CPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Exam Question and Answers

56633 = Radical partial vulvectomy

Deep subcutaneous tissue involvement = radical, not simple

VIN II is coded as D07.1 (carcinoma in situ of vulva) per ICD-10-CM guidelines

The correct J codes are selected based on the specific medications administered and their quantities:

J2405 represents "ondansetron, 1 mg," and since the patient received a 2 mg dose, J2405 is reported once with a quantity of 2 mg.

J1885 represents "ketorolac tromethamine, 15 mg," which matches the single 15 mg dose administered to the patient, so J1885 is reported once.

Each J code is billed according to the precise dosage given, as no multipliers are required beyond the single-unit codes provided in choice A, making it the correct answer.

When hypertension and heart disease are documented together, a cause-and-effect relationship is presumed unless stated otherwise.

Category I11 (Hypertensive heart disease) is used.

Additional codes from I50.- (heart failure) are assigned if applicable.

This follows ICD-10-CM Official Coding Guidelines.

CPT® code 46255 describes the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids, which matches the procedure described. The ICD-10-CM codes K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids) and K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoids) describe the conditions treated.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The urinalysis performed was non-automated and without microscopy.

CPT® Code 81002 is appropriate for a non-automated urinalysis without microscopy. This code accurately reflects the test performed in the office.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code R30.0 is used for dysuria, which was one of the patient's presenting symptoms.

ICD-10-CM Code R10.30 is used for lower abdominal pain, another presenting symptom.

Since the urinalysis ruled out a urinary tract infection, N39.0 (UTI) is not appropriate as a final diagnosis.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 81000 (in options A and B) is for a urinalysis with microscopy, which was not performed here.

N39.0 is used when a UTI is confirmed, which is incorrect for this case since the urinalysis was negative, ruling out UTI.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines recommend coding based on the symptoms when a specific diagnosis (such as UTI) is ruled out. Therefore, R30.0 and R10.30 are appropriate symptom codes for this encounter.

Thus, the correct answer is C. 81002, R30.0, R10.30.

55970 = Female-to-male sex transformation

55980 is for male-to-female transformation

Unlisted codes (58999, 55899) are not used when a specific CPT® code exists

Procedure: Cardiac stress test performed using hospital's equipment with the cardiologist providing supervision, interpretation, and report.

CPT® Codes:

93016: This code is for supervision only without provision of the equipment.

93018: This code is for interpretation and report only.

Code Selection Justification: Since the cardiologist does not own the equipment, codes 93016 and 93018 correctly represent the supervision, interpretation, and report of the test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Per CPT® E/M guidelines, time spent on separately reported services is excluded from total E/M time calculations.

The CPT code 10005 is for fine needle aspiration biopsy, including ultrasound guidance, for the first lesion. CPT code 10006 is for each additional lesion with ultrasound guidance. Since the provider aspirated tissue from three nodules, the coding should be 10005 for the first nodule and 10006 x 2 for the additional two nodules.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Modifier 50 (Bilateral Procedure) is appended when a procedure is performed on both sides during the same session and the CPT® code is not inherently bilateral.

77066 is already defined as bilateral mammography

77065 is unilateral

75572 (CT heart) is not a bilateral procedure

73115 (MRI upper extremity joint) may be performed bilaterally and allows modifier 50

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient underwent venous thrombosis imaging of each leg to assess for deep venous thrombosis (DVT).

CPT® Code 78457 is used for a venous thrombosis imaging study. This code is appropriate for imaging to detect DVT.

Modifier 50 is applied to indicate a bilateral procedure, as imaging was performed on both legs.

2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:

ICD-10-CM Code I82.403 is used for acute embolism and thrombosis of unspecified deep veins of bilateral lower extremities. This code accurately describes the finding of DVT in both legs.

Other ICD-10-CM options, such as I82.401 and I82.402, specify unilateral lower extremity involvement, which does not accurately reflect the bilateral findings in this case.

3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 78458 (in options A and D) is for a more comprehensive study, often cardiac or whole-body blood pool imaging, and is not specific to leg venous thrombosis.

Option C, which lists 78457 with individual RT and LT modifiers, is incorrect as Modifier 50 is appropriate for bilateral imaging on both legs.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 78457 with Modifier 50 should be used for bilateral venous imaging studies, and I82.403 correctly captures bilateral DVT.

Thus, the correct answer is B. 78457-50, I82.403.

88027 = Autopsy, gross and microscopic, with CNS examination

88016/88020 exclude spinal cord or microscopy

The procedure involved the placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) through the right common femoral artery for a patient with acute MI and severe left main arteriosclerotic coronary artery disease.

Procedure Description:

Placement of an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP).

Right common femoral artery approach.

Confirmation of good waveform and securement of the catheter.

CPT® Coding:

33975: Insertion of intra-aortic balloon assist device, percutaneous.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on cardiac procedures.

Medical terms often consist of a root word and a suffix.

Hepat/o = liver

-itis = inflammation

Therefore, hepatitis literally means inflammation of the liver.

The incorrect options refer to inflammation of other body parts:

Dermatitis – inflammation of the skin

Gastritis – inflammation of the stomach

Arthritis – inflammation of the joints

Hence, the correct answer is C. Hepatitis.

1. CPT® Code 11604: This code is used for the excision of a malignant lesion on the back, with a size of 3.5 cm including margins. The 11600 series covers excision of malignant skin lesions, with 11604 being the correct code for a lesion size over 3.0 cm but not exceeding 4.0 cm.

2. CPT® Code 17110: This code is appropriate for the destruction of a benign lesion on the face (right cheek) via cryosurgery. 17110 covers the destruction of benign lesions (up to 14 lesions).

3. ICD-10-CM Code C44.509: This code represents unspecified malignant neoplasm of skin of trunk (back).

4. ICD-10-CM Code D23.39: This code is used for a benign neoplasm of skin of other parts of the face (right cheek).

Explanation of other options:

A. 11604, 11442, C76.8, C76.0: Incorrect because 11442 is for excision of a benign lesion, not a malignant lesion.

B. 11404, 11442, C44.509, D23.39: Incorrect because 11404 is used for a benign lesion excision, not malignant.

D. 11604, 11642, C76.8, C76.0: Incorrect as 11642 would indicate a second malignant excision rather than the benign lesion destruction.

Thus, the correct answer is C. 11604, 17110, C44.509, D23.39.

Colposcopy of the Cervix: This involves a visual examination of the cervix using a colposcope.

Biopsy and Endocervical Curettage: The procedures performed include taking a biopsy and scraping the lining of the cervical canal.

CPT Code 57454: This code represents a colposcopy of the cervix with biopsy and endocervical curettage.

62272 = Lumbar puncture with catheter for CSF drainage

77012 = CT guidance for needle placement

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy and removal of a cholesteatoma from the middle ear, including grafting of the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

Procedure Description:

Tympanoplasty.

Radical mastoidectomy.

Removal of cholesteatoma from the middle ear.

Grafting technique used to repair the eardrum without ossicular chain reconstruction.

CPT® Coding:

69645: Tympanoplasty with mastoidectomy (including canalplasty, atticotomy and/or middle ear surgery), radical or complete, with removal of cholesteatoma; with mastoid obliteration.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on otolaryngology procedures.

The scenario describes an emergency basic life support (BLS) ambulance service. The appropriate HCPCS Level II code for BLS emergency transport is A0429.

Modifier QN indicates that the service was provided by an ambulance supplier, and SH indicates the services were provided in an emergency situation.

HCPCS Level II, current year

The mediastinum is an anatomical region located in the thoracic cavity. It is bounded by the sternum in front, the vertebral column at the back, and is situated between the lungs. It contains the heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, and other structures, but it is not itself an organ. Therefore, the correct answer is that it is a location in the chest.

ICD-10-CM, Medical Anatomy and Physiology textbooks

27380 = Repair, quadriceps muscle

S76.311A = Strain of muscle, fascia, tendon of right thigh, initial encounter

Code selection is based on specific muscle group and laterality

Acute traumatic injuries are coded from Chapter 19 (S-codes).

S83.242A = Tear of medial meniscus, left knee, current injury, initial encounter.

M23 codes are for old or degenerative conditions.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure involves a tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy to remove a cholesteatoma in the middle ear. Additionally, the procedure includes ossicular chain reconstruction and grafting to repair the eardrum.

CPT® Code 69646 is appropriate for tympanoplasty with a radical mastoidectomy, including removal of the cholesteatoma and ossicular chain reconstruction. This code accurately describes the combination of tympanoplasty, radical mastoidectomy, and ossicular chain reconstruction, making it the correct choice.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 69643 describes a tympanoplasty with a simple mastoidectomy, which is not appropriate since a radical mastoidectomy was performed.

Code 69645 covers a tympanoplasty with radical mastoidectomy but does not include ossicular chain reconstruction, which was part of this procedure.

Code 69641 is for a tympanoplasty without mastoidectomy, making it incorrect for this case.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 69646 is the appropriate code when a tympanoplasty includes a radical mastoidectomy with ossicular chain reconstruction, as documented in this case.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 69646.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the removal and replacement of an inflatable penile prosthesis due to erectile dysfunction.

CPT® Code 54416 is specifically used for the removal and replacement of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis. This code accurately describes the procedure performed.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 54401 represents the initial insertion of a multi-component inflatable penile prosthesis but does not cover removal and replacement, making it inappropriate for this scenario.

Code 54400 is for the insertion of a non-inflatable (malleable) penile prosthesis, which does not apply here as the prosthesis is inflatable.

Code 4417 does not exist in the CPT® coding system and is likely a typo or incorrect option.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC and CPT® guidelines, 54416 is the correct code when an inflatable prosthesis requires both removal and replacement, without the need for additional modifiers for this procedure.

Therefore, the correct answer based on CPT® guidelines is D. 54416.

Laminectomy and Facetectomy (63047 and 63048): The laminectomies at L4 and L5 with facetectomies fall under CPT codes 63047 (for the initial segment) and 63048 (for each additional segment).

Posterior Arthrodesis (22612 and 22614 x 3): The posterior arthrodesis from L1-L5 is coded with 22612 for the primary segment (L4-L5) and 22614 for each additional segment (L1-L4).

Placement of Pedicle Screws (22842): The placement of pedicle screws at L2, L3, and L4 is captured under CPT code 22842 for segmental instrumentation.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The procedure performed was a hysteroscopy to examine the uterine cavity due to abnormal vaginal bleeding. This is a diagnostic hysteroscopy.

CPT® Code 58555 is specifically for a diagnostic hysteroscopy to examine the uterine cavity, which aligns with the procedure performed in this case.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 58558 is for a hysteroscopy with a surgical procedure, such as biopsy or removal of a lesion or polyp, which was not performed in this case.

Code 58579 is an unlisted procedure code for the female genital system and is unnecessary here because there is a specific code (58555) for diagnostic hysteroscopy.

Code 58578 is also an unlisted hysteroscopic procedure code and is not appropriate when a specific diagnostic code exists.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines indicate that 58555 should be used for diagnostic hysteroscopy procedures without any surgical intervention.

Therefore, the correct answer, following CPT® guidelines, is C. 58555.

99222: This code is used for initial hospital care, per day, for the evaluation and management of a patient, which requires a detailed or comprehensive history, a detailed or comprehensive examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity.

The documentation shows a detailed history (including HPI, ROS, PMH, SH, and FH) and a detailed examination (covering multiple organ systems). The medical decision making involves the management of an acute asthma exacerbation, which includes admitting the patient to observation status, administering oral steroids, and planning for further diagnostic testing.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Modifier 53 is used to report a discontinued procedure. It indicates that a procedure was started but terminated due to the patient's well-being being at risk. In this scenario, the percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty was attempted but stopped because of an anatomical problem that created a risk for the patient, preventing the completion of the procedure.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, coding guidelines on the use of modifiers.

For a patient diagnosed with sepsis and associated acute respiratory failure, the ICD-10-CM codes are:

A41.9: Sepsis, unspecified organism.

R65.21: Severe sepsis with septic shock.

J96.00: Acute respiratory failure, unspecified whether with hypoxia or hypercapnia.

These codes appropriately capture the severity of the sepsis and the presence of acute respiratory failure.

ICD-10-CM guidelines

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Intermediate repair includes single-layer closure with extensive cleaning, debridement, or removal of debris, or layered closure of one or more deeper layers.

Option B meets the definition due to extensive cleaning and debris removal.

Option C would be a complex repair.

Option D is a simple repair.

Extensive undermining alone does not define intermediate repair.

98012 = Telephone E/M, 11–20 minutes

99447 is for interprofessional consults, not patient calls

HCPCS LEVEL II

For a comatose patient who has overdosed on tricyclic antidepressant drugs (doxepin, amoxapine, and clomipramine), the correct CPT® code is 80366. This code covers drug testing for tricyclic antidepressants, which includes the specific drugs mentioned in the scenario.

The human shoulder is composed of three main bones: the clavicle (collarbone), scapula (shoulder blade), and humerus (upper arm bone). These bones form the shoulder joint, which is one of the most flexible and mobile joints in the human body, allowing for a wide range of motion.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Musculoskeletal System section.

An esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) was performed with the removal of a polyp using hot biopsy forceps.

Procedure Description:

An EGD was performed.

A polyp was found in the duodenum and removed with hot biopsy forceps.

CPT® Coding:

43250: Esophagogastroduodenoscopy, flexible, transoral; with removal of tumor(s), polyp(s), or other lesion(s) by hot biopsy forceps.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on endoscopic procedures.

The Office of Inspector General (OIG) operates under the Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) and is specifically responsible for detecting, investigating, and preventing fraud, waste, and abuse in federal healthcare programs such as Medicare and Medicaid.

This is a key compliance and regulatory topic on the CPC exam.

Procedure Coding:

56633 – Radical vulvectomy (removal of >80%), including deep subcutaneous tissue

Documentation supports greater than 80% vulvar removal

Deep tissue involvement confirms radical procedure

Diagnosis Coding:

D07.1 – Carcinoma in situ of vulva

VIN III = high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

Classified as carcinoma in situ, not benign dysplasia

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

56620 / 56625 / 56630 – Partial or simple vulvectomy

N90.1 – Mild vulvar dysplasia (incorrect severity)

ICD-10-CM Official Guideline:

VIN III is coded as D07.1, not N90.x.

The patient is seeing a new doctor in the same specialty group for an enlarged goiter and is undergoing a medically appropriate history and exam, along with a fine needle aspiration biopsy.

Procedure Description:

Medically appropriate history and exam.

Review of TSH results and ultrasound.

Ordering of fine needle aspiration biopsy.

CPT® Coding:

99202: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and straightforward medical decision making.

Since it has been two years since the last visit and the patient is being seen by a new doctor in the same specialty group, the encounter is considered a new patient visit.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year).

CPT® Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.

Breaking down the term:

Cyst/o = bladder

Proct/o = rectum

-stomy = creation of an opening

Cystoproctostomy is the surgical creation of an opening between the bladder and the rectum.

The other options involve different organs:

Gastroenterocolostomy – stomach to intestine

Colocholecystostomy – colon to gallbladder

Nephropyelostomy – kidney to renal pelvis

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the repair of a bleeding vessel in the patient’s right hand. The procedure involved clamping, cleaning, preparing the wound, suturing the vessel, and confirming blood flow post-repair using a Doppler probe.

Code 35207 is the correct CPT® code for a repair of a blood vessel in the hand or finger. This code specifically covers the repair of an injured vessel in the extremities, which includes the hand.

Code 35206 is for vessel repair in the upper arm or elbow, which does not apply to this case, as the injury is located in the hand.

Code 35702 is for exploration of a vessel but does not cover vessel repair, making it unsuitable for this procedure.

Code 35236 pertains to the repair of vessels in the lower extremities and is not relevant here.

2. Modifier:

Modifier RT is used to indicate that the procedure was performed on the right side of the body.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines specify the use of codes in the 35201–35286 series for direct repair of blood vessels in specific anatomical areas. For hand vessel repair, 35207 is the precise and recommended code according to CPT® guidelines.

Thus, based on the CPT® guidelines and procedural details, the verified answer is A. 35207-RT.

73522 = Bilateral hips with pelvis, 3–4 views

Modifier -76 = Repeat procedure by the same physician

Modifier -51 identifies multiple procedures

For a mastectomy that involves removing the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and surrounding tissue, including the axillary and internal mammary lymph nodes, the appropriate CPT® code is:

19306: Mastectomy, radical, including pectoral muscles, axillary lymph nodes.

This code captures the extent of the surgery, including the removal of the breast tissue, skin, pectoral muscles, and lymph nodes.

CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

Surgery guidelines for mastectomy procedures

Procedure Coding:

62291 – Injection procedure for myelography and/or CT, cervical

Cisternal puncture at C2 level

72285 – Radiologic supervision and interpretation, cervical discography

77021 – MRI guidance for needle placement

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

62290 – Lumbar injection

77012 – CT guidance, not MRI

72295 – Lumbar discography imaging

AAPC Coding Principle:

Use modality-specific guidance codes and match spinal level precisely.

Procedure: Gross and microscopic examination of a newborn autopsy.

CPT® Code:

88028: This code is for the autopsy, gross and microscopic examination of a stillborn or newborn.

Code Selection Justification: The procedure described matches the comprehensive postmortem examination of a newborn.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

69910 – Labyrinthectomy, complete; transmastoid approach

Provider performed:

Mastoidectomy

Complete destruction/removal of semicircular canals, utricle, and saccule

This is a complete labyrinthectomy, not partial

69990 – Microsurgical techniques, requiring use of operating microscope

Separately reportable with otologic procedures

Modifier -51 not required (add-on code)

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

H81.391 – Peripheral vertigo, right ear

Correct laterality and condition

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

69905 – Partial labyrinthectomy

R42 – Symptom code (dizziness), not used when definitive diagnosis exists

33016 = Pericardiocentesis, including imaging guidance (e.g., ultrasound) when performed.Because the code already includes imaging guidance, you do not separately report 76942.So the correct coding is 33016 only → B.

30901 = Control of anterior epistaxis, limited, any method

30903/30905/30906 are for extensive packing or posterior epistaxis

90960 = ESRD services, 4 or more visits/month

N18.6 = End-stage renal disease

Z99.2 = Dependence on renal dialysis

In CPT® Surgery Guidelines, a "separate procedure" code is used to identify a service that is typically performed as part of a larger procedure and should not be coded separately when it is an integral component of that primary service. However, it may be reported independently if it is performed alone or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

A. is true because a separate procedure may be reported if it is performed independently or is unrelated to the primary procedure.

B. is true, as "separate procedure" codes are not reported in addition to the code for the primary procedure when they are part of the total procedure.

C. is correct because "separate procedure" designation indicates that the service is often part of a more comprehensive procedure but can be reported separately when performed alone.

D. is false because modifier 79 is not used for unrelated "separate procedures." Instead, modifier 59 is typically used to indicate a "distinct procedural service" when reporting a separate procedure that is unrelated to the primary service.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. To identify a service designated as a "separate procedure" that is reported with an unrelated primary service, append modifier 79 to the code.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes the fabrication of an ocular prosthesis due to a severe injury to the left eye. A prosthesis made from silicon materials was created and customized to restore cosmetic appearance.

Code 21088 is the correct CPT® code for facial prosthesis involving materials, such as silicone, specifically designed to address anatomical loss in the eye region. This code accurately reflects the custom fabrication of a prosthesis to replace or augment damaged eye structures for aesthetic purposes.

2. Ruling Out Other Options:

Code 21077 applies to the prosthetic augmentation or replacement of mandibular or maxillary bone, not ocular prostheses, so it does not apply here.

Code 21080 covers the fabrication of facial prosthetics but is not specific to the ocular area and is more generalized. Given the focused nature of the eye, 21088 is more appropriate.

Code 21086 pertains to the creation of orbital prostheses (used for areas surrounding the eye) but not specifically for an ocular prosthesis. Since this scenario involves an intraocular replacement, 21088 is the most precise choice.

3. AAPC and CPT® Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, using codes for facial prosthetics requires matching the specific anatomical site and purpose of the prosthesis. CPT® 21088 is directly applicable to prosthetic replacements within the ocular region, making it the best fit.

Thus, based on the CPT® guidelines and coding standards, the verified answer is C. 21088.

The provider documents history of COVID-19, not active COVID-19.

Z86.16 = Personal history of COVID-19

J18.9 = Pneumonia, unspecified organism

Codes U07.1 and U09.9 are for current or post-COVID conditions, which are not documented here. Therefore, A is correct.

The patient presents for a planned cesarean section for triplets and receives continuous epidural anesthesia. CPT code 01967 is used for neuraxial labor analgesia/anesthesia for planned vaginal delivery, and code 01968 is an add-on code for cesarean delivery following neuraxial labor analgesia/anesthesia. Since this is a planned cesarean section with triplets, both codes 01967 and 01968 are applicable.

A41.52 = Sepsis due to Enterococcus.

When the organism is specified, a combination code is used.

No additional code for severe sepsis is documented.

Procedure Coding:

49186 – Excision or destruction of intra-abdominal tumors, 1–4 tumors

Four tumors excised → correct code selection

Size does not alter code selection once tumor count is determined

Diagnosis Coding:

C48.2 – Malignant neoplasm of peritoneum, unspecified

Pathology confirms malignancy

C76.2 is used for ill-defined sites, not appropriate when peritoneum is specified

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B – 49187 is for 5 or more tumors

D – K66.8 = non-malignant peritoneal disorder

Rhinoplasty is a surgical procedure performed to reconstruct or reshape the nose. It can be done for cosmetic reasons or to improve breathing function. The term "rhino" refers to the nose, and "plasty" refers to the surgical molding or forming of a part of the body.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition, medical dictionaries

For the injections, CPT® code 64642 is used for chemodenervation of one extremity; 64643 for each additional extremity, and 64647 for chemodenervation of muscles in the paraspinal region. The modifier -50 is added to 64642 and 64643 to indicate bilateral procedures. According to CPT® guidelines, when multiple sites are treated, each site is coded separately, and appropriate modifiers are used.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year), Surgery section, Nervous System.

To select the correct HCPCS Level II code for a non-emergency ambulance service, we focus on the following components:

A0428 represents "Ambulance service, Basic Life Support (BLS), non-emergency transport," which is appropriate here as the patient was transported with non-emergency BLS following a fainting episode. This eliminates options B and D, which indicate "emergency" (A0429).

QM Modifier indicates "Ambulance service provided under arrangement by a provider of services," relevant when a physician arranges the ambulance transport.

PH Modifier specifies "Physician’s office to hospital" transport, matching the scenario where the patient was taken from the physician’s office to the hospital.

Thus, A0428-QM-PH accurately describes a non-emergency BLS transport arranged by a provider from a physician's office to the hospital, aligning with choice A.

The CPT code 11960 is used for the insertion of tissue expanders for other than breast, which includes the scalp in this case. The procedure involves inserting the tissue expanders, closing the skin, and gradually increasing the volume of the expanders until a satisfactory outcome is achieved for repairing the scalp defect. The other options do not accurately describe the procedure performed on the scalp.

AMA's CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

The CPT code 31625 is used for bronchoscopy with a transbronchial lung biopsy. This includes the use of fluoroscopic guidance, as described in the scenario.

The prefix “sub-” means below or under.

Common examples include subcutaneous (below the skin) and sublingual (under the tongue).

This is a core concept tested under medical terminology on the CPC exam.

In ICD-10-CM coding, an Excludes2 note under a code indicates that the condition listed in the note is not included in the definition of the code, but it does not necessarily mean they cannot coexist. This type of note means that while the conditions are distinct, it may be appropriate to report both codes if a patient has both conditions at the same time.

A. is incorrect because Excludes1, not Excludes2, indicates that certain codes should not be reported together.

C. is a description of an Excludes1 note, which implies that the two conditions should not be coded together because they cannot occur simultaneously.

D. is also a description of an Excludes1 note, which serves as a "NOT CODED HERE!" directive.

Therefore, the correct answer is B. It is acceptable to report both the code and the excluded code together, when applicable.

When a patient experiences an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction, the primary reason for the encounter would be the malfunction itself, which is coded first. The resulting hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia due to the pump failure is a secondary condition. According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, the code for the mechanical complication of the pump (T85.633-) is sequenced first, followed by a code for the diabetes with complication (E11.65 for type 2 diabetes with hyperglycemia).

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 19: Injury, Poisoning and Certain Other Consequences of External Causes (S00-T88), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The provider performed both a bronchoscopy and a microlaryngoscopy to evaluate the patient’s airway due to respiratory distress and stridor.

Code 31622 is used for a diagnostic bronchoscopy, which includes the inspection of the trachea, carina, and bronchial structures. Since the bronchoscopy was diagnostic and no additional therapeutic procedures were performed, this is the appropriate code.

Code 31526 is for direct laryngoscopy with the use of an operating microscope or telescope (microlaryngoscopy). This code is appropriate given the use of a Parson’s laryngoscope and magnifying telescope to inspect the larynx.

2. Modifier 51:

Modifier 51 is added to 31526 to indicate that it was performed in conjunction with another procedure (31622, bronchoscopy). Modifier 51 denotes multiple procedures without the necessity of a separate incision.

3. Exclusion of Code 69990:

Code 69990 is used for the use of an operating microscope in microsurgery but is not coded separately when the procedure (such as microlaryngoscopy) already includes visualization with a microscope or telescope as part of the CPT® descriptor. Thus, 69990 is not separately reported in this scenario, per CPT® guidelines.

4. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

The guidelines specify that when visualization or microlaryngoscopy is inherently part of the procedure (as in 31526), 69990 should not be billed separately. Also, the use of Modifier 51 for multiple procedures in the same session is appropriate.

Therefore, the verified answer, following the CPT® and AAPC coding rules, is A. 31622, 31526-51.

C2617 – Sinus implant, drug-eluting

Described implant:

Ethmoid sinus

Drug-eluting (corticosteroid)

Absorbable

Why others are incorrect:

C1877 – Vascular stent

S1091 – Temporary code

C9600 – Coronary intervention

The procedure described involves a LeFort I reconstruction, which is a type of orthognathic surgery performed to correct deformities of the midface. In this scenario, the surgeon performed the reconstruction in two pieces, moving the upper jawbone forward and repositioning the teeth of the maxilla. According to the CPT® guidelines, CPT code 21146 describes a LeFort I (maxilla only) osteotomy, two-piece segment, including bone grafts (includes obtaining autografts). This code matches the description provided.

According to ICD-10-CM coding guidelines for substance use, abuse, and dependence, when multiple levels (use, abuse, and dependence) of the same substance are documented, only the highest level of severity is coded. The hierarchy is as follows: dependence > abuse > use.

D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence is correct, as dependence represents the highest severity level and supersedes both use and abuse.

A. is incorrect because if both use and abuse are documented without dependence, only abuse would be coded as it is of a higher severity than use.

B. is incorrect because all three codes (use, abuse, dependence) should not be reported together; only the highest level should be coded.

C. is incorrect because if both abuse and dependence are documented, only dependence (the higher severity level) should be coded, not abuse.

Therefore, the correct answer is D. If both use and dependence are documented, assign only the code for dependence.

80143 = Acetaminophen level

80324/80329 = Drug classes, not specific analytes

80299 = Unlisted therapeutic drug assay

29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.

29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).

29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.

29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.

All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

The anesthesia code for an axillary block for procedures on the upper arm and elbow, which includes the monitoring by the anesthesiologist throughout the procedure, is 01830. This code is appropriate for anesthesia for all procedures on nerves, muscles, tendons, fascia, and bursae of the shoulder and axilla.

CPT® Professional Edition, AMA

Anesthesia Coding Guidelines

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The scenario describes a labial gland biopsy of the salivary gland, performed in the office with a local anesthetic. The provider made an incision in the lower labial mucosa and took tissue samples from the salivary gland for biopsy.

Code 42400 is the correct CPT® code for a biopsy of a salivary gland. This code is specific to a biopsy without a more extensive excision or major surgery, aligning perfectly with the scenario of sampling salivary gland tissue.

2. Ruling Out Other Options:

Code 42408 is for the excision of a deep lobe of a parotid gland, which is a more extensive procedure than a simple biopsy and does not apply to this case.

Code 42405 is for the removal of an entire submandibular gland, which is a full excision and not applicable here.

Code 42450 is used for the removal of a sublingual gland, not for a biopsy of the labial salivary gland.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC and CPT® guidelines direct coders to use 42400 for minor biopsies of salivary gland tissue, particularly when only tissue samples are taken for diagnostic purposes, as described in this case.

Based on CPT® coding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 42400.

U07.1 = COVID-19

J12.82 = Pneumonia due to COVID-19This follows COVID-19 coding guidelines for confirmed cases.

93000 = ECG with tracing, interpretation, and report

93010 = Interpretation only

The spleen is a part of the lymphatic system, which is responsible for filtering blood, removing damaged blood cells, and supporting immune function. The spleen contains lymphocytes that help fight infections and regulate the immune response.

A. Nervous: The nervous system includes the brain, spinal cord, and nerves, unrelated to immune function.

B. Endocrine: The endocrine system regulates hormones through glands like the thyroid and pancreas, not directly involved with blood filtration or immune cell production.

C. Digestive: While the spleen is located near digestive organs, it does not play a role in digestion.

Thus, the correct answer is D. Lymphatic.

1. Procedure and CPT® Code Selection:

The test ordered is a bile acid quantitation using an enzymatic method. This test measures the total bile acids in a patient with chronic hepatitis.

CPT® Code 82248 is specific for quantitation of bile acids, total, which is the correct code for a bile acid test using any method, including enzymatic.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

Code 82247 is used for the measurement of bilirubin, not bile acids, making it inappropriate for this test.

Code 82239 is for measuring an amino acid (gamma-glutamyl transferase), which is unrelated to bile acid quantitation.

Code 82252 is for a fecal bile acid screening, which is different from a quantitation of bile acids in serum or plasma.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to AAPC guidelines, 82248 should be selected for total bile acid quantitation regardless of the specific analytical method used.

Therefore, the correct answer is A. 82248.

1. Problem Type Selection:

Miranda is following up on her diabetes, which is a chronic condition. Her blood sugars are controlled, indicating that the condition is stable with her current medication regimen.

Stable, chronic illness is defined in the CPT® MDM (Medical Decision Making) Table as a chronic condition that is under control and not currently worsening, even if ongoing management is required. This aligns with the patient's diabetes being well-managed with her prescribed medications.

2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:

A. Acute, uncomplicated illness or injury is not applicable as diabetes is a chronic condition, not an acute issue.

B. Minimal problem refers to conditions that are minor or self-limited and typically require little to no treatment, which does not apply to chronic conditions like diabetes.

D. Stable, acute illness would refer to an acute condition that has stabilized, whereas diabetes is a chronic condition, not acute.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

According to the CPT® MDM Table, a "Stable, chronic illness" is the correct classification for a follow-up encounter on a controlled chronic condition like diabetes.

Therefore, the correct answer is C. Stable, chronic illness.

Procedure Coding (CPT®):

31287 – Nasal/sinus endoscopy, surgical; with sphenoidotomy

Correct because the surgeon performed a surgical endoscopic sphenoidotomy to evaluate and treat sphenoid sinus injury.

No CSF leak repair was performed, so codes 31290–31291 are not appropriate.

31231-59 – Nasal endoscopy, diagnostic

Diagnostic endoscopy is separately reportable because:

It was performed to evaluate traumatic injury

It is not bundled into the surgical service when it provides distinct diagnostic information

Modifier -59 indicates a separate and distinct service per NCCI edits.

Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):

S02.109A – Unspecified fracture of base of skull, initial encounter for closed fracture

The anterior cranial fossa fracture with sphenoid sinus involvement qualifies as a skull base fracture

No CSF leak is documented

Correct 7th character “A” for initial encounter

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A – Incorrect format and duplicated CPT logic

B – 31267 = maxillary sinus, wrong sinus

D – 31291 includes CSF leak repair, which was not performed

22514 = Vertebroplasty, lumbar (L5)

22515 = Each additional vertebral body (sacrum)

Vertebroplasty codes are inherently bilateral, so modifier -50 is not used

21015 = Excision of facial tumor, deep (subfascial/intramuscular), 3 cm or less

21016 is for greater than 3 cm

Tumor is exactly 3 cm, making 21015 correct.

End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) is a condition in which the kidneys fail to work effectively to remove waste products and excess fluids from the blood. This primarily affects the genitourinary system, which includes the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra. Patients with ESRD often require dialysis or a kidney transplant.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 14: Diseases of the Genitourinary System (N00-N99).

72114 = Radiologic exam, lumbosacral spine, complete with bending views

Other codes represent fewer views or different spine regions

1. Procedure Details and CPT® Code Selection:

The patient is undergoing stage 2 treatment for double outlet right ventricle (DORV) with a removal of the pulmonary artery band and transposition repair of the great vessels.

Code 33779 is specific for correction of a double outlet right ventricle, with transposition of the great arteries. This code accurately reflects the procedure performed, including the complex repair involving the transposition of the pulmonary trunk and aortic root.

Code 33953 is used to report the initiation of extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO), which was used to maintain oxygenation during the procedure.

Code 33985 is for the termination of ECMO following the surgical repair once heart function has resumed. Both 33953 and 33985 accurately document the initiation and termination of ECMO during this complex heart repair.

2. Modifier Selection:

Modifier 78 (unplanned return to the operating room for a related procedure during the postoperative period) is appropriate here. This is a subsequent stage in the treatment plan, but due to the complexity and specific surgical intervention required, it is treated as a return to the OR for related procedure coding.

Modifier 58 (staged or related procedure during the postoperative period) would not be as suitable here because the procedure involves a new return to the OR.

3. AAPC and CPT® Coding Guidelines:

AAPC guidelines support the use of specific modifiers (78 for unplanned return) and appropriate ECMO codes (33953 and 33985) in complex cardiac cases requiring bypass and staged treatment.

Thus, the correct CPT® codes based on CPT® and AAPC coding standards are C. 33779-78, 33953-78, 33985-78.

Dacryocystitis is the inflammation of the lacrimal sac, which is part of the tear drainage system located in the inner corner of the eye. The lacrimal sac is connected to the nasolacrimal duct, which drains tears into the nasal cavity. Inflammation in this area can cause pain, redness, and swelling near the inner corner of the eye.

ICD-10-CM, medical dictionaries

Procedure: Albumin Cobalt Binding (ACB) test to determine ischemic nature of chest pain.

CPT® Code:

83857: This code is used for the Albumin Cobalt Binding test.

Code Selection Justification: The ACB test specifically measures ischemia-modified albumin, making 83857 the appropriate code for this laboratory test.

AMA CPT® Professional Edition (current year)

ICD-10-CM (current year)

HCPCS Level II (current year)

81025 – Urine pregnancy test, by visual color comparison methods

Correct for office-based urine pregnancy testing

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

81000–81005 – Urinalysis codes, not pregnancy testing

Removal of a foreign body from the nose using forceps or other instrumentation is coded with CPT 30300. This code includes the use of local anesthesia, which aligns with the scenario where a nasal decongestant was used.

38573 includes comprehensive laparoscopic staging with bilateral pelvic lymphadenectomy and paraaortic sampling

All listed components are bundled into this code

93280 – In-person interrogation device evaluation with programming; dual-chamber pacemaker

Includes:

Full electronic analysis

Lead function

Battery status

Threshold testing

Programming changes

Why others are incorrect:

93281 – Single-chamber pacemaker

93283 / 93284 – ICD device codes

Established patient with moderate MDM

99214 aligns with CPC exam standards

Pressure ulcer excision with bone involvement → CPT 15937 (sacral, with ostectomy)

Stage 4 pressure ulcer → L89.156 (sacral region with necrosis of bone)

Emergency department visit with high severity

99285 = High complexity ED E/M

54160 = Circumcision using surgical excision other than clamp

Modifier -63 is not appended to circumcision codes (CPT® exempt list)

54150 is for clamp technique (not used)

00534 = Anesthesia for pacemaker/defibrillator procedures

QZ = CRNA without medical direction

QS = MAC anesthesia

I49.01 = Ventricular fibrillation

Shave removal → CPT 11300–11313, not excision (11400–11646).

Face (nose) → 11310–11313

0.6–1.0 cm → 11311

Inflamed seborrheic keratosis → L82.0

Cervical spondylosis with myelopathy: Condition requiring decompressive surgery.

Bilateral posterior laminectomy, facetectomies, foraminotomies: Procedures performed to decompress nerve roots.

Interspaces C5-C6 and C6-C7: Specific levels where the procedures were performed.

CPT code 63045 is used for the initial cervical laminectomy, and 63048 is for each additional segment. The combination covers the decompression across two interspaces.

To accurately code this emergency department visit, we need to assess the three key components: history, examination, and medical decision making (MDM).

History:

The documentation supports an expanded problem-focused history. This includes a chief complaint, a brief history of present illness (HPI), a review of systems (ROS) with pertinent positives and negatives, and a past medical history.

Examination:

The examination is also expanded problem-focused. The physician focused on the relevant systems (constitutional, HENT, respiratory) and documented specific findings related to the chief complaint (appears tired).

Medical Decision Making:

The MDM complexity is low. The physician is assessing a new problem (shortness of breath and weakness) with a low level of risk. No further testing or treatment is documented in this encounter.

Based on these components, 99283 is the most appropriate code.

Why other options are incorrect:

99282: Requires a problem-focused history and examination, which is less comprehensive than what was documented.

99284 and 99285: Require a higher level of MDM (moderate or high complexity) and/or a more detailed examination. The documentation doesn't support this level of service.

Diabetic polyneuropathy is coded as E11.42, which indicates type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic polyneuropathy. The ICD-10-CM guidelines direct that when a patient has both diabetes and polyneuropathy, a single combination code is used to capture both conditions.

ICD-10-CM (current year), Chapter 4: Endocrine, Nutritional, and Metabolic Diseases (E00-E89), ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, Section I.C.4.a.6.

The gallbladder is part of the digestive system. It stores and concentrates bile, which aids in the digestion of fats.

It works closely with the liver and biliary tract, all of which belong to the digestive system, making C the correct answer.

This is destruction of malignant lesions (SCC).

17261 = Malignant lesion destruction, trunk/arms/legs, 0.6–1.0 cm

17262 = Same location, 1.1–2.0 cm

Feet are included in trunk/arms/legs.

Therefore, 17262, 17261 is correct.

Procedure Coding:

72158 – MRI, lumbar spine; without contrast, followed by with contrast

Single comprehensive code

Diagnosis Coding:

M54.42 – Low back pain with sciatica, left side

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B / C – Incorrectly unbundling MRI codes

D – Coding additional unspecified low back pain is inappropriate

The knee joint consists of three primary compartments:

1. Medial compartment: The inside part of the knee, which includes the femur and tibia interaction on the inner side.

2. Lateral compartment: The outside part of the knee, where the femur and tibia meet on the outer side.

3. Patellofemoral compartment: The area between the patella (kneecap) and the femur.

These three compartments are essential for knee joint stability and function, allowing movement and weight-bearing activities.

B. Trochlea groove and vestibular are not associated with knee anatomy.

C. Posterior malleolus, scapula, and fibular facet do not relate to knee compartments; the malleolus is in the ankle, scapula in the shoulder, and fibular facet is not part of the primary knee compartments.

D. Cochlea is unrelated to knee anatomy and refers to a part of the inner ear.

Thus, the correct answer is A. Medial, lateral, and patellofemoral.