risk mitigation?

A.

Not providing capability for employees to work remotely

B.

Outsourcing the IT activities and infrastructure

C.

Enforcing change and configuration management processes

D.

Taking out insurance coverage for IT-related incidents

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Question # 219

Which of the following BEST enables the development of a successful IT strategy focused on business risk mitigation?

A.

Providing risk awareness training for business units

B.

Obtaining input from business management

C.

Understanding the business controls currently in place

D.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 220

A highly regulated organization acquired a medical technology startup company that processes sensitive personal information with weak data protection controls. Which of the following is the BEST way for the acquiring company to reduce its risk while still enabling the flexibility needed by the startup company?

A.

Identify previous data breaches using the startup company’s audit reports.

B.

Have the data privacy officer review the startup company’s data protection policies.

C.

Classify and protect the data according to the parent company's internal standards.

D.

Implement a firewall and isolate the environment from the parent company's network.

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Question # 221

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

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Question # 222

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

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Question # 223

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

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Question # 224

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's GREATEST concern upon learning of failures in a data migration activity?

A.

Availability of test data

B.

Integrity of data

C.

Cost overruns

D.

System performance

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Question # 225

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

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Question # 226

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

A.

Whether the service provider's data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

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Question # 227

Which of the following would BEST indicate to senior management that IT processes are improving?

A.

Changes in the number of intrusions detected

B.

Changes in the number of security exceptions

C.

Changes in the position in the maturity model

D.

Changes to the structure of the risk register

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Question # 228

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

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Question # 229

Which of the following BEST enables the timely detection of changes in the security control environment?

A.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

B.

Log analysis

C.

Security control reviews

D.

Random sampling checks

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Question # 230

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?

A.

Regular employee security awareness training

B.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

C.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

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Question # 231

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

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Question # 232

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the maturity of an organization's security incident handling process?

A.

The number of security incidents escalated to senior management

B.

The number of resolved security incidents

C.

The number of newly identified security incidents

D.

The number of recurring security incidents

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Question # 233

From a risk management perspective, the PRIMARY objective of using maturity models is to enable:

A.

solution delivery.

B.

resource utilization.

C.

strategic alignment.

D.

performance evaluation.

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Question # 234

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

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Question # 235

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

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Question # 236

To help identify high-risk situations, an organization should:

A.

continuously monitor the environment.

B.

develop key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

maintain a risk matrix.

D.

maintain a risk register.

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Question # 237

Who is BEST suited to provide information to the risk practitioner about the effectiveness of a technical control associated with an application?

A.

System owner

B.

Internal auditor

C.

Process owner

D.

Risk owner

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Question # 238

Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?

A.

Reviewing risk-related process documentation

B.

Conducting periodic risk assessments

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Performing frequent audits

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Question # 239

Which of the following would BEST mitigate an identified risk scenario?

A.

Conducting awareness training

B.

Executing a risk response plan

C.

Establishing an organization's risk tolerance

D.

Performing periodic audits

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Question # 240

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

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Question # 241

Upon learning that the number of failed back-up attempts continually exceeds the current risk threshold, the risk practitioner should:

A.

inquire about the status of any planned corrective actions

B.

keep monitoring the situation as there is evidence that this is normal

C.

adjust the risk threshold to better reflect actual performance

D.

initiate corrective action to address the known deficiency

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Question # 242

Which of the following is the BEST approach for selecting controls to minimize risk?

A.

Industry best practice review

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Control-effectiveness evaluation

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Question # 243

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

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Question # 244

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

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Question # 245

Which of the following should be done FIRST when information is no longer required to support business objectives?

A.

Archive the information to a backup database.

B.

Protect the information according to the classification policy.

C.

Assess the information against the retention policy.

D.

Securely and permanently erase the information

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Question # 246

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

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Question # 247

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

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Question # 248

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

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Question # 249

Who is MOST important lo include in the assessment of existing IT risk scenarios?

A.

Technology subject matter experts

B.

Business process owners

C.

Business users of IT systems

D.

Risk management consultants

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Question # 250

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

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Question # 251

Which of the following is MOST important to the integrity of a security log?

A.

Least privilege access

B.

Inability to edit

C.

Ability to overwrite

D.

Encryption

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Question # 252

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization's risk appetite changes?

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

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Question # 253

An organization has engaged a third party to provide an Internet gateway encryption service that protects sensitive data uploaded to a cloud service. This is an example of risk:

A.

mitigation.

B.

avoidance.

C.

transfer.

D.

acceptance.

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Question # 254

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for deciding whether to disclose information related to risk events that impact external stakeholders?

A.

Stakeholder preferences

B.

Contractual requirements

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Management assertions

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Question # 255

Which of the following will BEST help ensure that risk factors identified during an information systems review are addressed?

A.

Informing business process owners of the risk

B.

Reviewing and updating the risk register

C.

Assigning action items and deadlines to specific individuals

D.

Implementing new control technologies

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Question # 256

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

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Question # 257

The software version of an enterprise's critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

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Question # 258

Which of the following is the BEST method for identifying vulnerabilities?

A.

Batch job failure monitoring

B.

Periodic network scanning

C.

Annual penetration testing

D.

Risk assessments

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Question # 259

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

Full Access
Question # 260

A multinational company needs to implement a new centralized security system. The risk practitioner has identified a conflict between the organization's data-handling policy and local privacy regulations. Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?

A.

Request a policy exception from senior management.

B.

Comply with the organizational policy.

C.

Report the noncompliance to the local regulatory agency.

D.

Request an exception from the local regulatory agency.

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Question # 261

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 262

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

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Question # 263

A risk practitioner notices a trend of noncompliance with an IT-related control. Which of the following would BEST assist in making a recommendation to management?

A.

Assessing the degree to which the control hinders business objectives

B.

Reviewing the IT policy with the risk owner

C.

Reviewing the roles and responsibilities of control process owners

D.

Assessing noncompliance with control best practices

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Question # 264

An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

A.

Data minimization

B.

Accountability

C.

Accuracy

D.

Purpose limitation

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Question # 265

Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be:

A.

reflective of the lowest organizational level.

B.

a data feed taken directly from operational production systems.

C.

reported to management the same day data is collected.

D.

focused on providing a forward-looking view.

Full Access
Question # 266

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

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Question # 267

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

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Question # 268

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

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Question # 269

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action upon learning that regulatory authorities have concerns with an emerging technology the organization is considering?

A.

Redesign key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Update risk responses.

C.

Conduct a SWOT analysis.

D.

Perform a threat assessment.

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Question # 270

An information system for a key business operation is being moved from an in-house application to a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor. Which of the following will have the GREATEST impact on the ability to monitor risk?

A.

Reduced ability to evaluate key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Reduced access to internal audit reports

C.

Dependency on the vendor's key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Dependency on service level agreements (SLAs)

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Question # 271

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern if user acceptance testing (UAT) is not conducted when implementing a new application?

A.

The probability of application defects will increase

B.

Data confidentiality could be compromised

C.

Increase in the use of redundant processes

D.

The application could fail to meet defined business requirements

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Question # 272

The acceptance of control costs that exceed risk exposure is MOST likely an example of:

A.

low risk tolerance.

B.

corporate culture misalignment.

C.

corporate culture alignment.

D.

high risk tolerance

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Question # 273

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

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Question # 274

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing an overview of an organization's risk management program?

A.

Risk management treatment plan

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Risk management framework

D.

Risk register

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Question # 275

An organization has been notified that a disgruntled, terminated IT administrator has tried to break into the corporate network. Which of the following discoveries should be of GREATEST concern to the organization?

A.

Authentication logs have been disabled.

B.

An external vulnerability scan has been detected.

C.

A brute force attack has been detected.

D.

An increase in support requests has been observed.

Full Access
Question # 276

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

Full Access
Question # 277

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations.

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis.

C.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA).

D.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers.

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Question # 278

Which of the following would be a risk practitioners’ BEST recommendation for preventing cyber intrusion?

A.

Establish a cyber response plan

B.

Implement data loss prevention (DLP) tools.

C.

Implement network segregation.

D.

Strengthen vulnerability remediation efforts.

Full Access
Question # 279

Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:

A.

systemic risk

B.

residual risk

C.

inherent risk

D.

control risk

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Question # 280

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

A.

define the IT risk framework for the organization

B.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting

C.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies

D.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance

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Question # 281

Which of the following is the MOST comprehensive resource for prioritizing the implementation of information systems controls?

A.

Data classification policy

B.

Emerging technology trends

C.

The IT strategic plan

D.

The risk register

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Question # 282

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

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Question # 283

The MAIN reason for prioritizing IT risk responses is to enable an organization to:

A.

determine the risk appetite.

B.

determine the budget.

C.

define key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

optimize resource utilization.

Full Access
Question # 284

An insurance company handling sensitive and personal information from its customers receives a large volume of telephone requests and electronic communications daily. Which of the following

is MOST important to include in a risk awareness training session for the customer service department?

A.

Archiving sensitive information

B.

Understanding the incident management process

C.

Identifying social engineering attacks

D.

Understanding the importance of using a secure password

Full Access
Question # 285

Which of the following is MOST essential for an effective change control environment?

A.

Business management approval of change requests

B.

Separation of development and production environments

C.

Requirement of an implementation rollback plan

D.

IT management review of implemented changes

Full Access
Question # 286

A business impact analysis (BIA) has documented the duration of maximum allowable outage for each of an organization's applications. Which of the following MUST be aligned with the maximum allowable outage?

A.

Mean time to restore (MTTR)

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

C.

Recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Mean time to detect (MTTD)

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Question # 287

It is MOST important to the effectiveness of an IT risk management function that the associated processes are:

A.

aligned to an industry-accepted framework.

B.

reviewed and approved by senior management.

C.

periodically assessed against regulatory requirements.

D.

updated and monitored on a continuous basis.

Full Access
Question # 288

Which of the following BEST mitigates ethical risk?

A.

Ethics committees

B.

Contingency scenarios

C.

Awareness of consequences for violations

D.

Routine changes in senior management

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Question # 289

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

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Question # 290

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

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Question # 291

A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

A.

Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.

B.

Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.

C.

Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.

D.

Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.

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Question # 292

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

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Question # 293

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

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Question # 294

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

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Question # 295

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

A.

Time between backups for critical data

B.

Sensitivity of business data involved

C.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

D.

Maximum tolerable data loss after an incident

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Question # 296

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of the effectiveness of vendor security controls?

A.

Review vendor control self-assessments (CSA).

B.

Review vendor service level agreement (SLA) metrics.

C.

Require independent control assessments.

D.

Obtain vendor references from existing customers.

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Question # 297

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

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Question # 298

After migrating a key financial system to a new provider, it was discovered that a developer could gain access to the production environment. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk in this situation?

A.

Escalate the issue to the service provider.

B.

Re-certify the application access controls.

C.

Remove the developer's access.

D.

Review the results of pre-migration testing.

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Question # 299

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

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Question # 300

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

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Question # 301

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

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Question # 302

An organization's internal audit department is considering the implementation of robotics process automation (RPA) to automate certain continuous auditing tasks. Who would own the risk associated with ineffective design of the software bots?

A.

Lead auditor

B.

Project manager

C.

Chief audit executive (CAE)

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 303

An IT department has organized training sessions to improve user awareness of organizational information security policies. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to reflect effectiveness of the training?

A.

Number of training sessions completed

B.

Percentage of staff members who complete the training with a passing score

C.

Percentage of attendees versus total staff

D.

Percentage of staff members who attend the training with positive feedback

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Question # 304

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

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Question # 305

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

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Question # 306

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

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Question # 307

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to a risk owner when making risk-aware decisions?

A.

Risk exposure expressed in business terms

B.

Recommendations for risk response options

C.

Resource requirements for risk responses

D.

List of business areas affected by the risk

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Question # 308

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

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Question # 309

A PRIMARY advantage of involving business management in evaluating and managing risk is that management:

A.

better understands the system architecture.

B.

is more objective than risk management.

C.

can balance technical and business risk.

D.

can make better-informed business decisions.

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Question # 310

A risk practitioner has been asked to evaluate the adoption of a third-party blockchain integration platform based on the value added by the platform and the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Conduct a risk assessment with stakeholders.

B.

Conduct third-party resilience tests.

C.

Update the risk register with the process changes.

D.

Review risk related to standards and regulations.

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Question # 311

Reviewing which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when preparing to evaluate the effectiveness of existing controls?

A.

Previous audit reports

B.

Control objectives

C.

Risk responses in the risk register

D.

Changes in risk profiles

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Question # 312

Which of the following BEST represents a critical threshold value for a key control indicator (KCI)?

A.

The value at which control effectiveness would fail

B.

Thresholds benchmarked to peer organizations

C.

A typical operational value

D.

A value that represents the intended control state

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Question # 313

Which of the following approaches will BEST help to ensure the effectiveness of risk awareness training?

A.

Piloting courses with focus groups

B.

Using reputable third-party training programs

C.

Reviewing content with senior management

D.

Creating modules for targeted audiences

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Question # 314

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

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Question # 315

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

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Question # 316

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Question # 317

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of consistently recording risk assessment results in the risk register?

A.

Assessment of organizational risk appetite

B.

Compliance with best practice

C.

Accountability for loss events

D.

Accuracy of risk profiles

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Question # 318

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

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Question # 319

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

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Question # 320

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

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Question # 321

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

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Question # 322

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

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Question # 323

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

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Question # 324

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

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Question # 325

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

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Question # 326

Which of the following is the BEST control for a large organization to implement to effectively mitigate risk related to fraudulent transactions?

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Monetary approval limits

C.

Clear roles and responsibilities

D.

Password policies

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Question # 327

When developing risk treatment alternatives for a Business case, it is MOST helpful to show risk reduction based on:

A.

cost-benefit analysis.

B.

risk appetite.

C.

regulatory guidelines

D.

control efficiency

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Question # 328

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

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Question # 329

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

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Question # 330

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

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Question # 331

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user's workstation?

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

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Question # 332

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with insufficient focus on addressing blockchain interoperability in the SDLC?

A.

Limited blockchain adoption and support

B.

Reduced transaction speed and system responsiveness

C.

Reduced network integrity and availability

D.

Limited integration with external systems and blockchains

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Question # 333

A risk practitioner discovers several key documents detailing the design of a product currently in development have been posted on the Internet. What should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

invoke the established incident response plan.

B.

Inform internal audit.

C.

Perform a root cause analysis

D.

Conduct an immediate risk assessment

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Question # 334

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

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Question # 335

Which of the following controls will BEST mitigate risk associated with excessive access privileges?

A.

Review of user access logs

B.

Frequent password expiration

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Entitlement reviews

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Question # 336

Which of the following is the FIRST step when developing a business case to drive the adoption of a risk remediation project by senior management?

A.

Calculating the cost

B.

Analyzing cost-effectiveness

C.

Determining the stakeholders

D.

Identifying the objectives

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Question # 337

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

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Question # 338

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

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Question # 339

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

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Question # 340

Which of the following is MOST helpful when determining whether a system security control is effective?

A.

Control standard operating procedures

B.

Latest security assessment

C.

Current security threat report

D.

Updated risk register

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Question # 341

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of implementing a data classification program?

A.

Reduction in data complexity

B.

Reduction in processing times

C.

Identification of appropriate ownership

D.

Identification of appropriate controls

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Question # 342

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when communicating roles associated with the IT risk management process?

A.

Skills matrix

B.

Job descriptions

C.

RACI chart

D.

Organizational chart

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Question # 343

Which of the following is a drawback in the use of quantitative risk analysis?

A.

It assigns numeric values to exposures of assets.

B.

It requires more resources than other methods

C.

It produces the results in numeric form.

D.

It is based on impact analysis of information assets.

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Question # 344

Which of the following will BEST quantify the risk associated with malicious users in an organization?

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Threat risk assessment

D.

Vulnerability assessment

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Question # 345

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

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Question # 346

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

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Question # 347

An identified high probability risk scenario involving a critical, proprietary business function has an annualized cost of control higher than the annual loss expectancy. Which of the following is the BEST risk response?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Accept

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoid

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Question # 348

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

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Question # 349

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

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Question # 350

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

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Question # 351

When assessing the maturity level of an organization's risk management framework, which of the following deficiencies should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Unclear organizational risk appetite

B.

Lack of senior management participation

C.

Use of highly customized control frameworks

D.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods

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Question # 352

A large organization recently restructured the IT department and has decided to outsource certain functions. What action should the control owners in the IT department take?

A.

Conduct risk classification for associated IT controls.

B.

Determine whether risk responses still effectively address risk.

C.

Perform vulnerability and threat assessments.

D.

Analyze and update IT control assessments.

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Question # 353

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 354

Which of the following aspects of an IT risk and control self-assessment would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

A.

Changes in control design

B.

A decrease in the number of key controls

C.

Changes in control ownership

D.

An increase in residual risk

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Question # 355

A risk practitioner learns that a risk owner has been accepting gifts from a supplier of IT products. Some of these IT products are used to implement controls and to mitigate risk to acceptable levels. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Initiate disciplinary action against the risk owner.

B.

Reassess the risk and review the underlying controls.

C.

Review organizational ethics policies.

D.

Report the activity to the supervisor.

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Question # 356

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

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Question # 357

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

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Question # 358

An organization has used generic risk scenarios to populate its risk register. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to assigning of the associated risk entries?

A.

The volume of risk scenarios is too large

B.

Risk aggregation has not been completed

C.

Risk scenarios are not applicable

D.

The risk analysts for each scenario is incomplete

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Question # 359

Which of the following is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of an access management process?

A.

Comparing the actual process with the documented process

B.

Reviewing access logs for user activity

C.

Reconciling a list of accounts belonging to terminated employees

D.

Reviewing for compliance with acceptable use policy

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Question # 360

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to update following a change in legislation requiring notification to individuals impacted by data breaches?

A.

Insurance coverage

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Policies and standards

D.

Risk appetite and tolerance

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Question # 361

An organization's IT infrastructure is running end-of-life software that is not allowed without exception approval. Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful information to justify investing in updated software?

A.

The balanced scorecard

B.

A cost-benefit analysis

C.

The risk management frameworkD, A roadmap of IT strategic planning

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Question # 362

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when measuring the progress of risk response action plans?

A.

Results of risk remediation team interviews

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

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Question # 363

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when multiple risk practitioners capture risk scenarios in a single risk register?

A.

Aligning risk ownership and control ownership

B.

Developing risk escalation and reporting procedures

C.

Maintaining up-to-date risk treatment plans

D.

Using a consistent method for risk assessment

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Question # 364

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit?

A.

Interview control owners.

B.

Observe the control enhancements in operation.

C.

Inspect external audit documentation.

D.

Review management's detailed action plans.

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Question # 365

An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:

A.

controls perform as intended.

B.

controls operate efficiently.

C.

controls are implemented consistent

D.

control designs are reviewed periodically

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Question # 366

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

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Question # 367

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

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Question # 368

The MOST significant benefit of using a consistent risk ranking methodology across an organization is that it enables:

A.

allocation of available resources

B.

clear understanding of risk levels

C.

assignment of risk to the appropriate owners

D.

risk to be expressed in quantifiable terms

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Question # 369

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

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Question # 370

A global organization is planning to collect customer behavior data through social media advertising. Which of the following is the MOST important business risk to be considered?

A.

Regulatory requirements may differ in each country.

B.

Data sampling may be impacted by various industry restrictions.

C.

Business advertising will need to be tailored by country.

D.

The data analysis may be ineffective in achieving objectives.

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Question # 371

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization's user access control processes? An increase in the:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

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Question # 372

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

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Question # 373

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

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Question # 374

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

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Question # 375

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST upon learning a risk treatment owner has implemented a different control than what was specified in the IT risk action plan?

A.

Seek approval from the control owner.

B.

Update the action plan in the risk register.

C.

Reassess the risk level associated with the new control.

D.

Validate that the control has an established testing method.

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Question # 376

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

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Question # 377

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

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Question # 378

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

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Question # 379

An organization has implemented a preventive control to lock user accounts after three unsuccessful login attempts. This practice has been proven to be unproductive, and a change in the control threshold value has been recommended. Who should authorize changing this threshold?

A.

Risk owner

B.

IT security manager

C.

IT system owner

D.

Control owner

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Question # 380

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

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Question # 381

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

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Question # 382

When formulating a social media policy lo address information leakage, which of the following is the MOST important concern to address?

A.

Sharing company information on social media

B.

Sharing personal information on social media

C.

Using social media to maintain contact with business associates

D.

Using social media for personal purposes during working hours

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Question # 383

Which of the following observations from a third-party service provider review would be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs) have not been met over the last quarter.

B.

The service contract is up for renewal in less than thirty days.

C.

Key third-party personnel have recently been replaced.

D.

Monthly service charges are significantly higher than industry norms.

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Question # 384

The BEST way to demonstrate alignment of the risk profile with business objectives is through:

A.

risk scenarios.

B.

risk tolerance.

C.

risk policy.

D.

risk appetite.

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Question # 385

When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization's risk appetite is through the use of a:

A.

risk map

B.

cause-and-effect diagram

C.

maturity model

D.

technology strategy plan.

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Question # 386

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of an enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

A.

To create a complete repository of risk to the organization

B.

To create a comprehensive view of critical risk to the organization

C.

To provide a bottom-up view of the most significant risk scenarios

D.

To optimize costs of managing risk scenarios in the organization

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Question # 387

Which of the following is the MOST important for an organization to have in place to ensure IT asset protection?

A.

Procedures for risk assessments on IT assets

B.

An IT asset management checklist

C.

An IT asset inventory populated by an automated scanning tool

D.

A plan that includes processes for the recovery of IT assets

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Question # 388

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when a shadow IT application is identified in a business owner's business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Include the application in the business continuity plan (BCP).

B.

Determine the business purpose of the application.

C.

Segregate the application from the network.

D.

Report the finding to management.

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Question # 389

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

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Question # 390

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose for ensuring senior management understands the organization’s risk universe in relation to the IT risk management program?

A.

To define effective enterprise IT risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

To execute the IT risk management strategy in support of business objectives

C.

To establish business-aligned IT risk management organizational structures

D.

To assess the capabilities and maturity of the organization’s IT risk management efforts

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Question # 391

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 392

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

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Question # 393

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

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Question # 394

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

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Question # 395

Where is the FIRST place a risk practitioner should look to identify accountability for a specific risk?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk scenario

C.

RACI matrix

D.

Risk response plan

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Question # 396

A data processing center operates in a jurisdiction where new regulations have significantly increased penalties for data breaches. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST important to update to reflect this change?

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk trend

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk likelihood

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Question # 397

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization's current risk profile?

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 398

An organization uses a biometric access control system for authentication and access to its server room. Which control type has been implemented?

A.

Detective

B.

Deterrent

C.

Preventive

D.

Corrective

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Question # 399

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

A.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) for its operations

B.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall

D.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards

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Question # 400

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

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Question # 401

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

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Question # 402

Which of the following should be done FIRST when a new risk scenario has been identified

A.

Estimate the residual risk.

B.

Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).

C.

Design control improvements.

D.

Identify the risk owner.

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Question # 403

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of having a mature enterprise architecture (EA) in place?

A.

Standards-based policies

B.

Audit readiness

C.

Efficient operations

D.

Regulatory compliance

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Question # 404

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

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Question # 405

The PRIMARY reason to implement a formalized risk taxonomy is to:

A.

reduce subjectivity in risk management.

B.

comply with regulatory requirements.

C.

demonstrate best industry practice.

D.

improve visibility of overall risk exposure.

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Question # 406

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

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Question # 407

While reviewing a contract of a cloud services vendor, it was discovered that the vendor refuses to accept liability for a sensitive data breach. Which of the following controls will BES reduce the risk associated with such a data breach?

A.

Ensuring the vendor does not know the encryption key

B.

Engaging a third party to validate operational controls

C.

Using the same cloud vendor as a competitor

D.

Using field-level encryption with a vendor supplied key

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Question # 408

Which of the following is the BEST indication of the effectiveness of a business continuity program?

A.

Business continuity tests are performed successfully and issues are addressed.

B.

Business impact analyses are reviewed and updated in a timely manner.

C.

Business continuity and disaster recovery plans are regularly updated.

D.

Business units are familiar with the business continuity plans and process.

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Question # 409

Which of the following would provide the BEST guidance when selecting an appropriate risk treatment plan?

A.

Risk mitigation budget

B.

Business Impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Return on investment

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Question # 410

External penetration tests MUST include:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

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Question # 411

Which of the following is the FIRST step when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)?

A.

Creating a data classification scheme

B.

Identifying events impacting continuity of operations

C.

Analyzing previous risk assessment results

D.

Identifying critical information assets

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Question # 412

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

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Question # 413

Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Technical control validation

D.

Control testing results

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Question # 414

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the risk associated with re-identification of obfuscated personal data?

A.

The type of shared data

B.

The level of residual risk after data loss prevention (DLP) controls are implemented

C.

The monetary value of the unique records that could be re-identified

D.

The impact to affected stakeholders

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Question # 415

Which of the following is MOST important to enable well-informed cybersecurity risk decisions?

A.

Determine and understand the risk rating of scenarios.

B.

Conduct risk assessment peer reviews.

C.

Identify roles and responsibilities for security controls.

D.

Engage a third party to perform a risk assessment.

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Question # 416

A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?

A.

Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues

B.

Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents

C.

Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation

D.

Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business

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Question # 417

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

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Question # 418

Which of the following is MOST important to sustainable development of secure IT services?

A.

Security training for systems development staff

B.

\Well-documented business cases

C.

Security architecture principles

D.

Secure coding practices

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Question # 419

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and enterprise risk management (ERM), it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Risk velocity.

C.

Risk response plans and owners.

D.

Risk impact and likelihood.

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Question # 420

A risk practitioner has established that a particular control is working as desired, but the annual cost of maintenance has increased and now exceeds the expected annual loss exposure. The result is that the control is:

A.

mature

B.

ineffective.

C.

optimized.

D.

inefficient.

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Question # 421

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

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Question # 422

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for a startup organization that has decided to adopt externally-sourced security policies?

A.

Availability of policy updates and support

B.

Stakeholder buy-in of policies

C.

Applicability to business operations

D.

Compliance with local regulations

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Question # 423

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

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Question # 424

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

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Question # 425

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action when a tolerance threshold is exceeded?

A.

Communicate potential impact to decision makers.

B.

Research the root cause of similar incidents.

C.

Verify the response plan is adequate.

D.

Increase human resources to respond in the interim.

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Question # 426

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner s NEXT step? r

A.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

B.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

C.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

D.

Update the risk register with the results.

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Question # 427

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

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Question # 428

Which of the following is MOST important for successful incident response?

A.

The quantity of data logged by the attack control tools

B.

Blocking the attack route immediately

C.

The ability to trace the source of the attack

D.

The timeliness of attack recognition

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Question # 429

When defining thresholds for control key performance indicators (KPIs). it is MOST helpful to align:

A.

information risk assessments with enterprise risk assessments.

B.

key risk indicators (KRIs) with risk appetite of the business.

C.

the control key performance indicators (KPIs) with audit findings.

D.

control performance with risk tolerance of business owners.

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Question # 430

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

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Question # 431

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

A.

Analyzing the organization's risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management's intent

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Question # 432

An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner's recommendation?

A.

Conduct a risk analysis.

B.

Initiate a remote data wipe.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Disable the user account.

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Question # 433

Which of the following should be implemented to BEST mitigate the risk associated with infrastructure updates?

A.

Role-specific technical training

B.

Change management audit

C.

Change control process

D.

Risk assessment

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Question # 434

A technology company is developing a strategic artificial intelligence (Al)-driven application that has high potential business value. At what point should the enterprise risk profile be updated?

A.

After user acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Upon approval of the business case

C.

When user stories are developed

D.

During post-implementation review

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Question # 435

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

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Question # 436

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

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Question # 437

During a post-implementation review for a new system, users voiced concerns about missing functionality. Which of the following is the BEST way for the organization to avoid this situation in the future?

A.

Test system reliability and performance.

B.

Adopt an Agile development approach.

C.

Conduct user acceptance testing (UAT).

D.

Adopt a phased changeover approach.

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Question # 438

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine software license compliance?

A.

List non-compliant systems in the risk register.

B.

Conduct periodic compliance reviews.

C.

Review whistleblower reports of noncompliance.

D.

Monitor user software download activity.

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Question # 439

A recent vulnerability assessment of a web-facing application revealed several weaknesses. Which of the following should be done NEXT to determine the risk exposure?

A.

Code review

B.

Penetration test

C.

Gap assessment

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

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Question # 440

A risk practitioner has learned that an effort to implement a risk mitigation action plan has stalled due to lack of funding. The risk practitioner should report that the associated risk has been:

A.

mitigated

B.

accepted

C.

avoided

D.

deferred

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Question # 441

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization's data disposal policy?

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

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Question # 442

Which of the following emerging technologies is frequently used for botnet distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks?

A.

Internet of Things (IoT)

B.

Quantum computing

C.

Virtual reality (VR)

D.

Machine learning

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Question # 443

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness?

A.

Ad hoc control reporting

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Predictive analytics

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Question # 444

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when awarding a project to a third-party service provider whose servers are located offshore?

A.

Difficulty of monitoring compliance due to geographical distance

B.

Cost implications due to installation of network intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

C.

Delays in incident communication

D.

Potential impact on data governance

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Question # 445

Which of the following BEST enforces access control for an organization that uses multiple cloud technologies?

A.

Senior management support of cloud adoption strategies

B.

Creation of a cloud access risk management policy

C.

Adoption of a cloud access security broker (CASB) solution

D.

Expansion of security information and event management (SIEM) to cloud services

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Question # 446

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

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Question # 447

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

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Question # 448

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring adherence to an organization's user accounts provisioning practices is the percentage of:

A.

accounts without documented approval

B.

user accounts with default passwords

C.

active accounts belonging to former personnel

D.

accounts with dormant activity.

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Question # 449

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendor agreement?

A.

An annual contract review

B.

A service level agreement (SLA)

C.

A requirement to adopt an established risk management framework

D.

A requirement to provide an independent audit report

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Question # 450

Which of the following should be an element of the risk appetite of an organization?

A.

The effectiveness of compensating controls

B.

The enterprise's capacity to absorb loss

C.

The residual risk affected by preventive controls

D.

The amount of inherent risk considered appropriate

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Question # 451

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vendor risk management program is the percentage of:

A.

vendors providing risk assessments on time.

B.

vendor contracts reviewed in the past year.

C.

vendor risk mitigation action items completed on time.

D.

vendors that have reported control-related incidents.

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Question # 452

During a risk treatment plan review, a risk practitioner finds the approved risk action plan has not been completed However, there were other risk mitigation actions implemented. Which of the fallowing is the BEST course of action?

A.

Review the cost-benefit of mitigating controls

B.

Mark the risk status as unresolved within the risk register

C.

Verify the sufficiency of mitigating controls with the risk owner

D.

Update the risk register with implemented mitigating actions

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Question # 453

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for conducting peer reviews of risk analysis?

A.

To enhance compliance with standards

B.

To minimize subjectivity of assessments

C.

To increase consensus among peers

D.

To provide assessments for benchmarking

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Question # 454

Which of the following is MOST helpful in defining an early-warning threshold associated with insufficient network bandwidth’’?

A.

Average bandwidth usage

B.

Peak bandwidth usage

C.

Total bandwidth usage

D.

Bandwidth used during business hours

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Question # 455

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

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Question # 456

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

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Question # 457

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

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Question # 458

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed.

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle.

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources.

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information.

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Question # 459

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization's management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization's vendor management office

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Question # 460

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

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Question # 461

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to integrate business risk management with IT operations?

A.

Perform periodic IT control self-assessments.

B.

Require a risk assessment with change requests.

C.

Provide security awareness training.

D.

Perform periodic risk assessments.

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Question # 462

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the ability to deliver uninterrupted IT services?

A.

Mean time between failures (MTBF)

B.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

C.

Planned downtime

D.

Unplanned downtime

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Question # 463

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

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Question # 464

During a risk assessment of a financial institution, a risk practitioner discovers that tellers can initiate and approve transactions of significant value. This team is also responsible for ensuring transactions are recorded and balances are reconciled by the end of the day. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to mitigate the associated risk?

A.

Implement continuous monitoring.

B.

Require a second level of approval.

C.

Implement separation of duties.

D.

Require a code of ethics.

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Question # 465

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address recent IT risk trends that indicate social engineering attempts are increasing in the organization?

A.

Conduct a simulated phishing attack.

B.

Update spam filters

C.

Revise the acceptable use policy

D.

Strengthen disciplinary procedures

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Question # 466

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization's risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

A.

Re-evaluate the organization's risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

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Question # 467

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

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Question # 468

Who should be accountable for authorizing information system access to internal users?

A.

Information security officer

B.

Information security manager

C.

Information custodian

D.

Information owner

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Question # 469

Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) to protect personal information on corporate mobile endpoints?

A.

Percentage of endpoints that are not encrypted

B.

Number of endpoints not compliant with patching policy

C.

Ratio of undiscoverable endpoints to encrypted endpoints

D.

Percentage of endpoints with outdated antivirus signatures

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Question # 470

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

A.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

B.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

C.

Implement key control indicators (KCIs).

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

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Question # 471

Within the three lines of defense model, the PRIMARY responsibility for ensuring risk mitigation controls are properly configured belongs with:

A.

line management.

B.

the IT risk function.

C.

enterprise compliance.

D.

internal audit.

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Question # 472

An organization retains footage from its data center security camera for 30 days when the policy requires 90-day retention The business owner challenges whether the situation is worth remediating Which of the following is the risk manager s BEST response'

A.

Identify the regulatory bodies that may highlight this gap

B.

Highlight news articles about data breaches

C.

Evaluate the risk as a measure of probable loss

D.

Verify if competitors comply with a similar policy

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Question # 473

A risk assessment has identified that an organization may not be in compliance with industry regulations. The BEST course of action would be to:

A.

conduct a gap analysis against compliance criteria.

B.

identify necessary controls to ensure compliance.

C.

modify internal assurance activities to include control validation.

D.

collaborate with management to meet compliance requirements.

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Question # 474

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

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Question # 475

Which of the following BEST facilitates the identification of emerging risk?

A.

Performing scenario-based assessments

B.

Reviewing audit reports annually

C.

Conducting root cause analyses

D.

Engaging a risk-focused audit team

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Question # 476

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when performing a vendor risk assessment?

A.

Results of the last risk assessment of the vendor

B.

Inherent risk of the business process supported by the vendor

C.

Risk tolerance of the vendor

D.

Length of time since the last risk assessment of the vendor

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Question # 477

Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for an organization that uses open source software applications?

A.

Lack of organizational policy regarding open source software

B.

Lack of reliability associated with the use of open source software

C.

Lack of monitoring over installation of open source software in the organization

D.

Lack of professional support for open source software

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Question # 478

Which of the following controls will BEST detect unauthorized modification of data by a database administrator?

A.

Reviewing database access rights

B.

Reviewing database activity logs

C.

Comparing data to input records

D.

Reviewing changes to edit checks

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Question # 479

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

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Question # 480

Which of the following techniques would be used during a risk assessment to demonstrate to stakeholders that all known alternatives were evaluated?

A.

Control chart

B.

Sensitivity analysis

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 481

A contract associated with a cloud service provider MUST include:

A.

ownership of responsibilities.

B.

a business recovery plan.

C.

provision for source code escrow.

D.

the providers financial statements.

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Question # 482

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

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Question # 483

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

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Question # 484

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to senior management when the results of a risk and control assessment indicate a risk scenario can only be partially mitigated?

A.

Implement controls to bring the risk to a level within appetite and accept the residual risk.

B.

Implement a key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the existing control performance.

C.

Accept the residual risk in its entirety and obtain executive management approval.

D.

Separate the risk into multiple components and avoid the risk components that cannot be mitigated.

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Question # 485

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

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Question # 486

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

A.

To provide input to the organization's risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor's control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor's ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor's risk mitigation plans

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Question # 487

The PRIMARY benefit of using a maturity model is that it helps to evaluate the:

A.

capability to implement new processes

B.

evolution of process improvements

C.

degree of compliance with policies and procedures

D.

control requirements.

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Question # 488

An organization is preparing to transfer a large number of customer service representatives to the sales department. Of the following, who is responsible for mitigating the risk associated with residual system access?

A.

IT service desk manager

B.

Sales manager

C.

Customer service manager

D.

Access control manager

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Question # 489

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

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Question # 490

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

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Question # 491

Which of the following is performed after a risk assessment is completed?

A.

Defining risk taxonomy

B.

Identifying vulnerabilities

C.

Conducting an impact analysis

D.

Defining risk response options

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Question # 492

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

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