CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Question and Answers

High employee turnover (A) poses the greatest risk because it leads to knowledge loss, operational disruptions, and potential security risks from departing employees. A constantly changing workforce can also impact compliance, training, and overall IT stability.

Other options:

Lack of customer satisfaction surveys (B) is a business issue but not a critical IT risk.

Aging staff (C) may be a long-term risk but does not have an immediate impact.

Frequent software upgrades (D) can be beneficial if managed correctly.

The senior auditor’s most appropriate course of action is to have the finding reinstated, because the auditee’s claim of correcting the problem is not sufficient evidence to support the removal of the finding. The auditor should verify that the corrective action has been implemented effectively and that it has resolved the underlying issue or risk. The auditor should also document the evidence andresults of the verification in the work papers. The other options are not appropriate, because they either accept the auditee’s claim without verification, delegate the responsibility to the auditee or escalate the issue unnecessarily. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 1, section 1.51

ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals,section12062

 An employee is induced to reveal confidential IP addresses and passwords by answering questions over the phone. This is a social engineering attack method that exploits the trust or curiosity of the employee to obtain sensitive information that can be used to access or compromise the network. According to the web search results, social engineering is a technique that uses psychological manipulationto trick users into making security mistakes or giving away sensitive information1. Phishing, whaling, baiting, and pretexting are some of the common forms of social engineering attacks2. Social engineering attacks are often more effective and profitable than purely technical attacks, as they rely on human error rather than system vulnerabilities

 The best recommendation to mitigate the risk of eavesdropping associated with an API integration implementation is to implement Transport Layer Security (TLS). TLS is a cryptographic protocol that provides secure communication over a network by encrypting the data in transit and authenticating the parties involved. TLS can prevent unauthorized parties from intercepting, modifying or tampering with the data exchanged between the API endpoints. Encrypting the XML file, implementing SOAP, and masking the API endpoints are not sufficient to mitigate the risk of eavesdropping, as they do not provide end-to-end encryption or authentication for the API communication. References: IS Auditand Assurance Tools and Techniques, CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA

The programmer having access to the production programs is the most likely control weakness that would have contributed to the unauthorized changes to the payroll system report. This is because the programmer could modify the production code without proper authorization, documentation, or testing, and bypass the change management process. This could result in errors, fraud, or data integrity issues in the payroll system. The programmer should only have access to the development or test environment, and the production programs should be under the control of a librarian or a change manager.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 254

4 Types of Internal Control Weaknesses

ACCT 4631 - Internal Auditing: CIA Quiz Topic 6 Flashcards

The best assurance is obtained by verifying a sample of critical fields. If the question is specifically about encryption at the database level, the auditor should test the actual data elements in the database that are expected to be encrypted. ISACA privacy and data-protection guidance discusses encryption of sensitive data fields as a protection mechanism, which supports validating field-level protection directly.

Option C is correct because it provides direct evidence that sensitive database fields are actually encrypted. This is stronger than reviewing policies or peripheral settings because it tests the implemented control itself.

Option A is incorrect because drive settings usually relate to disk or full-volume encryption on the host server, not necessarily to database-level encryption of specific sensitive fields.

Option B is incorrect because checking network traffic for clear text transmissions only helps verify encryption in transit, not whether the data is encrypted within the database.

Option D is incorrect because a policy only states intent or requirement. It does not prove the database is actually encrypting sensitive fields.

Therefore, C is the best answer because direct verification of sensitive fields provides the strongest assurance that encryption is implemented at the database level.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Journal, Practical Data Security and Privacy for GDPR and CCPA — discusses encryption of sensitive client data fields.

ISACA Journal, Privacy-Preserving Analytics and Secure Multiparty Computation — discusses encryption of sensitive data fields throughout the data life cycle.

ISACA, Cloud Data Sovereignty: Governance and Risk Implications of Cross-Border Cloud Storage — distinguishes encryption at rest and in transit, supporting why network checks alone are insufficient for database-level assurance.

The first task that an IS auditor should complete during the preliminary planning phase of a database security review is to determine which databases will be in scope. The scope defines the boundaries and objectives of the audit, as well as the resources, time, and budget required. The IS auditor should identify the databases that are relevant to the audit based on factors such as their criticality, risk, complexity, size, type, location, and ownership. The IS auditor should also consider the regulatory, contractual, and organizational requirements that apply to the databases. By defining the scope clearly and accurately, the IS auditor can ensure that the audit is focused, feasible, and effective. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

CISA Questions, Answers and Explanations Database

 Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates the behavior and reliability of a system under extreme conditions, such as high workload, limited resources, or concurrent users. Stress testing should ideally be carried out under a test environment with production workloads, as this would simulate the most realistic and demanding scenario for the system without affecting the actual production environment. A production environment with production workloads is not suitable for stress testing, as it could cause disruption or damage to the system and its users. A production environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could compromise the integrity and security of the production data. A test environment with test data is not suitable for stress testing, as it could underestimate the potential issues and risks that could occur in the production environment. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 471-4721

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database,Question ID: 261

Enterprise Architecture (EA) governance requires proper oversight and separation of duties to ensure strategic alignment and risk management.

Option A (Correct):If IT application owners have sole authority over architecture approval, there is a high risk of inadequate governance, lack of strategic alignment, and potential conflicts of interest. Architecture decisions should involve multiple stakeholders, including business and security teams, to ensure compliance, security, and business alignment.

Option B (Incorrect):While having the CIO chair the architecture review board might not be ideal, it is not thegreatestconcern. The CIO is a senior leader who can provide oversight and direction, even if additional governance mechanisms should be in place.

Option C (Incorrect):Reviewing security requirements within the EA program is abest practice, as it ensures that security is embedded into enterprise architecture rather than treated as an afterthought.

Option D (Incorrect):Enterprise architecture should ideally encompass both IT and business processes. Governing non-IT-related projects is not inherently problematic, as EA is designed to align business strategy with IT infrastructure.

An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a preventive control that sets out rules and guidelines for using an organization’s IT resources, including networks, devices, and software1. It defines acceptable and prohibited behaviors, aiming to protect assets, ensure security, and maintain a productive work environment1. By agreeing to and documenting an AUP for the equipment, both organizations can prevent potential misuse of IT resources2345.

 The chain of custody has not been documented is a finding that should be of greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a forensic analysis process of an organization that has suffered a cyber attack. The chain of custody is a record of who handled, accessed, or modified the evidence during a forensic investigation. Documenting the chain of custody is essential to preserve the integrity, authenticity, and admissibility of the evidence in a court of law. The other options are less concerning findings that may not affect the validity or reliability of the forensic analysis process. References:

CISAReview Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.51

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 220

Substantive testing © provides the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s security information and event management (SIEM) system, because it is a type of audit testing that directly examines the accuracy, completeness, and reliability of the data and transactions recorded in the logs. Substantive testing can involve various methods, such as re-performance, inspection, observation, inquiry, or computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs), to verify the existence, occurrence, valuation, ownership, presentation, and disclosure of the log data1. Substantive testing canalso detect any errors, omissions, alterations, or manipulations of the log data that may indicate fraud or misstatement2.

Compliance testing (A) is not the best evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system, because it is a type of audit testing that evaluates the design and effectiveness of the internal controls that are implemented to ensure compliance with laws, regulations, policies, and procedures. Compliance testing can involve various methods, such as walkthroughs, questionnaires, checklists, or flowcharts, to assess the adequacy, consistency, and operation of the internal controls1. Compliance testing can provide assurance that the log data are generated and processed in accordance with the established rules and standards, but it does not directly verify the accuracy and reliability of the log data itself2.

Stop-or-go sampling (B) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to select a sample from a population for testing. Stop-or-go sampling is a sequential sampling technique that allows auditors to stop testing before reaching the predetermined sample size if the results are satisfactory or conclusive. Stop-or-go sampling can reduce the audit cost and time by avoiding unnecessary testing, but it can also increase the sampling risk and uncertainty by relying on a smaller sample3. Stop-or-go sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

Variable sampling (D) is not a type of audit testing, but a type of sampling technique that auditors use to estimate a numerical characteristic of a population for testing. Variable sampling is a statistical sampling technique that allows auditors to measure the amount or rate of error or deviation in a population by using quantitative methods. Variable sampling can provide precise and objective results by using mathematical formulas and confidence intervals4. Variable sampling does not provide any evidence of the validity and integrity of logs in an organization’s SIEM system by itself; it depends on the type and quality of the audit tests performed on the selected sample.

Stress testing is designed to evaluate a system’s performance under extreme conditions1. It is typically carried out in a test environment that closely mirrors the production environment, using production workloads1. This approach ensures that the test results accurately reflect how the system would perform under similar conditions in the production environment1. Using a test environment also prevents any disruptions or damage to the production environment during testing1.

 The primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image during an operating system audit is to identify atypical running processes. A baseline image is a snapshot of the normal state and configuration of an operating system, including the processes that are expected to run on it. By comparing the current state of the operating system with the baseline image, an IS auditor can detect any deviations or anomalies that may indicate unauthorized or malicious activity, such as malware infection, privilege escalation, or data exfiltration. A baseline image can also help an IS auditor to assess the performance and efficiency of the operating system, as well as its compliance with security standards and policies.

Verifying antivirus definitions (option B) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Antivirus definitions are the files that contain the signatures and rules for detecting and removing malware. An IS auditor may verify that the antivirus definitions are up to date and consistent across the operating system, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.

Identifying local administrator account access (option C) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Local administrator accounts are user accounts that have full control over the operating system and its resources. An IS auditor may identify and review the local administrator accounts to ensure that they are properly secured and authorized, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.

Verifying the integrity of operating system backups (option D) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the backup process. Operating system backups are copies of the operating system data and settings that can be used to restore the system in case of failure or disaster. An IS auditor may verify that the operating system backups are complete, accurate, and accessible, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.

Awalk-through of job functionsprovides direct evidence thatseparation of duties (SoD)is implemented effectively. It involves observing employees as they perform tasks to confirm that no single person has excessive privileges.

Walk-through of Job Functions (Correct Answer – D)

Confirms that duties are appropriately divided in real-world operations.

Helps verify whether security policies and controls are enforced.

Example:An auditor observes that the same person cannot create and approve financial transactions.

Review of Personnel Files (Incorrect – A)

Personnel files contain job details but do not confirm how duties are performed.

Analysis of Documented Job Descriptions (Incorrect – B)

Job descriptions may be outdated or inaccurate.

Review of Organizational Chart (Incorrect – C)

Shows reporting relationships but does not confirm SoD implementation.

Shadow IT often arises when approved software does not meet user requirements (Option D), leading employees to seek alternative solutions.

ISACA CISA Reference: IT governance frameworks stress the need for user-centric IT policies to mitigate shadow IT risks.

Risk Implication: Shadow IT introduces security vulnerabilities, compliance risks, and potential data breaches.

The primary objective of value delivery in reference to IT governance is to optimize investments. Value delivery is one of the five focus areas of IT governance that aims to ensure that IT delivers expected benefits to stakeholders and enables business value creation. Value delivery involves aligning IT investments with business objectives and strategies, managing IT performance and benefits realization, optimizing IT costs and risks, and enhancing IT innovation and agility. Value delivery helps to maximize the return on investment (ROI) and value for money (VFM) of IT resources and capabilities. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

CISA Questions, Answers and Explanations Database

The greatest risk associated with having most users with administrator access to an externally facing system containing sensitive data is that users can make unauthorized changes to the system or the data, which could compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system and the data. Users can export application logs, view sensitive data, and install open-licensed software are also risks, but they are not as severe as unauthorized changes. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 4

The best recommendation to improve IT governance within the organization is C. Require executive management to draft IT strategy. IT governance is the process of establishing and maintaining the policies, roles, responsibilities, and accountabilities for managing technology risks within an organization1. One of the key objectives of IT governance is to ensure alignment and integration between technology and business strategies, leading to optimal outcomes and value creation1. Therefore, it is essential that executive management, who are responsible for setting the vision, mission, and goals of the organization, are also involved in drafting the IT strategy that supports and enables them. By requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, the organization can:

Ensure that the IT strategy is consistent and coherent with the business strategy, and reflects the organization’s priorities, values, and culture2.

Enhance communication and collaboration between IT and business functions, and foster a shared understanding and commitment to the IT strategy2.

Increase accountability and transparency for IT performance and outcomes, and ensure that IT investments are aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and value proposition2.

The issue seems to stem from a breakdown in the workflow or process for handling assets that are due for destruction12. By examining the workflow, the IS auditor can identify where the process failed, such as why the vendor was not notified about the hard drives12. This could involve reviewing procedures for inventory management, communication with vendors, and tracking of assets due for destruction12. The findings can then be used to improve the workflow and prevent similar issues in the future12.

The first action that an IS auditor should take when finding a high-risk vulnerability in a public-facing web server used to process online customer payments is to identify compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that provide reasonable assurance of mitigating the risk of exploiting the vulnerability. The IS auditor should assess the effectiveness of the compensating controls and determine whether they reduce the risk to an acceptable level. If not, the IS auditor should recommend remediation actions to address the vulnerability. Documenting the exception in an audit report is an important action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not address the urgency of the situation. Reviewing security incident reports is a useful action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not provide assurance of preventing future incidents. Notifying the audit committee is a necessary action, but it should not be the first action, as it does not involve taking any corrective measures. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, pages 295-2961

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID: 260

The most important thing to determine during the planning phase of a cloud-based messaging and collaboration platform acquisition is the types of data that can be uploaded to the platform. This is because different types of data may have different security, privacy, and compliance requirements, depending on the nature, sensitivity, and value of the data. For example, personal data, financial data, health data, or intellectual property data may be subject to various laws and regulations thatgovern how they can be collected, stored, processed, and shared in the cloud. Therefore, it is essential to identify and classify the types of data that will be uploadedto the platform, and ensure that the platform meets the organization’s policies and standards for data protection1.

The other options are not as important as the types of data that can be uploaded to the platform during the planning phase of a cloud-based messaging and collaboration platform acquisition. Option A, role-based access control policies, is a mechanism that defines who can access what data and resources on the platform based on their roles and responsibilities. Role-based access control policies are important for ensuring data security and accountability, but they can be designed and implemented after the platform is acquired2. Option C, processes for on-boarding and off-boarding users to the platform, are procedures that enable or disable user accounts and access rights on the platform. Processes for on-boarding and off-boarding users are important for managing user identities and lifecycles, but they can be developed and executed after the platform is acquired3. Option D, processes for reviewing administrator activity, are methods that monitor and audit the actions and events performed by administrators on the platform. Processes for reviewing administrator activity are important for detecting and preventing unauthorized or malicious activities, but they can be established and performed after the platform is acquired4.

The best recommendation to mitigate the risk of data leakage from lost or stolen devices that contain confidential data is to configure them to auto-wipe after multiple failed access attempts, as this would prevent unauthorized access and erase sensitive information from the device. Requiring employees to attend security awareness training, password protecting critical data files, or enabling device auto-lockfunction are also good practices, but they may not be sufficient oreffective in preventing data leakage from lost or stolen devices. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3

Data collection and obtaining consentis themost critical regulatory requirementwhen using customer data for AI training, especially under laws likeGDPR, CCPA, and ISO 27701.

Collection of Data and Obtaining Consent (Correct Answer – C)

Ensures compliance withprivacy lawsthat require explicit customer consent.

Example:UnderGDPR, companies mustinform usershow their data will be used and allow them toopt out.

AI Algorithm Accuracy (Incorrect – A)

Important formodel performancebutnot a primary legal concern.

Ethical Use of Computing Resources (Incorrect – B)

Ethical considerations are valuable butnot a regulatory priority.

Continuous Monitoring of AI (Incorrect – D)

Ensuresperformance, butregulatory compliance focuses on data privacy.

 Identifying business processes associated with personal data exchange with the affected jurisdiction is the most helpful activity in making an assessment of the organization’s level of exposure in the affected country. An IS auditor should understand how the organization’s business operations and functions rely on or involve the cross-border transfer of personal data, as well as the potentialimpacts and risks of the new regulation on the business continuity and compliance. The other options are less helpful activities that may provide additional information or context for the assessment, but not its primary focus. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 7, Section 7.4.21

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 221

The authority given to the audit function is one of the components that is found in an audit charter. According to the IIA, the audit charter is a formal document that defines internal audit’s purpose, authority, responsibility and position within the organization1. The authority given to the audit function includes the scope of its activities, the access to records, personnel and physical properties relevant to its work, and the independence and objectivity of its staff2. The authority given to the audit function helps to ensure that internal auditors can perform their duties effectively and efficiently, and that they can provide assurance and consulting services that add value and improve the organization’s operations3.

The other options are not found in an audit charter. The process of developing the annual audit plan is not part of the audit charter, but rather a separate document that outlines the methodology, criteria and resources for selecting and prioritizing audit engagements based on a risk assessment4. Required training for audit staff is not part of the audit charter, but rather a component of the quality assurance and improvement program that evaluates the competence and performance of internal auditors and provides them with opportunities for professional development5. Audit objectives and scope are not part of the audit charter, but rather specific elements of each individual audit engagement that define the expected outcomes and the boundaries of the audit work.

The primary objective of an IS auditor when reviewing the installation of a new server is to ensure that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies. Security parameters are settingsor options that control the security level and behavior of the server, such as authentication methods, encryption algorithms, access rights, audit logs, firewall rules, or password policies7. The organization’s policies are documents that define the security goals, requirements, standards, and guidelines for the organization’s information systems. An IS auditor should verify that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies to ensure that the new server complies with the organization’s security expectations and regulations. The other options are less important or incorrect because:

A. Security parameters should not be set in accordance with the manufacturer’s standards alone, as they may not reflect the organization’s specific security needs and environment. The manufacturer’s standards are general recommendations or best practices for configuring the server’s security parameters based on common scenarios and threats. An IS auditor should compare the manufacturer’s standards with the organization’s policies and identify any gaps or conflicts that need to be resolved.

B. A detailed business case should have been formally approved prior to the purchase of a new server rather than during its installation. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a new server based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case should be approved by senior management before initiating a project to acquire a new server.

D. The procurement project should have invited tenders from at least three different suppliers before purchasing a new server rather than during its installation. A tender is a formal offer or proposal to provide a product or service at a specified price and quality. Inviting tenders from multiple suppliers helps to ensure a fair and competitive procurement process that can result in the best value for money and quality for the organization. References: Server Security - ISACA, [Information Security Policy - ISACA], [Server Hardening - ISACA] , [Business Case - ISACA], [Tender - ISACA] , [Procurement Management - ISACA]

Quantum algorithms, such as Shor’s algorithm, can factor large prime numbers exponentially faster than classical computers, threatening the security of RSA and elliptic-curve cryptography. Similarly, Grover’s algorithm reduces the effective strength of symmetric key algorithms by half, requiring larger key sizes. While post-quantum cryptography is being developed, current algorithms may become obsolete once practical quantum computers exist. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because quantum does not inherently improve encryption, nor is training the key issue—it is the fundamental breakage of cryptographic assumptions.

References (ISACA): ISACA Journal – Cryptographic Risks and Quantum Computing; CISA Review Manual, Cryptography.

The first step in an incident response plan is typically preparation12. However, among the options provided, validating the incident would be the first step. This involves confirming that a security event is actually an incident3. It’s important to verify the event to avoid wasting resources on false positives.

When a program release needs to be backed out of production, the changes introduced by that release must be removed from the source code to ensure the system returns to its prior state. This approach ensures that the source code reflects the stable version without the problematic changes.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Page 244-245 (Change Management)

 The most significant concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an industrial control system (ICS) that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit is that there is a greater risk of system exploitation. System exploitation is an attack that occurs when an unauthorized entity or individual takes advantage of a vulnerability or weakness in a system to compromise its security or functionality. System exploitation can cause harm or damage to the system or its users, such as data loss, corruption, theft, manipulation, denial of service (DoS), etc. An ICS that uses older unsupported technology poses a high risk of system exploitation, as older technology may have known or unknown vulnerabilities or defects that have not been patched or fixed by the vendor or manufacturer, and unsupported technology may not receive any updates or support from the vendor or manufacturer in case of issues or incidents. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Attack vectors are methods or pathways that attackers use to gain access to or attack a system. Attack vectors are evolving for industrial control systems, as attackers are developing new techniques or tools to target ICSs that are increasingly connected and complex. However, this concern may not be specific to older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. Disaster recovery plans (DRPs) are not in place is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. DRPs are documents that outline the technical and operational steps for restoring the IT systems and infrastructure that support critical functions or processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. DRPs are not in place, as they may affect the availability and continuity of the ICS and its functions or processes in case of a failure or incident. However, this concern may not be related to older unsupported technology, as it may apply to any ICS regardless of its technology level. Technical specifications are not documented is a possible concern for an IS auditor when reviewing an ICS that uses older unsupported technology in the scope of an upcoming audit, but it is not the most significant one. Technical specifications are documents that describe the technical characteristics or requirements of a system or component, such as functionality, performance, design, etc. Technical specifications are not documented, as they may affect the understanding, maintenance, and improvement of the ICS and its components. However, this concern may not beassociated with older unsupported technology, as it may affect any ICS regardless of its technology level. 

The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with end-user computing (EUC) in an organization is the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications. EUC applications are applications that are developed and maintained by end-users, rather than by IT professionals, to support their business functions and processes. Examples of EUC applications include spreadsheets, databases, reports, and scripts. The lack of defined criteria for EUC applications means that the organization does not have clear and consistent standards or guidelines to identify, classify, and manage EUC applications. This can lead to various risks, such as:

Inaccurate or unreliable data and results from EUC applications that are not validated, verified, or tested

Unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of EUC applications that are not secured, controlled, or monitored

Inconsistent or incompatible data and results from EUC applications that are not integrated, documented, or updated

Loss or corruption of data and results from EUC applications that are not backed up, recovered, or archived

Therefore, the IS auditor should be most concerned about the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications, as it can affect the quality, integrity, and availability of the EUC applications and the data they produce.

Insufficient processes to track ownership of each EUC application is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. The ownership of an EUC application refers to the person or group who is responsible for creating, maintaining, and using the EUC application. Insufficient processes to track ownership of each EUC application means that the organization does not have adequate mechanisms orrecords to identify and communicate who owns each EUC application. This can lead to risks, such as:

Lack of accountability or ownership for the quality and accuracy of the EUC application and its data

Lack of support or maintenance for the EUC application when the owner leaves or changes roles

Lack of awareness or training for the users of the EUC application on its purpose and functionality

However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.

Insufficient processes to test for version control is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. Version control is a process that tracks and manages the changes made to an EUC application over time. Insufficient processes to test for version control means that the organization does not have adequate procedures or tools to ensure that the changes made to an EUC application are authorized, documented, and tested. This can lead to risks, such as:

Errors or inconsistencies in the data and results from different versions of the EUC application

Conflicts or confusion among the users of the EUC application on which version is current or correct

Loss or overwrite of data and results from previous versions of the EUC application

However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.

Lack of awareness training for EUC users is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. Awareness training for EUC users is a process that educates and informs the users of the EUC applications on their roles, responsibilities, and risks. Lack of awareness training for EUC users means that the organization does not have adequate programs or materials to raise the knowledge and skills of the users on how to use and manage the EUC applications effectively and securely. This can lead to risks, such as:

Misuse or abuse of the EUC applications by users who are not aware of their impact or implications

Non-compliance or violation of policies or regulations by users who are not aware of their requirements or expectations

Dissatisfaction or frustration among users who are not aware of their benefits or limitations

However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.

The best sampling method to use for verifying the adequacy of an organization’s internal controls and being concerned about potential circumvention of regulations is B. Random sampling. Random sampling is a method of selecting a sample from a population in which each item has an equal and independent chance of being selected1. Random sampling reduces the risk of bias or manipulation in the sample selection, and ensures that the sample is representative of the population. Random sampling can be used for both attribute and variable sampling, which are two types of audit sampling that test for the occurrence rate or the monetary value of errors, respectively2.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

For a microservices architecture, the most effective way to understand data movement between components is through data flow diagrams (DFDs). DFDs clearly show inputs, outputs, processes, and data stores, helping auditors trace data movement across distributed services.

Option A: Correct — DFDs highlight application inputs/outputs.

Option B: Network diagrams show infrastructure but not logical data flows.

Option C: Business requirements document functional needs, not technical flows.

Option D: ER diagrams describe database structures, not process flows.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 3, section on system documentation and data flow diagrams in audit analysis.

A post-implementation review (PIR) is a process to evaluatewhether the objectives of the project were met, determine how effectively this wasachieved, learn lessons for the future, and ensure that the organisation gets the most benefit from the implementation of projects1. A PIR is an important tool for assessing the success and value of a project, as well as identifying the areas for improvement and best practices for future projects.

One of the key elements of a PIR is to measure the benefits of the project against the expected outcomes and benefits that were defined at the beginning of the project. Measurable benefits are the quantifiable and verifiable results or outcomes that the project delivers to theorganisation or its stakeholders, such as increased revenue, reduced costs, improved quality, enhanced customer satisfaction, or compliance with regulations2. Measurable benefits should be aligned with the organisation’s strategy, vision, and goals, and should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound).

The finding that measurable benefits were not defined is of greatest significance among the four findings, because it implies that:

The project did not have a clear and agreed-upon purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables

The project did not have a valid and realistic business case or justification for its initiation and implementation

The project did not have a robust and effective monitoring and evaluation mechanism to track its progress, performance, and impact

The project did not have a reliable and transparent way to demonstrate its value proposition and return on investment to the organisation or its stakeholders

The project did not have a meaningful and actionable way to learn from its achievements and challenges, and to improve its processes and practices

Therefore, an IS auditor should recommend that measurable benefits are defined for any project before its implementation, and that they are reviewed and reported regularly during and after the project’s completion.

The other possible findings are:

A lessons-learned session was never conducted: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A lessons-learned session is a process of capturing and documenting the knowledge, experience, and feedback gained from a project, both positive and negative. A lessons-learned session helps to identify the strengths and weaknesses of the project management process, as well as the best practices and lessons for future projects. A lessons-learned session should be conducted at the end of each projectphase or milestone, as well as at the end of the project. However, even without a formal lessons-learned session, some learning may still occur informally or implicitly among the project team members or stakeholders.

The projects 10% budget overrun was not reported to senior management: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A budget overrun is a situation where the actual cost of a project exceeds its planned or estimated cost. A budget overrun may indicate poor planning, estimation, or control of the project resources, or unexpected changes or risks that occurred during the project implementation. A budget overrun should be reported to senior management as soon as possible, along with the reasons for it and the corrective actions taken or proposed. However, a budget overrun may not necessarily affect the quality or value of the project deliverables or outcomes if they are still within acceptable standards or expectations.

Monthly dashboards did not always contain deliverables: This is a significant finding, but not as significant as the lack of measurable benefits. A dashboard is a visual tool that displays key performance indicators (KPIs) or metrics related to a project’s progress, status, or results. A dashboard helps to monitor and communicate the performance of a project to various stakeholders in a concise and clear manner. A dashboard should include deliverables as one of its components, along with other elements such as schedule, budget, quality, risks, issues, or benefits. However, even without deliverables in monthly dashboards, some information about them may still be available from other sources such as reports or documents.

 The primary factor to determine system criticality is the maximum allowable downtime (MAD), which is the maximum period of time that a system can be unavailable before causing significant damage or risk to the organization. TheMAD reflects the business impact and the recovery requirements of the system, and it can be used to prioritize the systems and allocate the resources for disaster recovery planning. The other options are not as important as the MAD, and they may vary depending on the system characteristics and the recovery strategy. The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum amount of data loss that is acceptable for a system. The mean time to restore (MTTR) is the average time required to restore a system after a failure. The key performance indicators (KPIs) are metrics that measure the performance and effectiveness of a system. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) 1, page 468-469.

QUESTIO NO. 704

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that a cloud provider ' s change management process is effective?

A. Minutes from regular change management meetings with the vendor

B. Written assurances from the vendor ' s CEO and CIO

C. The results of a third-party review provided by the vendor

D. A copy of change management policies provided by the vendor

Answer: C

The results of a third-party review provided by the vendor would provide the best evidence that a cloud provider’s change management process is effective, because it would be an independent and objective assessment of the vendor’s compliance with best practices and standards for managing changes in the cloud environment. A third-party review would also include testing of the vendor’s change management controls and procedures, and provide recommendations for improvement if needed.

Minutes from regular change management meetings with the vendor would not provide sufficient evidence, because they would only reflect the vendor’s self-reported information and may not capture all the changes that occurred or their impact on the cloud services. Written assurances from the vendor’s CEO and CIO would also not provide sufficient evidence, because they would be based on the vendor’s own opinion and may not be verified by external sources. A copy of change management policies provided by the vendor would not provide sufficient evidence, because it would only show the vendor’s intended approach to change management, but not how it is implemented or monitored in practice.

The IS auditor’s best course of action if they suspect an organization’s computer may have been used to commit a crime is to contact the incident response team to conduct an investigation. The incident response team is a group of experts who are responsible for responding to security incidents, such as data breaches, ransomware attacks, or cybercrimes. The incident response team can help to preserve and collect digital evidence, determine the scope and impact of the incident, contain and eradicate the threat, and restore normal operations. The IS auditor should not examine the computer themselves, as they may inadvertently alter or destroy potential evidence, or compromise the chain of custody. The IS auditor should also not notify local law enforcement before further investigation, as this may escalate the situation unnecessarily or interfere with the internal investigation process. The IS auditor should advise management of the crime after the investigation, or as soon as possible if there is an imminent risk or legal obligation to do so.

Access to the spreadsheet is given only to those who require access is the most important control for maintaining the security of data in the spreadsheet. An IS auditor should ensure that the principle of least privilege is applied to limit the access to sensitive financial data and prevent unauthorized disclosure, modification, or deletion. The other options are less important controls that may enhance the accuracy, availability, or integrity of data in the spreadsheet, but not its security. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 210

Data disposal controls are the measures that ensure that data are securely and permanently erased or destroyed when they are no longer needed or authorized to be retained. Data disposal controls support business strategic objectives by reducing the risk of data breaches, complying with dataprivacy regulations, optimizing the use of storage resources, and enhancing the reputation and trust of the organization1.

A media sanitization policy is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and standards for sanitizing different types of media that contain sensitive or confidential data. Media sanitization is the process of removing or modifying data on a media device to make it unreadable or unrecoverable by any means. Media sanitization can be achieved by various methods, such as overwriting, degaussing, encryption, or physical destruction2.

A media sanitization policy would provide an IS auditor with the greatest assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives because it demonstrates that the organization has a clear and consistent approach to protect its data from unauthorized access or disclosure throughout the data life cycle. Amedia sanitization policy also helps the organization to comply with various data privacy regulations, such as the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), that require proper disposal of personal or sensitive data3.

The other options are not as effective as a media sanitization policy in providing assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives. A media recycling policy is a document that defines the criteria and procedures for reusing media devices that have been sanitized or erased. A media recycling policy can help the organization to save costsand reduce environmental impact, but it does not address how the data are disposed of in the first place4. A media labeling policy is a document that defines the rules and standards for labeling media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media labeling policy can help the organization to identify and classify its data assets, but it does not specify how the data are sanitized or destroyed when they are no longer needed. A media shredding policy is a document that defines the methods and procedures for physically destroying media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media shredding policy can be a part of a media sanitization policy, but it is not sufficient to cover all types of media devices or data disposal scenarios.

 Resilience is the ability of an organization to continue to operate effectively during or after a disruptive event. A business impact analysis (BIA) is a key process to identify the critical systems and processes that support the organization’s objectives and determine the impact of their disruption. Without a BIA, the organization may not be able to prioritize the recovery of the most important systems and processes, which poses the greatest risk to its resilience. The other options are not as significant as a BIA, as they relate to data quality, system monitoring, and user acceptance testing, which are important but not essential for resilience. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2 Business Continuity Planning1

The best way to ensure the quality and integrity of test procedures used in audit analytics is to centralize procedures and implement change control. Centralizing procedures means storing themin a common repository that can be accessed and updated by authorized users. Change control means implementing a process for tracking, reviewing, approving, and documenting any changes made to the procedures. This ensures that the procedures are consistent, accurate, reliable, and secure. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 401

The best answer is C. Patch-related risk may not be adequately assessed.

ISACA guidance on emergency changes emphasizes that emergency changes must still be declared, assessed, approved, authorized after the fact, and recorded. The key risk with emergency patching is that urgency can cause insufficient assessment of the patch’s effect on security, stability, compatibility, and business operations. If risk is not adequately assessed, the organization may introduce outages, vulnerabilities, or unintended consequences into production.

Option A is a concern, but incomplete records are generally secondary to poor risk evaluation. Option B may be necessary operationally and can be controlled. Option D is less compelling because ISACA’s guidance recognizes that emergency changes may receive preliminary approval and retroactive authorization, so the key issue is not the absence of standard documented approvals upfront, but whether the change is properly controlled and assessed.

Therefore, the correct answer is C, because inadequate risk assessment is the most serious concern when applying emergency patches.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Improving the RFP and Contracts Process With COBIT 5 — emergency changes should be declared, assessed, authorized, and recorded.

ISACA Journal, Speeding Up Software Delivery With Effective Change Management — emergency change procedures should still be run through standard review retrospectively.

ISACA, Protecting SAP Systems in the Cybersecurity Era — patch management should include risk and applicability assessment before deployment.

Transposition and transcription errors occur when characters or numbers are accidentally swapped or misentered during data entry.

Option A (Incorrect):Duplicate checks ensure that the same record is not entered twice but do not specifically detect transposition or transcription errors.

Option B (Incorrect):Completeness checks ensure that all required data is entered but do not validate data accuracy.

Option C (Incorrect):Sequence checks verify that records follow a logical sequence but do not catch errors within individual data entries.

Option D (Correct):Acheck digitis an additional number generated through an algorithm (e.g., Luhn algorithm for credit cards) that helps detect errors such as transpositions (e.g., swapping digits 45 → 54) and transcriptions (e.g., mistyping 8 as 3).

 The greatest challenge to the alignment of business and IT is the lack of chief information officer (CIO) involvement in board meetings. The CIO is the senior executive responsible for overseeing the IT strategy, governance, and operations of the organization, and ensuring that they support the business objectives and needs. The CIO should be involved in board meetings to communicate the value and contribution of IT to the organization, to align the IT vision and direction with the business strategy and priorities, and to advocate for the IT resources and investments required to achieve the desired outcomes. The lack of CIO involvement in board meetings can result in a disconnect between business and IT, a loss of trust and confidence in IT, and missed opportunities for innovation and value creation. The other options are not as challenging as the lack of CIO involvement in board meetings, because they either do not affect the strategic alignment of business and IT, or theycanbe addressed by other means such as collaboration, negotiation, or escalation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1

The IS auditor’s best course of action is to evaluate the implemented control to ensure it mitigates the risk to an acceptable level. This is because the objective of a follow-up audit is to verify that corrective actions have been accomplished as scheduled and that theyare effective in preventing orminimizing future recurrence1. If senior management has implemented a different remediation action plan than what was previously agreed upon, the IS auditor should assess whether the alternative control is adequate and appropriate for the situation. Requesting justification from management for not implementing the recommended control (option D) may be a secondary step, but it is not the best course of action. Reporting the deviation by the control owner in the audit report (option A) may be premature and unnecessary if the implemented control is satisfactory. Canceling the follow-up audit and rescheduling for the next audit period (option C) is not advisable, as it would delay the verification of the effectiveness of the implemented control and potentially expose the organization to further risks. References: 1: Follow-up Audits - Canadian Audit and Accountability Foundation

A virtual tape library (VTL) is a disk-based backup system that emulates a tape library. It provides faster backup and recovery than traditional tape systems, and it can be integrated with data deduplication and replication technologies to enhance disaster recovery. A VTL can also be replicated to an offsite location for additional protection. A VTL is the best disaster recovery solution for an environment where data virtualization is used, because it can handle large volumes of data, support multiple backup applications, and provide consistent performance.

Onsite disk-based backup systems (A) are not the best disaster recovery solution, because they are vulnerable to the same risks as the primary data center, such as fire, flood, power outage, or sabotage. Tape-based backup systems (B) are not the best disaster recovery solution, because they are slow, prone to errors, and require manual intervention. Redundant array of independent disks (RAID) (D) is not a backup system, but a storage technology that improves performance and fault tolerance by distributing data across multiple disks. RAID does not protect against data corruption, human error, or malicious attacks.

Using analytical tools to produce exception reports from the system and performance monitoring software is the most effective plan of action for a company that purchased and implemented system and performance monitoring software. Exception reports are reports that highlight deviations or anomalies from predefined thresholds or standards. Using analytical tools to produce exception reports can help to reduce the size and complexity of the system and performance monitoring reports, as well as to focus on the most relevant and critical information for review and action. The other options are less effective plans of action, as they may involve unnecessary costs, risks, or efforts. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 219

The best metric to measure the alignment of IT and business strategy is the percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk. This metric indicates how well the organization identifies and manages the IT risks that could affect its strategic objectives and performance. A high percentage of enterprise risk assessments that include IT-related risk shows that the organization considers IT as an integral part of its business strategy and aligns its IT resources and capabilities with its business needs and goals . References: : CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.2: IT Strategy, page 67 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.2: IT Strategy

 Identifying required IT skill sets that support key business processes is the first step to enable the alignment of IT staff development plans with IT strategy. An IT strategy is a plan that defines how IT will support the organization’s goals and objectives. Identifying required IT skill sets means determining the knowledge, abilities, and competencies that IT staff need to perform their roles and responsibilities effectively and efficiently. This can help to align IT staff development plans with IT strategy, as well as to identify and address any skill gaps or needs within the IT workforce. The other options are not the first steps to enable alignment, but rather possible subsequent actions that may depend on the required IT skill sets. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.11

CISA Review Questions, Answers and ExplanationsDatabase, Question ID 229

A continuous integration/continuous development (CI/CD) process helps to reduce software failure risk by enabling smaller incremental changes to the software code, rather than large and infrequent updates12. Smaller incremental changes allow developers to detect and fix errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities more quickly and easily, and to ensure that the software is always in a working state34. Smaller incremental changes also reduce the complexity and uncertainty of the software development process, and improve the quality and reliability of the software product5.

References

1: What is CI/CD? Continuous integration and continuous delivery explained1 2: 5 CI/CD challenges—and how to solve them | TechBeacon4 3: Continuous Integration vs Continuous Delivery vs Continuous Deployment2 4: 7 CI/CD Challenges and their Must-Know Solutions | BrowserStack3 5: 5 common pitfalls of CI/CD—and how to avoid them | InfoWorld5

Materiality is the primary consideration when determining which issues to include in an audit report, as it reflects the significance or importance of the issues to the users of the report. Materiality is a relative concept that depends on the nature, context, and amount of the issues, as well as the expectations and needs of the users. Materiality helps the auditor to prioritize the issues and communicate them clearly and concisely.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256

Materiality in Auditing - AICPA

Materiality in Planning and Performing an Audit - IAASB

The best recommendation for the auditor to make is D. Line management should regularly review and request modification of access rights. Access rights are the permissions and privileges granted to users to access, view, modify, or delete data or resources on a system or network1. Excessive rights are access rights that are not necessary or appropriate for a user’s role or function, and may pose a risk of unauthorized or inappropriate use of data or resources2. Therefore, it is important to ensure that access rights are alignedwith the principle of least privilege, which means that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their duties2.

Line management is responsible for overseeing and supervising the activities and performance of their staff, and ensuring that they comply with the organization’s policies and standards3. Therefore, line management should regularly review and request modification of access rights for their staff, as they are in the best position to:

Understand the roles and functions of their staff, and determine the appropriate level of access rights needed for them to perform their duties effectively and efficiently.

Monitor and evaluate the usage and behavior of their staff, and identify any changes or anomalies that may indicate excessive or inappropriate access rights.

Communicate and collaborate with IT security or system administrators, who are responsible for granting, revoking, or modifying access rights, and request any necessary adjustments or corrections.

 Configuring each authentication server as belonging to a cluster of authentication servers is the best way to minimize performance degradation of servers used to authenticate users of an e-commerce website. A cluster is a group of servers that work together to provide high availability, load balancing, and fault tolerance. If one server fails or becomes overloaded, another server in the cluster can take over its workload without disrupting the service. A single server as a primary authentication server and a second server as a secondary authentication server is not as effective as a cluster, because the secondary server is only used when the primary server fails, which means it is idle most of the time and does not improve performance. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that each disk of its RAID is attached to the primary controller does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data redundancy and reliability. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple disks into a logical unit that can tolerate disk failures and improve data access speed. Configuring each authentication server and ensuring that the disks of each server form part of a duplex does not address the issue of performance degradation, but rather the issue of data backup and recovery. A duplex is a pair of disks that store identical copies of data, so that if one disk fails, the other disk can be used to restore the data. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 310

 An IT balanced scorecard is primarily used for measuring IT strategic performance. An IT balanced scorecard is a framework that translates the IT strategy into measurable objectives, indicators, targets, and initiatives across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. An IT balanced scorecard helps to monitor and evaluate how well the IT function is delivering value to the organization, achieving its strategic goals, and improving its capabilities and competencies. The otheroptions are not the primary uses of an IT balanced scorecard, because they either focus on specific aspects of IT rather than the overall performance, or they are not directly related to the IT strategy. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.3

The best answer is B. The policies are not regularly reviewed and updated.

ISACA guidance notes that, when auditing policy documents, one of the quickest indicators of trouble is the absence of current reviews, changes, approvals, and alignment with actual practice. If policies are outdated, they may no longer reflect the organization’s control environment, regulatory obligations, technologies, or business processes. That creates a direct governance and compliance risk.

Option A is generally a positive sign, not a concern, because formal review and approval supports governance. Option C can matter, but lack of direct mapping to best practices is usually less serious than having stale policies that no longer reflect reality. Option D is not ideal if policies exclude broader stakeholders, but IT policies are often primarily directed toward IT staff while still being supported by wider governance documents. The most serious issue is that outdated policies may be ineffective, unenforceable, or inconsistent with current controls.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Do Your Policy Documents Represent Current Practices?

ISACA Journal, IS Audit Basics: The Auditors, IS/IT Policies and Compliance

The DRP is a set of procedures and resources that enable an organization to restore its critical IT functions and operations in the event of a disaster or disruption. The DRP should be tested regularly to ensure its effectiveness, validity, and readiness. Testing the DRP can help to identify and resolve any gaps, issues, or weaknesses in the plan, as well as to evaluate the performance and capability of the recovery team and resources. If the DRP has not been tested during the past three years, it may not reflect the current IT environment, business requirements, or recovery objectives, and it may fail to meet the expectations and needs of the stakeholders.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 255

Disaster Recovery Plan Testing: The Ultimate Checklist

What is a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) and How Do You Write One?

 The most important thing for an IS auditor to confirm when reviewing an organization’s plans to implement robotic process automation (RPA) to automate routine business tasks is that the end-to-end process is understood and documented. This is because RPA involves the use of software robots or digital workers to mimic human actions and execute predefined rules and workflows. Therefore, it is essential that the IS auditor verifies that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of the current state of the process, the desired state of the process, the inputs and outputs, the exceptions and errors, the roles and responsibilities, and the performance measures12. Without a properdocumentation of the end-to-end process, the organizationmay face challenges in designing, developing, testing, deploying, and monitoring the RPA solution3. References: 1: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support, page 211 2:CISA Online Review Course, Module 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Lesson 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support 3: ISACA Journal Volume 5, 2019, Article: Robotic Process Automation: Benefits, Risks and Controls

Low-priority jobs typically involve non-critical processes or tasks that do not immediately impact business operations. The best approach to handling such jobs is to schedule them subject to resource availability. This ensures that high-priority tasks can access resources when needed without being affected by the execution of low-priority tasks.

Avoiding Low-Priority Jobs (Option A)is not feasible because even low-priority tasks may be necessary for maintenance or support activities.

Including Major Functions in Low-Priority Jobs (Option B)contradicts the classification of " low-priority " because major functions are usually critical.

Allocating Optimal Resources to Low-Priority Jobs (Option C)is inefficient as resources should primarily be allocated to high-priority tasks.

Scheduling based on resource availability optimizes the use of resources, avoids unnecessary delays in high-priority activities, and ensures that low-priority tasks are executed without disrupting overall operations. This aligns with best practices in IT resource management and scheduling.

Involving the application owner early in the audit planning process is the best way to contribute to the quality of an audit of a business-critical application. The application owner has a deep understanding of the application and its business context, which can provide valuable insights for the audit. Early involvement can also help ensure that the audit is aligned with the business objectives and risks, and that any potential issues are identified and addressed promptly12.

Comprehensive and Detailed in-Depth Explanation:

The primary role of KPIs is to provide measurable insights into the performance of business processes and identify variances that may require corrective actions. KPIs help organizations understand whether their processes are achieving desired outcomes and where improvements are needed.

While Option A discusses workflow optimization, it is a secondary benefit rather than the primary purpose. Options B and C do not accurately describe the core purpose of KPIs.

ISACA CISA Reference: Domain 1 - Information System Auditing Process

 The most effective control to protect information assets in a data center from theft by a vendor is to monitor and restrict vendor activities. A vendor may have legitimate access to the data center for maintenance or support purposes, but they may also have malicious intentions or be compromised by an attacker. By monitoring and restricting vendor activities, the organization can ensure that the vendor only performs authorized tasks and does not access or tamper with sensitive data or equipment. Issuing an access card to the vendor, concealing data devices and information labels, and restricting use of portable and wireless devices are also useful controls, but they are not as effective as monitoring and restricting vendor activities in preventing theft by a vendor. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 3381

CISA Review Questions,Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Among the options provided, fingerprint scanning has the highest rate of false negatives. False negatives occur when a biometric system fails to recognize an authentic individual. Factors such as skin conditions (wet, dry, greasy), finger injuries, and inadequate scanning can contribute to false negatives in fingerprint scanning1. In comparison, iris recognition23, face recognition45, and retina scanning67 generally have lower rates of false negatives.

The auditor’s next action after finding that there is an informal unwritten set of standards in the IS department is to document and test compliance with the informal standards. This is because the auditor’s role is to evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls, regardless of whether they are formal or informal, written or unwritten. The auditor should also assess the risks and implications of having informal standards, such as lack of consistency, accountability, or traceability. The auditor should not make recommendations, postpone the audit, or finalize the audit without performing the audit procedures. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.21

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 12

A Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) provider is responsible for system recovery procedures, including restoring systems and services in a disaster scenario. This is the core functionality of DRaaS.

Stakeholder Communications (Option B):This is typically managed internally by the organization to ensure alignment with its crisis management plan.

Validation of Recovered Data (Option C):The organization must verify data integrity to meet business requirements.

Maintaining Currency of Data (Option D):While DRaaS may handle data backups, the organization retains responsibility for ensuring the relevance of the data being backed up.

Whenclassifying information, it is most important to align the classification to business risk, because it ensures that the information is protected according to its value andimpact to the organization34. Business risk considers factors such as legal, regulatory, contractual, operational, reputational, and financial implications of information disclosure or compromise34. Aligning information classification to business risk also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for information security measures. Security policy, data retention requirements, and industry standards are important considerations for information classification, but not as important as business risk. References: 3: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4

 In a controlled application development environment, the most important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the application programmer. This segregation of duties ensures that no one person can create and deploy code without proper review, testing, and approval. This reduces the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious code being introduced into the production environment.

The other options are not as important as the segregation between the application programmer and the person who implements changes into production, but they are still relevant for achieving a secure and reliable application development environment. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the systems programmer is important to prevent unauthorized or untested changes to system software or configuration. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the computer operator is important to prevent unauthorized or uncontrolled access to production data or resources. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the quality assurance (QA) personnel is important to ensure independent verification and validation of code quality and functionality.

Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, or services without explicit organizational approval. This often occurs when employees or departments adopt tools that bypass official IT governance structures.

Using a Cloud-Based Order Management Tool Without Approval (Option A)is a clear example of shadow IT because the employee is circumventing established IT policies to implement a solution independently.

Accessing Personal Banking Information on a Company-Provided Laptop (Option B)is a potential misuse of resources but does not qualify as shadow IT since it does not involve unauthorized technology.

Using Personal Email for Client Communication (Option C)may violate communication policies but is not related to the adoption of unapproved IT systems.

Accessing Social Media on a Company-Provided Tablet (Option D)is improper use of a company asset but does not involve unauthorized IT tools.

Shadow IT introduces risks such as data breaches, lack of compliance, and inefficiencies due to lack of integration with official systems. Organizations should have clear policies and monitoring mechanisms to address such risks.

The best way to determine whether a test of a disaster recovery plan (DRP) was successful is to analyze whether predetermined test objectives were met. Test objectives are specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART) goals that define what the test aims to accomplish and how it will be evaluated. Test objectives should be aligned with the DRP objectives and scope, and should cover aspects such as recovery time objectives (RTOs), recovery point objectives (RPOs), critical business functions, roles and responsibilities, communication channels, backup systems, and contingency procedures. By comparing the actual test results with the expected test objectives, the IS auditor can measure the effectiveness and efficiency of the DRP and identify any gaps or weaknesses that need to be addressed. 

The IS auditor should review the organization’s patch management policy to determine the expected frequency and scope of patching, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the patch management team. This will help the auditor assess the severity and impact of the non-compliance, and identify the root cause and possible remediation actions12.

References

1: How to Create a Patch Management Policy: Complete Guide 2: Free Patch Management Policy Template (+Examples)

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

When an auditor finds that the process owner is accepting residual risk beyond the organization’s defined risk appetite, it is not appropriate to accept the action plan or wait until the next committee report.

Escalating to audit management (D) is the correct step. Audit management can then determine whether to escalate further to executive management or the audit committee.

Including in the next report (A) delays timely risk response.

Informing executive management directly (B) by passes the audit reporting hierarchy.

Accepting the plan (C) would be inappropriate as it ignores risk governance.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 1 (Governance and Risk Management), section on Risk appetite, residual risk, and auditor’s role in escalation.

 The auditor’s next course of action should be to evaluate the appropriateness of the remedial action taken by the auditee. The auditor should assess whether the alternative approach taken by the auditee is effective, efficient, and aligned with the audit objectives and recommendations. The auditor should also consider the impact of the change on the audit scope, criteria, and risk assessment. Conducting a risk analysis incorporating the change, reporting results of the follow-up to the audit committee, and informing senior management of the change in approach are possible subsequent actions that the auditor may take after evaluating the appropriateness of the remedial action taken. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version): Chapter 1 - Information Systems Auditing Process

 An audit report of the controls by the service provider’s external auditor provides the best evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective. An external auditor is an independent and objective party that can assess the design and operating effectiveness of the service provider’s information security controls based on established standards and criteria. An external auditor can also provide an opinion on the adequacy and compliance of the service provider’s information security controls, as well as recommendations for improvement.

Documentation of the service provider’s security configuration controls is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. Documentation of the security configuration controls can show the settings and parameters of the service provider’s information systems and networks, but it may not reflect the actual implementation and operation of the controls. Documentation of the security configuration controls may also be outdated, incomplete, or inaccurate.

An interview with the service provider’s information security officer is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. An interview with the information security officer can provide insights into the service provider’s information security strategy, policies, and procedures, but it may not verify the actual performance and compliance of the information security controls. An interview with the information security officer may also be biased, subjective, or misleading.

A review of the service provider’s policies and procedures is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. A review of the policies and procedures can show the service provider’s information security objectives, requirements, and guidelines, but it may not demonstrate the actual execution and enforcement of the information security controls. A review of the policies and procedures may also be insufficient, inconsistent, or outdated.

The answer A is correct because user activity monitoring is the most effective control to mitigate against the risk of inappropriate activity by employees. User activity monitoring (UAM) is the process of tracking and recording the actions and behaviors of users on devices, networks, or applications that belong to an organization. UAM can help to prevent, detect, and respond to insider threats, such as data theft, fraud, sabotage, or misuse of resources. UAM can also help to enforce policies, ensure compliance, and improve productivity and performance.

Some of the benefits of UAM are:

Prevention: UAM can deter employees from engaging in inappropriate activity by making them aware that their actions are monitored and recorded. UAM can also prevent unauthorized access or use of sensitive data or resources by implementing access controls, encryption, or alerts.

Detection: UAM can detect any anomalies, deviations, or violations in user activity by analyzing the data collected from various sources, such as logs, keystrokes, screenshots, or video recordings. UAM can also use artificial intelligence or machine learning to identify patterns, trends, or risks in user behavior.

Response: UAM can respond to any incidents or issues related to user activity by notifying the relevant stakeholders, such as managers, security teams, or auditors. UAM can also provide evidence or proof of user activity for investigation or remediation purposes.

Some examples of UAM tools are:

Teramind: Teramind is a cloud-based UAM platform that offers features such as user behavior analytics, risk scoring, policy enforcement, data loss prevention, and productivity optimization.

Digital Guardian: Digital Guardian is a data protection platform that offers UAM capabilities such as endpoint detection and response, data classification and tagging, and threat hunting and incident response.

XPLG: XPLG is a log management and analysis platform that offers UAM features such as log aggregation and correlation, user behavior profiling and anomaly detection, and real-time alerts and dashboards.

The other options are not as effective as option A. Two-factor authentication (option B) is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system or resource. Two-factor authentication can enhance the security and privacy of user accounts, but it does not monitor or record the user activity after the authentication. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation does not track or record the user activity within each segment of the network. Access recertification (option D) is a process that verifies and validates the access rights of users to systems or resources periodically or on-demand. Access recertification can ensure that users have the appropriate level of access based on their roles and responsibilities, but it does not monitor or record the user activity with the access rights.

 This is because privacy regulations are laws or rules that protect the personal information of individuals from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or transfer by third parties. Payroll audit documentation may contain sensitive and confidential data, such as employee names, salaries, benefits, taxes, deductions, and bank accounts. If the audit management application is hosted by a third party in a different country, the organization may need to comply with the privacy regulations of both its own country and the host country, as well as any international or regional agreements or frameworks that apply. Privacy regulations may impose various requirements and obligations on the organization, such as obtaining consent from the data subjects, implementing appropriate security measures, notifying data breaches, and ensuring data quality and accuracy. Privacy regulations may also grant various rights to the data subjects, such as accessing, correcting, deleting, or transferring their data. Failing to comply with privacy regulations may expose the organization to significant risks and consequences, such as legal actions, fines, sanctions, reputational damage, or loss of trust.

Some examples of privacy regulations affecting the organization are:

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which is a comprehensive and strict privacy regulation that applies to anyorganization that processes personal data of individuals in the European Union (EU) or offers goods or services to them, regardless ofwhere the organization or the data is located1.

The California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which is a broad and influential privacy regulation that applies to any organization that collectspersonal information of California residentsand meets certain thresholds of revenue, data volume, or data sharing2.

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which is a sector-specific privacy regulation that applies to any organization that handles protected health information(PHI) of individuals in the United States, such as health care providers, health plans, or health care clearinghouses3.

Therefore, before using an audit management application hosted by a third party in a different country, the internal audit team should conduct a thorough assessment of the privacy regulations affecting the organization and ensure that they have adequate policies, procedures, and controls in place to comply with them.

 Restricting program functionality according to user security profiles is the best control for ensuring appropriate segregation of duties within an accounts payable department. An IS auditor should verify that the access rights and permissions of the accounts payable staff are based on their roles and responsibilities, and that they are not able to perform incompatible or conflicting functions such as creating, approving, or paying invoices. This will help to prevent fraud, errors, or abuse of authority within the accounts payable process. The other options are less effective controls for ensuring segregation of duties, as they may involve audit trails, access restrictions, or user identification. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database,Question ID 223

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The most important step in a privacy audit is to ensure that all risks associated with PII handling are identified. This requires analyzing the entire PII data life cycle—from collection, processing, storage, and transfer to retention and destruction.

Option A: Reviewing data management controls is part of the audit but is narrower than life cycle coverage.

Option B: Privacy training is necessary, but training alone doesn’t ensure compliance.

Option C: Reviewing third-party agreements is important but only covers outsourced risks.

Option D: Provides comprehensive coverage of privacy risks across all stages.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 5, section on data privacy, data life cycle, and PII risks.

Enterprise architecture (EA) governance ensures that IT and business alignment is maintained and that new processes and technologies integrate well with existing structures.

Option A (Correct):The primary purpose of EA governance is to ensure that new technologies, processes, and systems align and harmonize with existing architecture to maintain operational efficiency and consistency.

Option B (Incorrect):While adaptability to emerging technology trends is important, EA governance focuses more on structure, consistency, and compliance rather than just adaptability.

Option C (Incorrect):Compliance with regulations is crucial, but it is just one component of governance. EA governance has a broader scope, including strategic alignment and process integration.

Option D (Incorrect):Ensuring ROI is an important financial consideration, but it is not themainobjective of EA governance.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

An integrated audit combines IT, operational, and financial audits into a single coordinated review. The primary benefit is the optimization of audit efforts across functions, eliminating duplication and providing a holistic risk perspective.

Option A: QA enhancement is a byproduct but not the primary benefit.

Option C: Skills improvement occurs, but it’s not the main objective.

Option D: Applicability to different areas is true, but not the primary benefit.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 1, section on integrated audit benefits and efficiencies.

The greatest concern with the IT department and internal IS audit function both reporting to the CIO is the potential compromise of IS audit independence. Auditor independence refers to the impartiality and objectivity of an auditor in conducting an audit, free from conflicts of interest and bias1. It is crucial for ensuring the quality and reliability of financial reporting1. If the IS audit function reports to the CIO, who also oversees the IT department, it could create a conflict of interest that might compromise the impartiality and objectivity of the IS audit function.

An organization ' s IT risk appetite should be primarily driven by its strategic objectives. The risk appetite defines the amount and type of risk the organization is willing to pursue or retain to achieve its goals. Aligning risk appetite with strategic objectives ensures that risk-taking is consistent with the organization ' s mission and vision. While ROI, cost of controls, and the likelihood of risk events are important considerations in risk management, they are factors evaluated within the context of the overarching strategic objectives.

Source code synchronization is the process of ensuring that the source code and the object code (the compiled version of the source code) are consistent and up-to-date1. When program changes are implemented, the source code should be recompiled to generate a new object code that reflects the changes. However, if the source code is not recompiled, there is a risk that the object code may be outdated or incorrect. A compensating control is a measure that reduces the risk of an existing control weakness or deficiency2. A compensating control for source code synchronization is to compare the date stamping of the source and object code. Date stamping is a method of recording the date and time when a file is created or modified3. By comparing the date stamping of the source and object code, one can verify if they are synchronized or not. If the date stamping of the source code is newer than the object code, it means that the source code has been changed but not recompiled. If the date stamping of the object code is newer than the source code, it means that the object code has been compiled from a different source code. If the date stamping of both files are identical, it means that they are synchronized.

The most important thing for the company to verify when outsourcing the printing of customer statements is whether the provider’s information security controls are aligned with the company’s. This isbecause customer statements contain sensitive personal and financial information that need to be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification or destruction. The provider’s information security controls should be consistent with the company’s policies, standards and regulations, and should be audited periodically to ensure compliance. The other options are also relevant, but not as critical as information security. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2

The answer A is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor when a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data is that controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied. Data classification is the process of categorizing data assets based on their information sensitivity and business impact. Data classification helps organizations to identify, protect, and manage their data according to their value and risk. Data owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and control the access and use of their data.

Data classification typically involves assigning labels or tags to data assets, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. These labels indicate the level of protection and handling required for the data. Based on the data classification, organizations can implement appropriate controls to safeguard the data, such as encryption, access control lists, audit logs, backup policies, etc. These controls help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of data, and to ensure compliance with relevant laws and regulations.

If a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data, it can result in either underprotection or overprotection of the data. Underprotection means that the data is classified at a lower level than it should be, which exposes it to higher risks of compromise or breach. For example, if a data owner classifies personal health information (PHI) as public instead of confidential, it may allow anyone to access or share the data without proper authorization or consent. This can violate the privacy rights of the data subjects and the compliance requirements of regulations such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Overprotection means that the data is classified at a higher level than it should be, which limits its availability or usability. For example, if a data owner classifies marketing materials as restricted instead of public, it may prevent potential customers or partners from accessing or viewing the data. This can reduce the business value and opportunities of the data.

Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the accuracy and consistency of data classification by data owners, as it affects the security and efficiency of data management. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for data classification, verify that the data owners have adequate knowledge and skills to classify their data, and test that the data classification labels match with the actual sensitivity and impact of the data.

The greatest concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization’s configuration and release management process is that changes and change approvals are not documented. This is because documentation is essential for ensuring the traceability, accountability, and quality of the changes made to the configuration items (CIs) and the releases deployed to the production environment. Without documentation, it would be difficult to verify the authenticity, validity, and authorization of the changes, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from the changes. Documentation also helps to maintain compliance with internal and external standards and regulations, as well as to facilitate audits and reviews.

The other options are not as concerning as option B, although they may also indicate some weaknesses in the configuration and release management process. The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology, but this does not necessarily mean that their process is ineffective or inefficient. The organization may have developed their own methodology that suits their specific needs and context. However, using an industry-recognized methodology could help them adopt best practices and improve their process maturity. All changes require middle and senior management approval, but this may not be a problem if the organization has a clear and streamlined approval process that does not cause delays or bottlenecks in the change implementation. However, requiring too many approvals could also introduce unnecessary complexity and bureaucracy in the process. There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB), but this does not mean that the organization does not have a way of managing their CIs and their relationships. The organization may use other tools or methods to store and access their configuration data, such as spreadsheets, documents, or repositories. However, having a centralized CMDB could help them improve their visibility, accuracy, and consistency of their configuration data.

KPIs are not clearly defined is the most concerning finding for an IS auditor, because it implies that the third-party vendor does not have a clear understanding of what constitutes success or failure in their performance. This can lead to inaccurate or misleading reporting, poor decision making, and lack of accountability. KPIs should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) and aligned with the business objectives and expectations of the stakeholders12. References: 1: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 3

The primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system is to validate the new system against its predecessor. A parallel run is a strategy for system changeover where a new system slowly assumes the roles of the older system while both systems operate simultaneously. This allows for comparison of the results and outputs of both systems to ensure that the new system is working correctly and reliably. A parallel run can also help identify and resolve any errors, discrepancies, or inconsistencies in the new system before the old system is discontinued.

The other options are not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system. A. To train the end users and supporting staff on the new system. Training is an important part of system implementation, but it is not the main reason for doing a parallel run. Training can be done before, during, or after the parallel run, depending on the needs and preferences of the organization. B. To verify the new system provides required business functionality. Verifying the business functionality of the new system is part of user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a formal and structured process of testing whether the new system meets the specifications and expectations of the users and stakeholders. UAT is usually done before the parallel run, as a prerequisite for system changeover. C. To reduce the need for additional testing. Reducing the need for additional testing is not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run, but rather a possible benefit or outcome of doing so. A parallel run can help ensure that the new system is thoroughly tested and validated in a real-worldenvironment, which may reduce the likelihood of encountering major issues or defects later on. However, additional testing may still be needed after the parallel run, depending on the feedback and evaluation of the users and stakeholders.

The best situation that justifies the use of a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data is B. It is expected that the population is error-free. The sample size is the number of items selected from the population for testing. The sample size depends on various factors, such as the level of confidence, the tolerable error rate, the expected error rate, and the variability of the population. A smaller sample size means that fewer items are tested, which reduces the cost and time of testing, but also increases the sampling risk (the risk that the sample is not representative of the population).

One of the factors that affects the sample size is the expected error rate, which is the auditor’s best estimate of the proportion of errors in the population before testing. A higher expected error rate means that more errors are likely to be found in the population, which requires a larger sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. A lower expected error rate means that fewer errors are likely to be found in the population, which allows a smaller sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. Therefore, if it is expected that the population is error-free (i.e., the expected error rate is zero or very low), a smaller sample size can be justified.

The other situations do not justify the use of a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data. A. The IS audit staff has a high level of experience. The IS audit staff’s level of experience does not affect the sample size, but rather their ability to design and execute the sampling procedures and evaluate the results. The IS audit staff’s level of experience may affect their judgment in selecting and applying sampling methods, but it does not change the statistical or mathematical principles that determine the sample size. B. Proper segregation of duties is in place. Proper segregation of duties is an internal control that helps prevent or detect errors or fraud in transaction processing, but it does not affect the sample size. The sample size is based on the characteristics of the population and the objectives of testing, not on the controls in place. Proper segregation of duties may reduce the likelihood or impact of errors or fraud in transaction processing, but it does not eliminate them completely. Therefore, proper segregation of duties does not justify a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data. C. The data can be directly changed by users. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users does not justify a smaller sample size, but rather a larger one. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users increases the risk of errors or fraud in transaction processing, which requires a larger sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users also increases the variability of the population, which affects the sample size.

Using risk assessments to determine areas to be included in an audit plan is a primary benefit because it helps to prioritize the audit activities based on the level of risk and the potential impact of the audit findings. This way, the audit resources, such as time, staff, and budget, can be allocated more efficiently and effectively to the areas that need the most attention and provide the most value.

References

ISACA CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 256

What is the Purpose of a Risk Assessment?

Mastering the Process of Risk Assessment

The best way to detect unauthorized copies of licensed software on systems is to conduct periodic software scanning. Software scanning is a process of using specialized tools or programs to scan the systems and identify the software installed, the license status, the usage, and the compliance with the software policies and agreements. Software scanning can help to detect any unauthorized, unlicensed, or illegal copies of software on the systems, as well as any discrepancies or violations of the software licenses. Software scanning can also help to optimize the software inventory, reduce the software costs, and improve the security and performance of the systems12.

Some examples of software scanning tools are:

Microsoft Software Inventory Analyzer (MSIA): A free tool that scans Windows-based computers and servers and generates reports on the Microsoft products installed, such as operating systems, applications, and updates3.

Belarc Advisor: A free tool that scans Windows-based computers and generates reports onthe hardware and software installed, including license keys, versions, usage, and security status4.

Lansweeper: A paid tool that scans Windows, Linux, Mac, and other network devices and generates reports on the hardware and software inventory, license compliance, configuration, and vulnerabilities5.

To conduct periodic software scanning, you need to:

Choose a suitable software scanning tool that meets your needs and budget.

Define the scope and frequency of the software scanning, such as which systems to scan, how often to scan, and what information to collect.

Configure and run the software scanning tool according to the instructions and settings.

Review and analyze the software scanning reports and identify any unauthorized copies of licensed software on the systems.

Take appropriate actions to remove or regularize the unauthorized copies of licensed software on the systems.

Document and report the results and findings of the software scanning.

 Data leakage prevention (DLP) is the process of preventing unauthorized access, disclosure, or transfer of sensitive data. In a multi-tenant cloud environment, where multiple customers share the same infrastructure and resources, DLP is a critical challenge. One of the best methods to enforce DLP in such an environment is to require tenants to implement data classification policies. Data classification policies define the types and levels of sensitivity of data, and the corresponding security controls and measures to protect them. By implementing data classification policies, tenants can ensure that their data is properly labeled, encrypted, segregated, and monitored according to their specific requirements and compliance standards. This can help prevent data leakage from accidental or malicious actions by other tenants, cloud service providers, or external parties.

The most appropriate control to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system is to enforce an internal data access policy. A data access policy defines who can access what data, under what conditions and for what purposes. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities of data owners, custodians and users, as well as the security measures and controls to protect data confidentiality, integrity and availability. By enforcing a data access policy, the organization can ensure that only authorized personnel can retrieve confidential informationfrom the business application system. Applying single sign-on for access control, implementing segregation of duties and enforcing the use of digital signatures are also useful controls, but they are not sufficient to prevent unauthorized data retrieval without a clear and comprehensive data access policy. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2301

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2

 The first step for the security incident response team after an IS security attack is reported is to perform a damage assessment. This involves identifying the scope, impact and root cause of the incident, as well as collecting and preserving evidence for further analysis and investigation. Reporting results to management, documenting lessons learned and prioritizing resources for corrective action are important steps, but they should be done after the damage assessment is completed. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 6, Section 6.31

The primary reason an IS auditor would recommend replacing universal PIN codes with an RFID access card system at a data center is to improve traceability (A). Traceability is the ability to track and monitor the activities and movements of individuals or objects within a system or environment. Traceability is important for ensuring security, accountability, and compliance in a data center, where sensitive and critical data are stored and processed.

An RFID access card system can improve traceability by using RFID technology to verify and record the identity and access of each user who enters or exits the data center. RFID stands for Radio Frequency Identification, and it enables wireless communication between a reader and an RFID tag. An RFID tag is installed in a door key card or fob, which users use to gain access to the data center. An RFID reader is installed near the door, and it contains an antenna that receives data transmitted by the RFID tag. A control panel is a computer server that reads and interprets the data passed along by the RFID reader. A database is a storage system that stores the data collected by the control panel1.

An RFID access card system can provide several benefits for traceability, such as123:

It can uniquely identify each user and their access level, and prevent unauthorized access or impersonation.

It can record the date, time, and duration of each user’s access, and generate logs and reports for auditing purposes.

It can monitor the location and status of each user within the data center, and alert security personnel in case of any anomalies or emergencies.

It can integrate with other security systems, such as cameras, alarms, or biometrics, to enhance verification and protection.

A universal PIN code system, on the other hand, can compromise traceability by using a single or shared personal identification number (PIN) to grant access to multiple users. A universal PIN code system can pose several risks for traceability, such as4:

It can be easily guessed, stolen, shared, or compromised by malicious actors or insiders.

It can not distinguish between different users or their access levels, and allow unauthorized or excessive access.

It can not record or track the activities or movements of each user within the data center, and create gaps or errors in the audit trail.

It can not integrate with other security systems, and provide limited verification and protection.

Therefore, an IS auditor would recommend replacing universal PIN codes with an RFID access card system at a data center to improve traceability.

If the audit team lacks the necessary knowledge to audit a system that uses an AI algorithm, engaging external consultants who have audit experience and knowledge of AI would be the best approach12. These consultants can provide the expertise needed to effectively audit the AI system12. This approach ensures that the audit is conducted thoroughly and accurately, without requiring the audit team to acquire new skills or knowledge12.

 If an IS auditor finds that management did not address a prior period audit finding, the next course of action should be to interview management to determine why the finding was not addressed, as this would help to understand the root cause, the impact, and the risk level of the issue. Noting the exception in a new report, recommending alternative solutions, or conducting a risk assessment are possible subsequent steps, but they should not precede interviewing management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.6

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The primary purpose of IT capacity management is to ensure that IT infrastructure can meet current and future performance requirements in a cost-effective manner.

Option A is correct because it directly relates to capacity management goals.

Option B (rapid deployment) relates more to change management.

Option C (security concerns) is outside the scope of capacity management.

Option D (reducing cost/time) may be a secondary benefit but not the primary objective.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 2, section on capacity management and IT service performance.

 The best recommendation to address the situation of inconsistencies in privacy requirements across third-party service provider contracts is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers. This is because:

Privacy requirements are essential to ensure the protection of personal information and compliance with relevant laws and regulations, such as the GDPR and the CCPA123.

Inconsistencies in privacy requirements can create risks of data breaches, legal liabilities, reputational damage, and consumer distrust for the organization that outsources its data processing to third-party providers123.

Suspending contracts with third-party providers that handle sensitive data (option A) is not a feasible or effective solution, as it may disrupt the business operations and cause contractual penalties or disputes4.

Reviewing privacy requirements when contracts come up for renewal (option C) is not a proactive or timely approach, as it may leave the organization exposed to privacy risks for a long period of time until the contracts expire4.

Requiring third-party providers to sign nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) (option D) is not a sufficient measure, as NDAs only cover the confidentiality of information, but not other aspects of privacy, such as data minimization, retention, access, deletion, and security4.

Therefore, the best recommendation is to prioritize contract amendments for third-party providers (option B), as this would allow the organization to align the privacy requirements with its own policies and standards, as well as with the applicable laws and regulations. This would also enable the organization to monitor and audit the compliance of third-party providers with the privacy requirements and enforce appropriate remedies or sanctions in case of noncompliance45.

The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new automated control is to review the written procedures that define the processes and controls. This will help the IS auditor to understand the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and expected outcomes of the control. The written procedures will also provide a basis for testing the control and verifying its compliance with the audit finding recommendations. References:

ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

A lack ofMobile Device Management (MDM) enrollmentis the biggest concern, asunmanaged devicespose a serious security risk.

Not All Devices Enrolled in MDM (Correct Answer – C)

Unenrolled devices can bypass security policies.

Example:A stolen, unenrolled device may lack encryption, exposing corporate data.

Biometric Authentication Required (Incorrect – A)

Biometrics are anenhanced security measure, not a concern.

VPN Not Required for Internal Network (Incorrect – B)

VPNs are typically used for external access, not always needed internally.

Remote Wipe Requires Internet (Incorrect – D)

A limitation but stillless riskythan allowing unsecured devices.

The business case defines the project’s expected benefits, success criteria, and performance metrics. Reviewing the business case allows the auditor to assess whether the benefits identified at initiation have been realized post-implementation. The schedule (B) only tracks timeliness, not value. Proposed enhancements (C) address future improvements, not whether benefits have been delivered. QA results (D) reflect product quality but not business value. ISACA emphasizes that value delivery and benefits realization are key elements of enterprise governance of IT, aligning with COBIT’s EDM02 (Ensure Benefits Delivery).

References (ISACA): COBIT® 2019, EDM02 Ensure Benefits Delivery.

The primary concern is lack of problem management. Recurring processing errors indicate that incidents may be getting handled repeatedly without identifying and eliminating the underlying root cause. ISACA guidance ties problem management to root cause analysis and distinguishes it from incident management, which is primarily focused on restoring service quickly.

Option B is correct because repeated errors usually mean the organization is not effectively analyzing and resolving the underlying cause. ISACA explicitly notes that root cause analysis is essential for both incident and problem-related processes, particularly DSS02 Manage service requests and incidents and DSS03 Manage problems. Repeated issues are a classic sign that problem management is weak or absent.

Option A is not the best answer because incident management is about handling and restoring service for individual events. Even efficient incident response can coexist with recurring incidents if root causes are not addressed. That points more directly to weak problem management than to incident handling alone.

Option C could be relevant if the errors stem from poorly controlled changes, but the question does not mention recent changes. The strongest direct inference from recurring errors is failure to resolve the root cause, which is the purpose of problem management.

Option D is the weakest answer because project management is not the most direct operational control area implicated by recurring production processing errors.

Therefore, B is the best answer because recurring processing errors most strongly suggest that underlying root causes are not being identified and eliminated through effective problem management.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Root Cause Analysis — root cause analysis is used in DSS02 Manage service requests and incidents and DSS03 Manage problems.

ISACA, Issue Management Confidential: Tools and Best Practices for Improving IT Issue Management — issue management prioritizes and resolves issues based on impact and likelihood.

ISACA, A Fresh Look at Modern Auditing — repeated cyber/operational issues can indicate missing accountability and issue tracking.

 Periodic review of access profiles by management is an additional control that is required when using swipe cards to limit employee access to restricted areas. Swipe cards are a type of physical access control that use magnetic stripes or radio frequency identification (RFID) to store and transmit information about the cardholder’s identity and access rights. Swipe cards can help to prevent unauthorized entry, protect sensitive assets and data, and monitor access activity. However, swipe cards alone are not enough to ensure effective access control. They need to be complemented by other controls, such as:

Periodic review of access profiles by management: This is a type of logical access control that involves verifying that the access rights assigned to each cardholder are appropriate, necessary, and consistent with the organization’s policies and procedures. Periodic review of access profiles can help to detect and correct any errors, inconsistencies, or violations in the access control system, such as outdated, excessive, or redundant access rights, segregation of duties conflicts, or unauthorized changes. Periodic review of access profiles can also help to ensure compliance with internal and external audit requirements and regulations.

Implementation of additional PIN pads: This is a type of multi-factor authentication (MFA) that requires the cardholder to enter a personal identification number (PIN) in addition to swiping their card. MFA can enhance the security of the access control system by adding another layer of verificationand reducing the risk of lost, stolen, or cloned cards being used by unauthorized persons.

Installation of closed-circuit television (CCTV): This is a type of surveillance system that uses cameras and monitors to record and display the images of the people and activities in the restricted areas. CCTV can deter potential intruders, provide evidence of any security incidents or breaches, and enable real-time monitoring and response by security personnel.

The other options are not as effective or relevant as periodic review of access profiles by management for an additional control when using swipe cards. Physical sign-in of all employees for access to restricted areas is a redundant and inefficient control that can be easily bypassed or manipulated. It also does not provide any assurance or verification of the identity or access rights of the cardholders. Audit hooks are software routines embedded in an application that can trigger an alert or a report when certain conditions are met. Audit hooks can help to detect anomalies or exceptions in access control lists, but they do not provide a comprehensive or integrated view of them.

The most effective method to verify that a service vendor keeps control levels as required by the client is to conduct periodic on-site assessments using agreed-upon criteria. On-site assessments can provide direct evidence of whether the vendor’s controls are operating effectively and consistently in accordance with the client’s expectations and requirements. Agreed-upon criteria can ensure that the assessments are objective, relevant, and reliable. The other options are not as effective as on-site assessments in verifying the vendor’s control levels. Periodically reviewing the SLA with the vendor can help monitor whether the vendor meets its contractual obligations and service standards, but it does not provide assurance of whether the vendor’s controls are adequate or sufficient. Conducting an unannounced vulnerability assessment of vendor’s IT systems can help identify any weaknesses or gaps in the vendor’s security controls, but it may violate the terms and conditions of the vendor-client relationship or cause operational disruptions. Obtaining evidence of the vendor’s CSA can provide some indication of whether the vendor’s controls are self-monitored and reported, but it does not verify whether the vendor’s controls are independent or accurate. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4

To ensurecompleteness of outbound transactions, alog with periodic validationis thebest control.

Option A (Incorrect):Edit checkshelp withdata accuracy, not completeness.

Option B (Incorrect):Sequential numberingdetects missing transactions but does not verifyactual transmission.

Option C (Incorrect):Recipient ID validationis important foraccuracy, not for ensuring all transactions are sent.

Option D (Correct):Maintaining and validating transaction logsensures thatall outbound transactions are properly accounted for, making it the best completeness control.

 When auditing the closing stages of a system development project, the most important consideration should be the user acceptance test (UAT) results. The UAT is a critical phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) that ensures that the system meets the functional requirements and expectations of the end users. The UAT results provide evidence of the system’s quality, performance, usability, and reliability. Control requirements, rollback procedures, and functional requirements documentation are also important considerations, but they are not ascrucial as the UAT results in determining if the system is ready for deployment. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, page 325.

The best way to reduce the immediate risk associated with using an unsupported version of the software is to segregate the outdated software system from the main network. An unsupported software system may have unpatched vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the system or access sensitive data. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, the organization can limit the exposure and impact of a potential breach. Verifying all patches have been applied to the outdated software system, closing all unused ports on the outdated software system and monitoring network traffic attempting to reach the outdated software system are also good practices, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of vendor support and updates. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2951

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

 The best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users is implementing role-based access at the application level. Role-based access is a method of access control that assigns permissions or privileges to users based on their roles or functions within an organization or system. Role-based access can help ensure that payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, by allowing only authorized users who have a legitimate need orpurpose to access or use the payment transaction data, and preventing unauthorized or unnecessary access or use by other users. Implementing two-factor authentication is a possible way to enhance the security and verification of user identities, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not define what permissions or privileges users have on the payment transaction data. Restricting access to transactions using network security software is a possible way to protect the network communication and transmission of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not specify what actions or operations users can perform on the payment transaction data. Using a single menu for sensitive application transactions is a possible way to simplify the user interface and navigation of payment transaction data, but it is not the best way to ensure payment transaction data is restricted to the appropriate users, as it does not limit what users can access or use the payment transaction data. 

An IS auditor’s primary concern would be whether the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements. The storage requirements are determined by the amount and type of data that needs to be backed up and restored in case of a disaster at the primary data center. The recovery site devices should have enough capacity, performance, reliability, and compatibility to meet these requirements.

If the recovery site devices cannot handle the storage requirements, then there is a risk that some data may not be backed up properly or may not be available for recovery when needed. This couldresult in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency, which could affect the business continuity and integrity of the organization.

Therefore, an IS auditor should verify that:

The recovery site devices have sufficient storage space to accommodate all the data that needs to be backed up from the primary data center.

The recovery site devices have adequate bandwidth and speed to transfer and access data efficiently and effectively.

The recovery site devices have appropriate security features and controls to protect data from unauthorized access or modification.

The recovery site devices are compatible with the primary data center devices in terms of hardware, software, format, and protocol.

 The best evidence of an IT strategy correction’s effectiveness is the synchronization of IT activities with corporate objectives. The IT strategy correction is a process of reviewing and adjusting the IT strategy to ensure that it aligns with and supports the corporate strategy and objectives. The synchronization of IT activities with corporate objectives means that the IT activities are consistent with and contribute to the achievement of the corporate goals and vision. The IS auditor can measure and evaluate the IT strategy correction’s effectiveness by comparing the IT activities with the corporate objectives, and assessing whether they are aligned, integrated, and coordinated. The other options are not as good evidence of an IT strategy correction’s effectiveness, because they either do not reflect the alignment of IT and business, or they are inputs or outputs of the IT strategycorrection process rather than outcomes or results. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1

Before sending backup drives to an offsite storage facility, the most important thing to do is to encrypt the drive with strong protection standards. This is because encryption ensures effective security where information cannot be intercepted and used to harm the organization or its customers. Encryption also protects the data from unauthorized access, modification, or deletion in case the drive is lost, stolen, or damaged during transit or storage. Encryption of backup drives is especially important for public safety organizations that handle sensitive or personally identifiable information, such as medical records, criminal records, or emergency communications12.

The best recommendation to prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by accounts payable employees is dual control. Dual control is a segregation of duties control that requires two or more individuals to perform or authorize a transaction or activity. Dual control can prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers by requiring independent verification and approval of payment requests, amounts, and recipients by different accounts payable employees. The other options are not as effective as dual control in preventing fraudulent electronic funds transfers, as they do not involve independent checks or approvals. Periodic vendor reviews are detective controls that can help identify any irregularities or anomalies in vendor payments, but they do not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Independent reconciliation is a detective control that can help compare and confirm payment records with bank statements, but it does not prevent fraudulent electronic funds transfers from occurring. Re-keying of monetary amounts is an input control that can help detect any errors or discrepancies in payment amounts, but it does not prevent fraudulentelectronic funds transfers from occurring. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

 Leveraging an IT governance framework is the best way to enable alignment of IT with business objectives, as it provides a set of principles, standards, processes, and practices that guide the effective delivery of IT services that support the organization’s strategy and goals. Benchmarking against peer organizations, developing key performance indicators (KPIs), and completing an IT risk assessment are useful activities that can help measure and improve the performance and value of IT, but they are not sufficient to ensure alignment without a governance framework. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: IT Governance

Recent third-party IS audit reports would be most helpful in determining the effectiveness of the IT governance framework of the target company. IT governance is a framework that defines the roles, responsibilities, and processes for aligning IT strategy with business strategy. A third-party IS audit is an independent and objective examination of an organization’s IT governance framework by an external auditor. Recent third-party IS audit reports can provide reliable and unbiased evidence of the strengths, weaknesses, and maturity of the IT governance framework of the target company. The other options are not as helpful as recent third-party IS audit reports, as they may not be as comprehensive, accurate, or current as external audits. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 94

The most effective way to detect an intrusion attempt is to periodically review log files, which record the activities and events on a system or network. Log files can provide evidence of unauthorized access attempts, malicious activities, or system errors. Configuring the router as a firewall, using smart cards with one-time passwords, and installing biometrics-basedauthentication are preventive controls that can reduce the likelihood of an intrusion, but they do not detect it. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 301

One benefit of return on investment (ROI) analysis in IT decision making is that it provides the basis for allocating financial resources. ROI analysis is a method of evaluating the profitability or cost-effectiveness of an IT project or investment by comparing the expected benefits with the required costs. ROI analysis can help IT decision makers prioritize and justify their IT initiatives, allocate their financial resources optimally, and demonstrate the value contribution of IT to the organization’s goals and objectives. Basis for allocating indirect costs, cost of replacing equipment, and estimated cost of ownership are not benefits of ROI analysis in IT decision making. These are more inputs or outputs of ROI analysis that could be used to calculate or estimate the costs or benefits of an IT project or investment. References: [ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition], page 307

A project deliverable is a tangible or intangible product or service that is produced as a result of a project and delivered to the customer or stakeholder. A project deliverable can be either an intermediate deliverable that is part of the project process or a final deliverable that is the outcome of the project.

An agile software development methodology is a project management approach that involves breaking the project into phases and emphasizes continuous collaboration and improvement. Teams follow a cycle of planning, executing, and evaluating. Agile software development methodologies value working software over comprehensive documentation and respond to change over following a plan.

Rapidly created working prototypes are most likely to be a project deliverable of an agile software development methodology because they:

Provide early and frequent feedback from customers and stakeholders on the functionality and usability of the software product

Allow for rapid validation and verification of the software requirements and design

Enable continuous improvement and adaptation of the software product based on changing customer needs and expectations

Reduce the risk of delivering a software product that does not meet customer needs or expectations

Increase customer satisfaction and trust by delivering working software products frequently and consistently

Some examples of agile software development methodologies that use rapidly created working prototypes as project deliverables are:

Scrum - a framework that organizes the work into fixed-length sprints (usually 2-4 weeks) and delivers potentially shippable increments of the software product at the end of each sprint1

Extreme Programming (XP) - a methodology that focuses on delivering high-quality software products through practices such as test-driven development, pair programming, continuous integration, and frequent releases2

Rapid Application Development (RAD) - a methodology that emphasizes rapid prototyping and user involvement throughout the software development process3

The other options are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology.

Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. A software requirements baseline is a set of agreed-upon and approved software requirements that serve as the basis for the software design, development, testing, and delivery. A strictly managed software requirements baseline is a software requirements baseline that is controlled and changed only through a formalchange management process. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that follow a linear and sequential process of defining, designing, developing, testing, and delivering software products. Strictly managed software requirements baselines are not compatible with agile software development methodologies that embrace change and flexibility in the software requirements based on customer feedback and evolving needs.

Extensive project documentation is not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Project documentation is any written or electronic information that describes or records the activities, processes, results, or decisions of a project. Extensive project documentation is project documentation that covers every aspect of the project in detail and requires significant time and effort to produce and maintain. Extensive project documentation is more suitable for traditional or waterfall software development methodologies that rely on comprehensive documentation to communicate and document the project scope, requirements, design, testing, and delivery. Extensive project documentation is not compatible with agile software development methodologies that value working software over comprehensive documentation and use minimal documentation to support the communication and collaboration among the project team members.

Automated software programming routines are not likely to be project deliverables of an agile software development methodology. Automated software programming routines are programs or scripts that perform repetitive or complex tasks in the software development process without human intervention. Automated software programming routines can improve the efficiency, quality, and consistency of the software development process by reducing human errors, saving time, and enforcing standards. Automated software programming routines can be used in any software development methodology, but they are not specific to agile software development methodologies. Automated software programming routines are not considered as project deliverables because they are not part of the final product that is delivered to the customer.

SQL injection attacks exploit vulnerabilities in web applications by inserting malicious SQL code into input fields, such as a search box. This can cause the server to execute unintended commands, often revealing restricted information.

Man-in-the-Middle (Option A):This intercepts communication but does not involve code injection.

Denial of Service (DoS) (Option B):This aims to disrupt service, not extract information.

Cross-Site Scripting (Option D):Involves injecting malicious scripts to execute in a user ' s browser but does not extract server-side data.

 The record-locking option of a database management system (DBMS) serves to eliminate the risk of concurrent updates to a record by different users or transactions. Record locking is a technique of preventing simultaneous access to data in a database, to prevent inconsistent results1. For example, if two bank clerks try to update the same bank account for two different transactions, record locking can ensure that only one clerk can modify the record at a time, while the other has to wait until the lock is released. This way, the record will reflect both transactions correctly and avoid data corruption.

Record locking does not serve to allow database administrators (DBAs) to record the activities of users. This is a function of auditing or logging, which can track the actions performed by users on the database2. Record locking does not affect the ability of DBAs to monitor or audit user activities.

Record locking does not serve to restrict users from changing certain values within records. This is a function of access control or authorization, which can enforce rules or policies on what data users can view or modify2. Record locking does not affect the permissions or privileges of users on the database.

Record locking does not serve to allow users to lock others out of their files. This is a function of encryption or password protection, which can secure files from unauthorized access or modification3. Record locking does not affect the security or confidentiality of files on the database.

 Problem management is an IT service management activity that is most likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency. Problem management involves analyzing incidents that affect IT services and finding solutions to prevent them from recurring or minimize their impact. Change management is an IT service management activity that involves controlling and documenting any modifications to IT services or infrastructure. Incident management is an IT service management activity that involves restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident has occurred. Configuration management is an IT service management activity that involves identifying and maintaining records of IT assets and their relationships. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 334

A post-implementation review (PIR) of a newly modified IT application focuses on ensuring that the system meets business and security requirements effectively. The sufficiency of implemented controls (A) is the most critical aspect because it ensures that security, operational, and compliance controls are functioning correctly. These controls include access controls, data integrity checks, and audit logs to prevent unauthorized access, data corruption, or security breaches.

Other options:

Resource management plan (B) is important for project management but is not the primary concern for an IS auditor in a post-implementation review.

Updates required for end-user manuals (C) are necessary for usability but do not impact the security or operational integrity of the system.

Rollback plans for changes (D) are important for change management but are typically assessed before deployment, not in a PIR.

The primary area of focus when an organization decides to outsource technical support for its external customers is to align service level agreements (SLAs) with current needs. SLAs are contracts that define the scope, quality, and expectations of the services provided by the vendor, as well as the remedies or penalties for non-compliance. SLAs are essential for ensuring that the outsourced technical support meets the customer’s requirements and satisfaction, as well as the organization’s objectives andstandards. By aligning SLAs with current needs, the organization can specify the key performance indicators (KPIs), metrics, and targets that reflect the desired outcomes and value of the technical support. This can also help to monitor and evaluate the vendor’s performance, identify gaps or issues, and implement corrective actions or improvements.

A vendor requires privileged access to a key business application. The best recommendation to reduce the risk of data leakage is to implement real-time activity monitoring for privileged roles. This is because real-time activity monitoring can provide visibility and accountability for the actions performed by the vendor with privileged access, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or copying data. Real-time activity monitoring can also enable timely detection and response to any unauthorized or suspicious activities that may indicate data leakage. Including the right-to-audit in the vendor contract is a good practice, but it may not be sufficient to prevent or detect data leakage in a timely manner, as audits are usually performed periodically or on-demand. Performing a review of privileged roles and responsibilities is also a good practice, but it may not address the specific risk of data leakage by the vendor with privileged access. Requiring the vendor to implement job rotation for privileged roles may reduce the risk of collusion or fraud, but it may not prevent or detect data leakage by any individual with privileged access. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Privacy Principles and Program Management Guide]

A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a network segment that is separated from the internal network and the external network, such as the internet, by firewalls or other security devices. A DMZ provides an extra layer of security for the organization’s internal network by isolating the servers and services that need to be accessible to external users, such as a file server, from the rest of the network. A DMZ also prevents external users from accessing the internal network directly, as they have to go through two firewalls to reach it. Therefore, setting up a DMZ is an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect anorganization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users12.

The other possible options are:

Enforce a secure tunnel connection: This means that the organization requires external users to establish a secure and encrypted connection, such as a virtual private network (VPN), to access its file server. This can provide some level of security and privacy for the data transmission, but it does not protect the file server or the internal network from attacks if the connection is compromised or if the external users are malicious. Therefore, enforcing asecuretunnel connection is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users3.

Enhance internal firewalls: This means that the organization improves the security and performance of its internal firewalls, which are devices that filter and control the network traffic between different segments of the network. This can provide some level of protection for the internal network from unauthorized or malicious access, but it does not protect the file server or the external network from attacks if the file server is exposed to the internet or if the external network is compromised. Therefore, enhancing internal firewalls is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users4.

Implement a secure protocol: This means that the organization uses a secure and standardized protocol, such as Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) or Secure Shell (SSH), to transfer files between its file server and external users. This can provide some level of security and integrity for the data transmission, but it does not protect the file server or the internal network from attacks if the protocol is exploited or if the external users are malicious. Therefore, implementing a secure protocol is not an IS auditor’s best recommendation to protect an organization from attacks when its file server needs to be accessible to external users5. References: 1: What Is a DMZ Network and Why Would You Use It? | Fortinet 2: Demilitarised zone (DMZ) | Cyber.gov.au 3: What Is VPN Tunneling? | Fortinet 4: Firewall - Wikipedia 5: Secure Shell - Wikipedia

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

An IT metrics dashboard provides real-time monitoring and reporting on key IT performance indicators (KPIs), allowing auditors and management to evaluate the effectiveness of IT strategy implementation and execution.

Option A (Benchmarking): Useful for comparisons with peers but not for ongoing execution.

Option B (Maturity models): Assess long-term process maturity, not direct strategy execution.

Option C (Six Sigma): Focuses on process improvement, not IT strategy monitoring.

Option D: Correct — dashboards link strategy to measurable outcomes.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 1, section on IT strategy, governance metrics, and performance dashboards.

 The IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating an organization’s offsite storage facility should be the adequacy of physical and environmental controls. Physical and environmental controls are essential to protect the offsite storage facility from unauthorized access, theft, fire, water damage, pests or other hazards that could compromise the integrity and availability of backup media. Shared facilities is something that the IS auditor should consider when evaluating the offsite storage facility, but it is not the primary focus. Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test or retention policy and period are things that the IS auditor should review when evaluating the organization’s BCP or backup strategy, not the offsite storage facility itself. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 388

 The first step in assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center is to evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center. This will help the IS auditor to identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect the call center’s objectives, performance, and availability. The evaluation of operational risk will also provide a basis for determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. The other options are possible audit procedures, but they are not the first step in the audit process. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion)

In cloud environments, responsibility for controls is split between the provider and the customer. The division depends on the service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS). Misunderstanding the shared responsibility model can create gaps in control coverage, where critical risks may not be managed by either party. SLA penalties (A) are contractual issues, not audit priorities. Availability reports (B) and business process redesign (D) are relevant but not as fundamental as defining control ownership. ISACA’s cloud audit guidelines stress that proper scoping begins with understanding shared responsibilities to avoid assurance gaps.

References (ISACA): ISACA Cloud Computing Audit Program; ISACA Journal – Shared Responsibility in Cloud.

The most important thing for the auditor to confirm when sourcing the population data for testing accounts payable controls by performing data analytics is that the data is taken directly from the system. Taking the data directly from the system can help ensure that the data is authentic, complete, and accurate, and that it has not been manipulated or modified by any intermediary sources or processes. The other options are not as important as taking the data directly from the system, as they do not affect the validity or reliability of the data. There is no privacy information in the data is a privacy concern that can help protect the confidentiality and integrity of personal or sensitive data, but it does not affect the accuracy or completeness of the data. The data can be obtained in a timely manner is a logistical concern that can help facilitate the efficiency and effectiveness of the data analytics process, but it does not affect the authenticity or accuracy of the data. The data analysis tools have been recently updated is a technical concern that can helpenhance the functionality and performance of the data analytics tools, but it does not affect the validity or reliability of the data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.2

The greatest risk if two users have concurrent access to the same database record is data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that the data is accurate, complete, consistent, and valid throughout its lifecycle. If two users have concurrent access to the same database record, they may modify or delete the data in a conflicting or inconsistent manner, resulting in data corruption, loss, or duplication. This can affect the reliability and quality of the data, and cause errors or anomalies in the database operations and functions. The IS auditor should verify that the database has adequate controls to prevent or resolve concurrent access issues, such as locking mechanisms, transaction isolation levels, concurrency control protocols, or timestamping methods. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7

The effectiveness of an organization’s security awareness program can be measured by capturing data on changes in the way people react to threats, such as the ability to recognize and avoid social engineering attacks1. An increase in the number of phishing emails reported by employees indicates that they are more aware of the signs and risks of phishing, and are more likely to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of such attacks23.

References

1: The Importance Of Measuring Security Awareness 2: Measuring the effectiveness of your security awareness program 3: How effective is security awareness training?

The effectiveness of an organization’s security awareness program can be measured by capturing data on changes in the way people react to threats, such as the ability to recognize and avoid social engineering attacks1. An increase in the number of phishing emails reported by employees indicates that they are more aware of the signs and risks of phishing, and are more likely to take appropriate actions to prevent or mitigate the impact of such attacks23.

References

1: The Importance Of Measuring Security Awareness 2: Measuring the effectiveness of your security awareness program 3: How effective is security awareness training?

Operating system parameters are settings or values that affect the behavior or performance of the operating system1. Modifications to the operating system parameters may be necessary to improve the system functionality, security, or efficiency. However, such modifications may also introduce risks or errors that can affect the system stability, compatibility, or integrity. Therefore, modifications to the operating system parameters should be authorized and documented by the appropriate authority2.

A change control log is a record of all changes made to the system, including the date, time, description, reason, authorization, and impact of each change3. A change control log can help the IS auditor to verify whether modifications to the operating system parameters were authorized by comparing the log entries with the actual system settings and the change approval documents4.

 The planning phase is the stage of the internal audit process where contact is established with the individuals responsible for the business processes in scope for review. The planning phase involves defining the objectives, scope, and criteria of the audit, as well as identifying the key risks and controls related to the audited area. The planning phase also involves communicating with the auditee to obtain relevant information, documents, and data, as well as to schedule interviews, walkthroughs, and meetings. The planning phase aims to ensure that the audit team has a clear understanding of the audited area and its context, and that the audit plan is aligned with the expectations and needs of the auditee and other stakeholders.

The execution phase is the stage of the internal audit process where the audit team performs the audit procedures according to the audit plan. The execution phase involves testing the design and operating effectiveness of the controls, collecting and analyzing evidence, documenting the audit work and results, and identifying any issues or findings. The execution phase aims to provide sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the audit conclusions and recommendations.

The follow-up phase is the stage of the internal audit process where the audit team monitors and verifies the implementation of the corrective actions agreed upon by the auditee in response to the audit findings. The follow-up phase involves reviewing the evidence provided by the auditee, conducting additional tests or interviews if necessary, and evaluating whether the corrective actions have adequately addressed the root causes of the findings. The follow-up phase aims to ensure that the auditee has taken timely and effective actions to improve its processes and controls.

The selection phase is not a standard stage of the internal audit process, but it may refer to the process of selecting which areas or functions to audit based on a risk assessment or an annual audit plan. The selection phase involves evaluating the inherent and residual risks of each potential auditable area, considering the impact, likelihood, and frequency of those risks, as well as other factors such as regulatory requirements, stakeholder expectations, previous audit results, and available resources. The selection phase aims to prioritize and allocate the audit resources to those areas that present the highest risks or opportunities for improvement.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.

The most concerning issue when determining if information assets are adequately safeguarded during transport and disposal is lack of appropriate data classification. Data classification is a process that assigns categories or levels of sensitivity to different types of information assets based on their value, criticality, or risk to the organization. Data classification can help safeguard information assets during transport and disposal by providing criteria and guidelines for identifying, labeling, handling, and protecting information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate data classification can compromise the security and confidentiality of information assets during transport and disposal by exposing them to unauthorized access, disclosure, theft, damage, or destruction. The other options are not as concerning as lack of appropriate data classification in safeguarding information assets during transport and disposal, as they do not affect the identification, labeling, handling, or protection of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of appropriate labeling is a possible factor that may increase the risk of misplacing, losing, or mishandling information assets during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of recent awareness training is a possible factor that may affect the knowledge or behavior of staff involved in transporting or disposing of information assets, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. Lack of password protection is a possible factor that may affect the security or confidentiality of information assets stored on devices during transport and disposal, but it does not affect the classification of information assets according to their sensitivity. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

The best way to protect sensitive information such as personally identifiable information (PII) stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments is data masking. Data masking is a technique that replaces or obscures sensitive data elements with fictitious or modified data elements that retain the original format and characteristics of the data. Data masking can help protect sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments by preventing the exposure or disclosure of the real data values without affecting the functionality or performance of the software or application. The other options are not as effective as data masking in protecting sensitive information such as PII stored in a particular data format while allowing the software developers to use it in development and test environments, as they have different limitations or drawbacks. Data tokenization is a technique that replaces sensitive data elements with non-sensitive tokens that have no intrinsic value or meaning. Data tokenization can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or theft, but it may not retain the original format and characteristics of the data, which may affect the functionality or performance of the software or application. Data encryption is a technique that transforms sensitive data elements into unreadable or unintelligible ciphertext using an algorithm and a key. Data encryption can protect sensitive information such as PII from unauthorized access or modification, but it requires decryption to restore the original data values, which may introduce additional complexity or overhead to the software development process. Data abstraction is a technique that hides the details or complexity of data structures or operations from users or programmers by providing a simplified representation or interface. Data abstraction can help improve the usability or maintainability of software or applications, but it does not protect sensitive information such as PII from exposure or disclosure. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

Periodic recertification of users ensures that only authorized individuals retain access to cloud services and helps identify and revoke access for users who no longer require it. This is a critical control for maintaining security and compliance in a cloud environment.

Classifying Cloud Services (Option A):This is foundational but does not verify ongoing user access.

Centrally Managing Users (Option B):While useful for consistency, it does not assess whether access rights are still valid.

Ensuring Cloud Process Resilience (Option C):This focuses on operational continuity rather than access control.

Periodic recertification aligns with governance practices to ensure access rights remain appropriate over time.

The best recommendation to help prevent the situation where IT support staff were put in a position to make decisions beyond their level of authority during the review of a system disruption incident is to introduce escalation protocols. Escalation protocols are policies and procedures that define who should be notified, involved, or consulted when an incident occurs, how the communication and handover should take place, and what criteria or triggers should be used to escalate the incident to a higher level of authority or expertise2. Escalation protocols help to ensure that:

Incidents are handled by the appropriate staff with the required skills, knowledge, and experience

Incidents are resolved in a timely and effective manner

Incidents are escalated to senior management or specialized teams when necessary

Incidents are documented and reported accurately and transparently

Incidents are analyzed and learned from to prevent recurrence or mitigate impact

Therefore, by introducing escalation protocols, an organization can improve its incident management process and avoid putting IT support staff in a position to make decisions beyond their level of authority.

The best answer is A. There are shared administrator accounts on internet-facing routers.

Shared administrator accounts on internet-facing devices create a serious accountability, access control, and security exposure. ISACA access-control guidance stresses that access should be individually justified, authorized, logged, and monitored. Shared privileged accounts undermine attribution and make it much harder to determine who performed a change or malicious action. On internet-facing routers, this becomes especially serious because those devices sit at the network boundary and can be targeted directly.

Option B is a concern, but a test web page in the DMZ is usually less severe than weak privileged access on perimeter infrastructure. Option C and D both mention updates from within the last week. That timing matters: while prompt patching is important, the absence of updates released only last week is generally less risky than shared privileged accounts on external-facing network devices, especially when emergency testing and staged deployment may still be underway. ISACA patch guidance emphasizes risk assessment and testing before deployment.

Therefore, the correct answer is A, because shared privileged accounts on internet-facing routers present the greatest immediate security and audit risk.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA, Audit Programs and Tools – Identity and Access Management Audit Program — access should be justified, authorized, logged, and monitored.

ISACA Journal, Selected COBIT 5 Processes for Essential Enterprise Security — supports strong identity and access governance. (Referenced through prior aligned ISACA IAM principles.)

ISACA Journal, Addressing Cybersecurity Vulnerabilities — patching and vulnerability management must be risk-based and timely.

ISACA, Protecting SAP Systems in the Cybersecurity Era — patch management should include risk and applicability assessment before deployment.

The best reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework is that frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations. An IT governance framework is a set of principles, guidelines, and processes that help an organization align its IT strategy with its business goals, manage IT risks and performance, and deliver value from IT investments. An IT governance framework can be adapted and customized to suit the specific needs, context, and culture of each organization, taking into account factors such as size, industry, maturity, objectives, and stakeholders. An IT governance framework can also help an organization adopt best practices and standards from various sources, such as COBIT2, ITIL3, ISO/IEC 200004, and others.

The other options are not as good as option B, as they may not capture the full scope or benefits of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors, but this is not the main purpose or advantage of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs), but this is only one aspect or tool of an IT governance framework. Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk, but this is also only one outcome or objective of an IT governance framework.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

The primary audit concern is data integrity—ensuring that the data uploaded via the custom interface is accurately and completely transferred to the financial system.

Option A directly addresses data accuracy and integrity.

Option B (timing) is secondary compared to correctness.

Option C (malware checks) is important but handled by security controls, not the primary audit concern here.

Option D (duplex communication) is irrelevant to ensuring accurate financial records.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 3, section on interface controls and audit considerations.

 A black box penetration test is a type of security assessment that simulates an attack on a system or network without any prior knowledge of its configuration or architecture. The main objective of this test is to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses that can be exploited by external or internal threat actors. To plan a black box penetration test, it is most important to ensure that the environment and penetration test scope have been determined. This means that the tester and the client organization have agreed on the boundaries, objectives, methods, and deliverables of the test, as well as the legal and ethical aspects of the engagement. Without a clear definition of the environment and scope, the test may not be effective, efficient, or compliant with relevant standards and regulations. Additionally, the tester may cause unintended damage or disruption to the client’s systems or networks, or violate their privacy or security policies.

The forensic principle is to preserve evidence in its original state. Imaging—including capturing residual and deleted data—ensures that the full contents of a storage device are preserved for analysis while maintaining the chain of custody. Hardening (A) may alter system state. Encoding logs (C) is not preservation but transformation. Documenting APIs (D) helps investigation scope but does not preserve evidence. ISACA guidance on digital forensics stresses the importance of bit-level imaging and ensuring evidence integrity through hashing and proper custody documentation.

References (ISACA): ISACA Incident Response and Forensics Guidance; ISACA Journal – Forensic Readiness.

To ensure that aservice vendor maintains required control levels, direct verification throughonsite assessmentsis the most effective approach.

Option A (Correct):Onsite assessmentsallow auditors todirectly reviewcontrols, procedures, and evidence of compliancein real time, ensuring that service levels are being met.

Option B (Incorrect):Unannounced vulnerability assessments may violatecontractual agreementsand ethical considerations.

Option C (Incorrect):Reviewing theSLAensures agreement terms are clear but doesnot verify actual compliance.

Option D (Incorrect):AControl Self-Assessment (CSA)is useful but relies onvendor-provided information, which may be biased or incomplete.

 File checksums are values that are calculated from the contents of a file and can detect any changes or corruption in the file. They are used to verify that the files that are transferred or processed through system interfaces are not altered in any way. File checksums are more effective than periodic audits, file counts, or IT operator monitoring, which are other types of controls that can help ensure the integrity of system interfaces, but they are not as reliable or timely as file checksums.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Fault tolerance refers to the ability of a system to continue functioning despite the occurrence of faults or hardware failures.

Option A: Describes failover, not fault tolerance.

Option B: Is a benefit but not the exact definition.

Option D: Refers to load balancing, not fault tolerance.

📖 ISACA Reference: CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, Domain 2, section on system availability, resilience, and fault tolerance.

Parallel simulation involves running the same data through two systems and comparing the results1. In this case, the bank’s data would be processed using both the modified interest calculation program and an audit software. The results from both systems would then be compared to check for discrepancies1. This technique provides strong evidence of the correctness of interest calculations as it directly tests the program’s output against a known and trusted output1. While source code review23, manual verification of a sample of results4567, and review of QA test results8910 can also provide valuable insights, they do not offer the same level of direct, comparative evidence as parallel simulation1.

A monitored mantrap at entrance and exit points would be the most effective compensating control in this scenario. A mantrap is a physical security access control system comprising a small space having two sets of interlockingdoors such that the first set of doors must close before the second set opens. By implementing a monitored mantrap, unauthorized access can be prevented and it can ensure that all individuals are logged when they enter and exit the server room12.

Moving validation controls from the server side into the browser would most likely increase the risk of a successful attack by structured query language (SQL) injection. SQL injection is a technique that exploits a security vulnerability in an application’s database layer by inserting malicious SQL statements into user input fields. Validation controls are used to check and filter user input before sending it to the database. If these controls are moved to the browser, they can be easily bypassed or modified by an attacker, who can then execute arbitrary SQL commands on the database. References: CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 361

The most important control to assess in an audit of an organization’s accounts payable processes is segregation of duties between issuing purchase orders and making payments. Segregation of duties is a principle that requires different individuals or departments to perform different tasks or functions within a process, in order to prevent fraud, errors, or conflicts of interest. In the accounts payable process, segregation of duties between issuing purchase orders and making payments ensures that no one person can initiate and complete a transaction without proper authorization and verification. This reduces the risk of duplicate payments, overpayments, unauthorized payments, or payments to fictitious vendors.

This is the most helpful method for measuring benefits realization for a new system, because it involves evaluating the actual outcomes and impacts of the system after it has been implemented and used for a certain period of time. A post-implementation review can compare the actual benefits with the expected benefits that were defined in the business case or the benefits realization plan, and identify any gaps, issues, or opportunities for improvement. A post-implementation review can also assess the effectiveness, efficiency, and satisfaction of the system’s users, stakeholders, and customers, and provide feedback and recommendations for future enhancements or changes.

The other options are not as helpful as post-implementation review for measuring benefits realization for a new system:

Function point analysis. This is a technique that measures the size and complexity of a software system based on the number and types of functions it provides. Function point analysiscan help estimate the cost, effort, and time required to develop, maintain, or enhance a software system, but it does not measure the actual benefits or value that the system delivers to the organization or its users.

Balanced scorecard review. This is a strategic management tool that measures the performance of an organization or a business unit based on four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard review can help align the organization’s vision, mission, and goals with its activities and outcomes, but it does not measure the specific benefits or impacts of a new system.

Business impact analysis (BIA). This is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of a disruption or disaster on the organization’s critical business functions and processes. A BIA can help determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for the organization in case of an emergency, but it does not measure the benefits or value of a new system.

Outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources is the best course of action for the IS audit manager who was temporarily tasked with supervising a project manager assigned to the organization’s payroll application upgrade. This is because the IS audit manager has a potential conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence, which are essential principles and standards for IS auditors.

According to the ISACA Code of Professional Ethics, IS auditors should maintain objectivity and independence in their professional judgment and avoid any situations that may impair or be presumed to impair their objectivity or independence1. Objectivity is the mental attitude of an IS auditor that allows them to perform their work honestly, impartially, and with integrity, while independence is the freedom from conditions that threaten the ability of an IS auditor to carry out their work in an unbiased manner2.

The IS audit manager who was involved in supervising the payroll application upgrade project may have a self-review threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will not appropriately evaluate the results of a previous judgment made or service performed by them or their subordinates3. The IS audit manager may also have a familiarity threat, which is the risk that an IS auditor will be influenced by a close relationship with someone involved in the project or by their own personal interests4. These threats may compromise the IS audit manager’s objectivity and independence and affect the quality and credibility of the audit.

Therefore, the IS audit manager should disclose their involvement in the project to their senior management and the audit committee and decline to perform or manage the audit. The IS audit manager should also recommend outsourcing the audit to independent and qualified resources who have no connection or interest in the project and who have the necessary skills and experience to conduct a reliable and effective audit.

The other options are not the best course of action for the IS audit manager.

Transferring the assignment to a different audit manager despite lack of IT project management experience is not the best course of action because it may result in a low-quality audit that does not meet the expectations and standards of the stakeholders. IT project management experience is essential for auditing an IT project, as it requires knowledge of project management methodologies, tools, techniques, risks, and best practices. An audit manager who lacks IT project management experience may not be able to plan, execute, report, and follow up on the audit effectively and efficiently.

Managing the audit since there is no one else with the appropriate experience is not the best course of action because it violates the ethical principles and standards of objectivity and independence for IS auditors. Managing the audit would create a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence for the IS audit manager, as they would be reviewing their own work or that of their subordinate. Managing the audit would also undermine the credibility and reliability of the audit results and recommendations, as they may be biased or influenced by personal or professional relationships or interests.

Having a senior IS auditor manage the project with the IS audit manager performing final review is not the best course of action because it still involves the IS audit manager in the audit process, which poses a conflict of interest and a threat to objectivity and independence. Performing final review would require the IS audit manager to evaluate and approve the work done by the senior IS auditor, which may be affected by their previous involvement in or knowledge of the project. Performing final review would also expose theIS audit manager to undue pressure or influence from management or other stakeholders who may have expectations or preferences regarding the audit outcome.

 The strategy that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation is delivering only the core functionality on the initial target date. This strategy can help avoid compromising the quality of the system by focusing on the essential features that meet the user needs and expectations. Delivering only the core functionality can also help reduce the scope creep, complexity, and testing efforts of the system development project.

Implementing overtime pay and bonuses for all development staff, utilizing new system development tools to improve productivity, and recruiting IS staff to expedite system development are not strategies that would provide the greatest assurance of system quality at implementation. These strategies may help speed up the system development process, but they may also introduce new risks or challenges such as burnout, learning curve, integration issues, or communication gaps. These risks or challenges may adversely affect the quality of the system.

 Regular scanning of hard drives is the most effective way to detect installation of unauthorized software packages by employees because it can identify any software that is not approved by the organization and may pose a security risk or violate the software policy. Communicating the policy to employees is important, but it may not prevent or detect unauthorized software installation. Logging of activity on the network can monitor network traffic, but it may not capture all software installation events. Maintaining current antivirus software can protect the system from malicious software, but it may not detect all unauthorized software packages. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 2381

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The most reliable evidence is evidence obtained directly by the auditor through independent performance of procedures. ISACA guidance notes that higher-assurance audit work is achieved when evidence is produced directly by auditors, or at least strictly under their control, rather than being supplied by the entity being audited.

Option D is correct because independently performing manual procedures gives the auditor direct control over the evidence-gathering process and reduces reliance on the auditee or control owner. In audit theory and in ISACA-aligned practice, evidence obtained directly by the auditor is generally more reliable than evidence merely provided by the auditee.

Option A is strong evidence because it comes from an independent third party, but it is still inspected rather than generated directly by the auditor. It is generally very reliable, but not as strong as auditor-generated evidence through independent reperformance.

Option B is less reliable because system-generated evidence provided by a control owner still depends on the completeness and integrity of what was selected and presented by the auditee.

Option C is the least reliable among the plausible choices because critical data received from an auditee is subject to the greatest dependence on management representation and auditee-controlled extraction.

Therefore, D is the best answer because evidence generated through procedures performed independently by the auditor is the most reliable.

References (Official ISACA):

ISACA Journal, Capability Maturity Model and Risk Register Integration — “evidence is produced directly by the auditors or, if strictly under the auditors’ control, by the entity’s staff.”

ISACA Journal, A Factory Model Approach to Technology Control Testing — emphasizes gathering evidence, analyzing it, and substantiating results within a governed testing process.

ISACA, ITAF update announcement — confirms ITAF as ISACA’s professional framework for audit standards and guidance.

 The results of the previous audit are an important source of information for an IS auditor to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they can provide insights into the current state and performance of the auditee, identify any issues or gaps that need to be followed up or addressed, and highlight any areas that require special attention or focus. The designof controls is an important factor to evaluate during an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not reflect the actual implementation or effectiveness of the controls. Industry standards and best practices are useful benchmarks or guidelines for an IS auditor to compare or measure against during an audit engagement, but they are not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as they may not be applicable or relevant to the specific context or objectives of the auditee. The amount of time since the previous audit is a relevant criterion to determine the frequency or timing of an audit engagement, but it is not the most important thing to consider when performing the risk assessment prior to an audit engagement, as it does not indicate the level or nature of risk associated with the auditee. 

The performance and reliability of a job scheduling tool can be significantly affected if maintenance patches and the latest enhancement upgrades are missing1. These patches and upgrades often contain fixes for known issues and improvements to the tool’s functionality. If they are not applied, the tool may continue to exhibit known problems or fail to benefit from enhancements that could improve its performance and reliability1. While factors like administrator password requirements23, number of support staff45, and tool classification64 can impact various aspects of a tool’s operation, they are less likely to be the direct cause of performance and reliability problems.

The most significant risk from not testing patches before putting them into production is the lack of system integrity. Patches are software updates that fix bugs, vulnerabilities or performance issues in an application system. However, patches may also introduce new errors, conflicts or compatibility issues that could affect thefunctionality, reliability or security of the system4. By not testing patches before putting them into production, the organization exposes itself to the risk of system failures, data corruption or unauthorized access. Loss of application support, outdated system documentation and developer access to production are also risks from not testing patches, but they are not as significant as the lack of system integrity. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2951

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 A network firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. A network firewall can help reduce the risk of denial of service (DoS) attacks, which are attempts to overwhelm a system or network with excessive requests or traffic, by filtering or blocking unwanted or malicious packets. A SQL injection attack is a type of code injection attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database query, by inserting malicious SQL statements into the input fields. A phishing attack is a type of social engineering attack that attempts to trick users into revealing sensitive information or installing malware, by sending fraudulent emails or messages that impersonate legitimate entities. An insider attack is a type of malicious activity that originates from within an organization, such as employees, contractors, or partners, who abuse their access privileges or credentials to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information systems or data. A network firewall cannot prevent these types of attacks, as they rely on exploiting human or application weaknesses rather than network vulnerabilities.

The impact if corrective actions are not taken is the most important factor to consider when scheduling follow-up audits. An IS auditor should prioritize the follow-up audits based on the risk and potential consequences of not addressing the audit findings and recommendations. The other options are less important factors that may affect the timing and scope of the follow-up audits, but not their necessity or urgency. References:

CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.5.31

CISA Review Questions, Answers and Explanations Database, Question ID 207

 The most important factor to consider when developing a service level agreement (SLA) is the description of the services from the viewpoint of the client organization, because the SLA shouldreflect the needs and expectations of the client and specify the measurable outcomes and performance indicators that the provider must deliver34. The description of the services from the viewpoint of the provider, the detailed identification of work to be completed, and the provisions for regulatory requirements that impact the end users’ businesses are also important elements of an SLA, but not as crucial as the client’sperspective. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 3

Job scheduling is a core operational control that ensures workloads are executed in an orderly and efficient manner, balancing demands across processing resources. Its primary benefit is optimization of system resources—CPU, memory, I/O, and network bandwidth—leading to improved throughput and consistent service levels. While scheduling may indirectly reduce downtime (A) or support scalability (B), its direct impact is ensuring resources are allocated efficiently. Decreasing complexity (D) is not the key purpose of scheduling. ISACA’s DSS01 (Managed Operations) recognizes workload and job scheduling as crucial practices for sustaining reliable, high-performance IT services.

References (ISACA): COBIT® 2019, DSS01 Managed Operations.

 The only thing that can be provided by asymmetric encryption is nonrepudiation. Nonrepudiation is the ability to prove that a message or transaction was originated or authorized by a specific party. Asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. If a message is encrypted with the sender’s private key, only the sender’s public key can decrypt it. This proves that the message was sent by the sender and not by anyone else. This is called digital signature and it provides nonrepudiation. Asymmetric encryption can also provide information privacy by encrypting a message with the receiver’s public key, so that only the receiver’s private key can decrypt it. However, information privacy can also be provided by symmetric encryption, which uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt messages. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.21

CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 2, Lesson 12

The greatest risk associated with the situation of business units purchasing cloud-based applications without IT support is that the applications may not reasonably protect data. Cloud-based applications are software applications that run on the internet, rather than on a local device or network. Cloud-based applications offer manybenefits, such as scalability, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness, but they also pose many challenges and risks, especially for data security1.

Data security is the process of protecting data from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction. Data security is essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, as well as complying with legal and regulatory requirements. Data security is especially important for cloud-based applications, as data are stored and processed on remote servers that are owned and managed by third-party cloud service providers (CSPs)2.

When business units purchase cloud-based applications without IT support, they may not be aware of or follow the best practices and standards for data security in the cloud. They may not performadequate risk assessments, vendor evaluations, contract reviews, or audits to ensure that the CSPs and the applications meet the organization’s data security policies and expectations. They may not implement appropriate data encryption, backup, recovery, or disposal methods to protect the data in transit and at rest. They may not monitor or control the access and usage of the data by internal or external users. They may not report or respond to any data breaches or incidents that may occur3.

These actions or inactions may expose the organization’s data to various threats and vulnerabilities in the cloud, such as cyberattacks, human errors, malicious insiders, misconfigurations, or legal disputes. These threats and vulnerabilities may result in data loss, leakage, corruption, or compromise, which may have serious consequences for theorganization’s reputation, operations, performance, compliance, and liability4.

Therefore, it is essential that business units consult and collaborate with IT support before purchasing any cloud-based applications, and follow the organization’s guidelines and procedures for cloud security. IT support can help business units to select and use cloud-based applications that are suitable and secure for their needs and objectives.

A key aspect ofbackup managementis ensuring backups are performed on time and without manual intervention to avoid human error.

Option A (Incorrect):While separation of duties is important, the concern here is not aconflict of interestbut rather the reliability of backup execution.

Option B (Incorrect):Load balancer configuration relates tonetwork traffic management, which is not directly relevant to backup reliability.

Option C (Incorrect):Cloud-based backups can be a good option, but the immediate priority is toverify if backups are consistently executedbefore suggesting alternative solutions.

Option D (Correct):Reviewing backup logs provides concreteevidenceof whether backups are performed on schedule and if they weremisseddue to peak usage periods. If issues are found, automation or scheduling adjustments may be recommended.