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CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Question and Answers

Question # 4

An HMO advertises it is “the best” and its physicians can manage any illness/injury. A patient relies on this and is injured. The patient might sue the HMO for:

A.

Apparent agency / negligent misrepresentation / vicarious liability (depending on facts and jurisdiction)

B.

Only weather damage

C.

Only EMTALA penalties

D.

Only OSHA violations

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Question # 5

Documentation that assists with defense of a malpractice claim

A.

contains subjective comments about the patient.

B.

describes the provider’s clinical decision-making process.

C.

is not important if the claim happened in prior years.

D.

does not need to be complete or timely.

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Question # 6

According to The Joint Commission, which of the following should be done to patient-owned electrical devices entering the facility?

A.

inventory with patient belongings

B.

sequester the electrical device

C.

conduct an electrical safety inspection

D.

tag by biomedical engineering

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Question # 7

What are the four elements of the SBAR situational briefing model?

A.

Situation, Behavior, Action, Result

B.

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

C.

Summary, Background, Action, Review

D.

Scene, Background, Assessment, Response

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Question # 8

Standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols used throughout the organization will likely result in improvement related to which of the following Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?

A.

accuracy of patient identification

B.

effectiveness of communication among caregivers

C.

safety of using high-alert medications

D.

medication reconciliation

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Question # 9

A 22-year-old man has been treated at a hospital for a psychiatric condition. His mother requests that a copy of the patient's medical record be released to her. The risk manager's advice to the medical records department should be to

A.

contact the hospital's legal counsel to authorize the release of the medical record.

B.

check with the psychiatrist for a recommendation to release the medical record.

C.

verify that a specific release of information form has been signed by the patient and then release the medical record.

D.

request evidence that the mother is the guardian of the patient and then release the medical record.

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Question # 10

When conducting a safety audit in an Emergency Department, what does an administrator need to obtain first?

A.

A written set of safety standards/criteria for the audit

B.

A marketing plan

C.

A list of staff birthdays

D.

A patient satisfaction script

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Question # 11

Ultimately, the accountability for the risk management program belongs to:

A.

The board

B.

The gift shop manager

C.

A single bedside nurse

D.

The parking contractor

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Question # 12

What group reports information (historically HIPDB content; now within NPDB) related to fraud/abuse oversight?

A.

Peer review organizations (for certain state/federal reporting categories)

B.

Any patient advocacy blog

C.

Restaurant inspectors

D.

School boards

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Question # 13

A risk manager is reviewing the hospital’s incident reporting system and notices that very few medication errors are being reported despite known high volumes of medication administration. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

A.

Discipline staff members for failure to report errors.

B.

Conduct a root cause analysis on the reporting system.

C.

Assess the organizational culture and barriers to reporting.

D.

Notify the liability insurer immediately.

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Question # 14

An original contract could contain:

A.

Effective date, insurance requirements, and contract terms

B.

Only a logo and slogan

C.

Only verbal promises

D.

Only a price estimate without scope

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Question # 15

An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

A.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of any patient, for any reason.

B.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of a patient, as long as that refusal is not based on insurance status or other financial concerns.

C.

The on-call physician is relieved of duty only if unavailable because of caring for another patient, or because of other circumstances outside the physician's control.

D.

The on-call physician is never relieved of duty to accept a patient needing specialized services.

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Question # 16

What is the voluntary relinquishment by the insurer or self-insurer of the right to recover from a third party?

A.

Waiver of subrogation

B.

Coinsurance

C.

Underwriting

D.

Experience rating

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Question # 17

Which of the following concepts is integral to supporting a Safety Culture in a healthcare organization?

A.

disciplining an employee

B.

trending occurrences

C.

assigning blame

D.

speaking up

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Question # 18

Root Cause Analyses most often reveal that mistakes are a result of:

A.

A series of small events and system flaws aligning

B.

A single reckless person in most cases

C.

Random chance with no patterns

D.

Only equipment malfunction

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Question # 19

What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?

A.

Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states

B.

Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses

C.

Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis

D.

Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing

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Question # 20

In a failure mode and effects analysis, the risk priority number is calculated by

A.

adding the severity and occurrence scores.

B.

multiplying the severity and detection scores.

C.

adding the severity, occurrence, and detection scores.

D.

multiplying the severity, occurrence, and detection scores.

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Question # 21

Which of the following documents will an insurance underwriter use to provide an insurance quote?

A.

certificate of insurance

B.

declaration page

C.

certificate of need

D.

application

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Question # 22

Whenever possible, medication orders should be by:

A.

Brand name

B.

Dose (explicit numeric dose and units)

C.

Color coding

D.

Verbal shorthand

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Question # 23

Which of the following is an essential component of a risk management policy and procedure manual?

A.

department organizational chart

B.

medical staff bylaws

C.

actuarial report

D.

loss run report

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Question # 24

A clear directive to a nurse is:

A.

“Be careful.”

B.

“Monitor the infusion pump’s operation at defined intervals and document checks.”

C.

“Do your best.”

D.

“If you have time, look at it.”

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Question # 25

Which of the following has been proven to reduce costs of workers' compensation programs?

A.

early return-to-work programs

B.

comprehensive departmental safety analyses

C.

employee assistance programs

D.

employee disciplinary actions

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Question # 26

A patient who has suffered a stroke is aphasic and unable to swallow. The physician would like to place a PEG tube for feeding. The patient is considered incapacitated and his wife consents to the treatment. The patient's adult children do not. The wife and oldest daughter each present a power of attorney document identifying them as the designated decision makers. To support the ethical principle of patient autonomy, which of the following should the risk manager recommend?

A.

Check the dates on the documents; the one with the older date is the valid power of attorney.

B.

Check the dates on the documents; the one with the more recent date is the valid power of attorney.

C.

Tell the family to contact their respective counsel and return when they have worked this issue out.

D.

Refer the matter to the Ethics Committee for resolution.

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Question # 27

Which of the following concerns meets the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation 42 CFR §482.12 classification as a grievance?

A.

a verbal complaint that cannot be solved by current staff, and the resolution of which is postponed for later

B.

a patient calling regarding a billing issue requesting for adjustment to the charges

C.

information obtained with a patient satisfaction survey

D.

post-hospital verbal communication regarding a care issue that could have been handled by the staff during visit but was not reported

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Question # 28

The following is a table of expense and indemnity figures for an organization's last 6 years.

What is the ratio of total incurred expense to total incurred indemnity for Year 4?

A.

0.15

B.

0.18

C.

3.23

D.

0.20

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Question # 29

What is the difference between a deductible and a self-insured retention?

A.

A deductible is subtracted from any amounts paid by a commercial carrier.

B.

A deductible has to be paid before coverage is available.

C.

A self-insured retention is paid from operational fund.

D.

A self-insured retention pays after carrier limits are exhausted.

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Question # 30

A doctor fails to administer an indicated test, and the patient deteriorates and must be admitted. This is an example of:

A.

Diagnostic error (delay/omission in diagnostic process)

B.

Risk financing error

C.

Contracting breach

D.

Facility security event

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Question # 31

What in particular is the process chain in a laboratory subject to?

A.

Standardization only

B.

Variability across pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases

C.

Zero human factors influence

D.

Exclusively equipment failure

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Question # 32

An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to

A.

contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.

B.

verify the informed consent for the procedure.

C.

call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.

D.

call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.

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Question # 33

The Joint Commission requires that after a healthcare organization becomes aware of a sentinel event, it must complete a root cause analysis and action plan within how many days?

A.

30

B.

45

C.

60

D.

75

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Question # 34

The due diligence process in acquisitions is undertaken to:

A.

Reduce unanticipated costs and risks; support valuation and post-acquisition performance

B.

Hide liabilities

C.

Avoid reviewing contracts

D.

Remove compliance requirements

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Question # 35

A risk manager is reviewing the professional liability insurance policy for the limits of liability. Which of the following should the risk manager review FIRST?

A.

conditions

B.

exclusions

C.

declaration

D.

insuring agreement

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