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CCDS-O Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider’s attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

A.

Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn’s disease

B.

Chronic obstructive lung disease, T3 compression fracture, and s/p kidney transplant

C.

Family history of lung cancer, atrial fibrillation, and sickle cell

D.

Diabetes mellitus, syncopal episode, and pharyngitis

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Question # 5

Which statement is MOST accurate about the problem list?

A.

Problem list diagnoses should be removed after one year.

B.

A well-maintained problem list is vital in the continuity of patient care.

C.

More diagnoses on the problem list assist the provider in caring for the patient.

D.

A CDI specialist should update the problem list to provide continuity of care.

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Question # 6

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

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Question # 7

A patient presents to the office complaining of lower abdominal pain and burning urination. Urinalysis indicates WBC >10, positive nitrites, and leuk esterase. Documentation identifies pain, urinary frequency, and fever likely UTI. Cultures are pending for E-Coli. The patient is started on antipyretics and Levaquin. Which of the following conditions can be reported?

A.

Abdominal pain, fever, and pyuria

B.

UTI

C.

E-Coli, UTI, and fever

D.

Abdominal pain, fever, and urinary frequency

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Question # 8

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

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Question # 9

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

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Question # 10

Which of the following adds weight to the risk score over and above the CMS-HCC weights for individual conditions?

A.

Hierarchies

B.

Disease interactions

C.

Resource-based relative values

D.

Conversion factors

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Question # 11

Which of the following statements is true regarding RADV reviews?

A.

Diagnoses assigned by a diagnostic radiologist are considered during RADV reviews.

B.

Conditions reported must be documented in the final visit diagnoses or facesheet of the medical record.

C.

Acceptable physician authentication includes hand-written or electronic signatures.

D.

Diagnoses assigned by technicians are considered during RADV reviews.

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Question # 12

Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: “Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.” There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

A.

Capture code for pacemaker status only.

B.

Request the provider amend the codes to reflect the Sick Sinus Syndrome and pacemaker status.

C.

Educate the provider that a pacemaker status code as well as a Sick Sinus Syndrome code should be assigned.

D.

Ask the coder to re-bill based upon the documentation.

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Question # 13

A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient’s vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient’s medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?

A.

Acute blood loss anemia

B.

Peripheral neuropathy

C.

Chronic respiratory failure

D.

CKD

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Question # 14

What is the goal of an MSSP program?

A.

Optimize risk score

B.

Share in savings

C.

Improve transitions of care

D.

Increase fee schedule payment

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Question # 15

During a PCP visit, a provider notes a patient’s history of pathological fracture of the thoracic spine related to osteoporosis. Documentation states: “Decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months.” Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

A.

Degree of muscle atrophy

B.

Acuity of the pathological fracture

C.

Type of osteoporosis

D.

Presence of malnutrition

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Question # 16

Which of the following is designed to reduce claims denials and appeals by providing one-on-one feedback to the provider to increase accuracy in specific areas?

A.

Recovery Audit Contractor

B.

Target Probe and Educate

C.

OIG Work Plan

D.

Comprehensive Error Rate Testing

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Question # 17

Provider documentation states: “A 72-year-old patient with an active history of colon cancer, status post bowel resection, receiving chemotherapy. Newly diagnosed lung metastasis. Presents with UTI and elevated creatinine. Labs demonstrate a hemoglobin of 7.9, WBC of 2,500, and platelet count of 20,000.” Which of the following is the query opportunity that supports a disease interaction that impacts the risk adjustment?

A.

Colon cancer and lung metastasis

B.

Colon cancer and chemotherapy

C.

Acute tubular necrosis and UTI

D.

Chemotherapy induced pancytopenia

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Question # 18

Provider documentation states: “A patient is seen today with DM type 2, peripheral neuropathy with diabetic ulcer of the left great toe, hypertension, and BMI 43. O2 dependent, chronic respiratory failure due to COPD, stopped smoking 2 years ago - 84 packs per year smoking habit.” Which of the following query opportunities will impact risk adjustment?

A.

Nicotine dependence

B.

Diabetes with complications

C.

Morbid obesity

D.

Depth of diabetic ulcer

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Question # 19

A patient presents to the PCP’s office with LLE edema and pain for 3 days. The problem list indicates morbid obesity and a history of DVT. Vital signs are T 37.9, P 76, R 12, BP 142/88, BMI 46. Documentation states: “Patient presents with LLE edema, increased pain, and hx of DVT. Sedentary lifestyle and contraindications to anticoagulation therapy. LLE warm to touch, 3+ edema from ankle to knee. Pedal pulses 2+ on L and 3+ on R.” Doppler exam indicates DVT. The PCP should be queried for which of the following diagnoses?

A.

Morbid obesity and status of the DVT

B.

Hypercoagulability and hypertensive urgency

C.

Hypertensive urgency and status of the DVT

D.

Hypercoagulability and morbid obesity

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Question # 20

Which of the following Medicare patients demonstrates the highest level of risk based on the above chart?

A.

65-year-old female, living at home, history includes diabetes type 2, obesity, and depression

B.

64-year-old female, living at home, disabled due to chronic pain, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, obesity, and depression

C.

72-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

D.

94-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

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Question # 21

When compliantly querying providers, CDI specialists or HIM/coding professionals may

A.

offer diagnoses choices supported by documentation solely from previous encounters.

B.

identify which diagnoses are HCCs.

C.

offer a new diagnosis, that is supported by the clinical evidence, as an option in a multiple-choice query.

D.

omit clinical indicators in a query as this may be leading to the provider.

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Question # 22

A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

A.

Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea

B.

Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea

C.

Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

D.

Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

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Question # 23

A female patient who underwent total hip replacement 2 weeks ago is in for a follow-up visit with her PCP. The visit note states: “Patient complains of fatigue and lethargy. Hgb on discharge was 10.4gm/dL - now is 8.6 gm/dL. Will start FeSO4 325mg po daily with food. Repeat H/H in 2 weeks. She has return visit with Ortho then.” Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

A.

Instruct the provider to add iron deficiency anemia to the problem list.

B.

Review the lab work referenced by the provider in the progress note for congruence.

C.

Query the provider for a diagnosis related to fatigue, decreased Hgb, and FeSO4.

D.

Add acute blood loss anemia to the diagnoses reported on the claim.

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Question # 24

A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?

A.

A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia

B.

Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy

C.

Association of hypertension to smoking

D.

Hypertensive crisis - unspecified

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Question # 25

Documentation states: “Patient with history of STEMI five weeks ago. Returning to office for follow-up. Problem list includes CAD, hypertension, heart failure, leukemia, malnutrition, and atrial fibrillation, all were relevant to the encounter. CBC and WBC reviewed and referred to oncologist. Follow-up with dietitian to further evaluate nutritional status.” Which of the following is the MOST impactful risk adjusted query opportunity?

A.

Status (remission, or relapse) and acuity of leukemia

B.

Type (diastolic, systolic, combined) and acuity of heart failure

C.

Differentiation of atrial fibrillation (paroxysmal, persistent, permanent)

D.

Severity of the malnutrition (mild, moderate, severe)

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Question # 26

In the outpatient setting, which of the following guidelines depicts the reason for the encounter/visit shown in the medical record to be chiefly responsible for the services provided?

A.

Differential diagnoses

B.

Co-existing diagnoses

C.

Principal diagnosis

D.

First-listed diagnosis

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Question # 27

A patient with stage 3 CKD presents to the clinic for evaluation. Upon review of labs, an elevated iPTH and a normal phosphorus level are noted. Which of the following diagnoses may be appropriately queried based upon these lab values?

A.

Secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin

B.

Primary hyperparathyroidism

C.

CKD stage 3 with hypoparathyroidism

D.

Hyperparathyroidism secondary to hypophosphatemia

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Question # 28

CMS-HCCs are used to

A.

reimburse physicians based on the principal diagnosis.

B.

distribute reimbursement to providers based on quality of care.

C.

determine capitation payments to insurers that administer Medicare Advantage health plans.

D.

adjust capitation payments to physicians, excluding advanced practice providers.

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Question # 29

Which of the following coding guidelines is MOST important for a provider to understand when selecting diagnosis codes for an office visit as opposed to an inpatient stay?

A.

Chronic conditions only have to be coded once a year even if relevant to multiple encounters.

B.

First-listed diagnosis and principal diagnosis are synonymous terms.

C.

Documentation of uncertain diagnoses may not be assigned ICD-10-CM codes.

D.

Documentation is only required for the main reason of the office visit.

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Question # 30

A CDI specialist is writing a query and including information from another facility’s EHR via shared notes. Understanding that the ability to view shared notes may be revoked by the patient at any time, and to ensure HIPAA guidelines are followed, which of the following elements are BEST to include when sending the query?

A.

Location of shared note, date of shared note, provider name, and specific documentation

B.

Location of shared note, provider name, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

C.

Provider name, date of shared note, specific documentation, and any follow-up procedure

D.

Provider name, date of shared note, follow-up procedure, and date of review

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Question # 31

A compliant physician query must:

A.

Lead the provider to a specific diagnosis

B.

Be non-leading and include clinical indicators

C.

Be verbal only

D.

Be open-ended without context

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Question # 32

After a CDI specialist describes how RAF is calculated, a provider states, “I just don’t see how this impacts patient care.” Which of the following is the MOST appropriate response related to the RAF score?

A.

“It determines what you will be reimbursed.”

B.

“It predicts expected resources needed to care for the patient.”

C.

“It determines the patient’s out of pocket expenses.”

D.

“It predicts medical necessity of ordered procedures/treatments.”

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Question # 33

Which entity is tasked by CMS to process both Part A and Part B beneficiary claims?

A.

Recovery audit contractors

B.

Risk adjustment validation contractors

C.

Medicare administrative contractors

D.

Zone program integrity contractors

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Question # 34

In which of the following ways does payment determination (risk score calculation) differ between HHS-HCCs and CMS-HCCs?

A.

HHS-HCCs use the current year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the current year’s spending.

B.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s demographics/diagnoses to predict the next year’s spending.

C.

HHS-HCCs use current ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the current year’s spending.

D.

HHS-HCCs use the previous year’s ICD-10-CM and CPT codes to predict the next year’s spending.

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Question # 35

The primary purpose of clinical documentation improvement (CDI) is to:

A.

Increase hospital reimbursement

B.

Ensure accurate and complete documentation reflecting patient severity and care provided

C.

Simplify the physician’s workflow

D.

Reduce coding workload

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Question # 36

Ambulatory Payment Classifications (APCs) are similar to Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs) in which of the following ways?

A.

Multiple APCs can be assigned for a given encounter.

B.

APC assignment is dependent on diagnoses codes.

C.

APCs classify payment identifying similar resource use.

D.

Only one APC can be assigned for a given encounter.

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Question # 37

Which of the following best differentiates inpatient from outpatient coding guidelines?

A.

Outpatient guidelines focus on principal diagnoses

B.

Inpatient guidelines emphasize diagnosis sequencing and MS-DRGs

C.

Both use the same guidelines with no differences

D.

Outpatient coding ignores encounter diagnoses

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Question # 38

A patient with a PMH of DM, GERD, and HTN is seen in the clinic with complaints of stuffy nose, fever, and feeling tired for the past four days. The patient’s medication list includes SSI, Prilosec, and Diovan. The provider documented: “Congestion, fever, malaise, DM, GERD, HTN. Continue OTC medications for congestion and fever. Rest. Return to the clinic in one week if symptoms persist.” Which of the following ICD-10-CM guidelines BEST applies to how this scenario should be coded?

A.

Selection of first-listed condition

B.

Codes that describe symptoms and signs

C.

Uncertain diagnoses

D.

Encounters for general medical examination with abnormal finding

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Question # 39

Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?

A.

Concern for streptococcal pneumonia

B.

Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic

C.

Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia

D.

Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia

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Question # 40

ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient’s provider in which of the following circumstances?

A.

Anatomic site of previous amputation

B.

Type of obesity

C.

Stage of pressure ulcer

D.

Site of ostomy

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Question # 41

Calculate the expected yearly cost for this patient based on the RAF score.

A.

$486.40

B.

$12,672.00

C.

$17,011.20

D.

$5,836.80

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Question # 42

A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?

A.

Pleural effusion

B.

Heart failure

C.

Pneumonia

D.

Pulmonary hypertension

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