CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Question and Answers

Agent-based scanning is best suited for environments with multiple subnets, VLANs, and branch offices, as described. It allows for fast scanning with fewer false positives, and since the agents are installed on the servers, they tend to have a lower impact on performance. This type of scanning also facilitates signature-based scanning, which is one of the customer's requirements.

Chain of custody is critical in legal contexts as it documents the seizure, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of evidence. If the chain of custody is broken, it means there is a possibility that the evidence could have been tampered with or compromised, which can lead to it being deemed inadmissible in court.

DNS Security Extensions (DNSSEC) adds a layer of security to the DNS lookup and response process which can prevent users from being redirected to fraudulent websites, a common goal of typosquatting. DNSSEC ensures that the DNS data has not been modified from its original state and is especially useful if the DNS system is returning proper results and there are no known Indicators of Compromise (IoCs). It uses digital signatures and public-key encryption to provide authentication for DNS data.

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help security analysts to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. MITRE ATT&CK is the most likely resource that a security analyst would adopt to implement the most up-to-date and effective security methodologies for their clients. Verified References:

• https://attack.mitre.org/
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/

Based on the SIEM alerts, the security analyst should first disable the jdoe account, as it is likely compromised by an attacker. The alerts show that the jdoe account successfully logged on to the abc-usa-fsl server, which is a file server, and then initiated SMB (445) traffic to the abc-web01 server, which is a web server. This indicates that the attacker may be trying to exfiltrate data from the file server to the web server. Disabling the jdoe account would help stop this unauthorized activity and prevent further damage.

Disabling Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, the local account is compromised, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the local account is compromised or not. The alert shows that there was a successful logon event for Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if it was a local or domain account, or if it was authorized or not. Moreover, disabling the local account would not stop the SMB traffic from jdoe to abc-web01.

Shutting down the abc-usa-fsl server, a plaintext credential is being used, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if a plaintext credential is being used or not. The alert shows that there was RDP (3389) traffic from abc-admin1-logon to abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if the credential was encrypted or not. Moreover, shutting down the file server would disrupt its normal operations and affect other users.

Shutting down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited or not. The alert shows that there was FTP (21) traffic from abc-usa-dcl to abc-web01, but it does not specify if it was related to the VPN or not. Moreover, shutting down the firewall would expose the network to other threats and affect other services. References: What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is a SIEM Alert? | Cofense

The netstat -tulpn command is used to display network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. The -tulpn options specifically show TCP and UDP connections with the process ID and the name that is listening on each port, which would provide the necessary information to identify if FTP is running and on which port without turning the service off. This information can then be used to create a precise firewall rule to prevent the FTP service from being exploited.

When an EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response) system flags legitimate software as malicious, it is a false positive. This occurs when the EDR incorrectly identifies normal, non-malicious activity as a threat. The scenario described indicates that the development software was blocked even though there were no changes to the software, which suggests a false positive by the EDR system.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) solutions provide continuous monitoring and response to advanced threats. They can help mitigate the risk of not having visibility into off-network activities by detecting, investigating, and responding to suspicious activities on endpoints, regardless of their location.

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 403-404]

The first step in mitigating the risk associated with delayed patching is to conduct a vulnerability analysis. This process involves identifying, categorizing, and assessing the vulnerabilities within the hospital's IT infrastructure. By understanding the specific vulnerabilities and their potential impact on patient care and data availability, the hospital can prioritize patching efforts effectively and develop a strategy that minimizes disruptions while ensuring critical systems remain secure.

In a PaaS implementation, the provider offers relief to the organization’s teams by sharing in many of the operational duties related to the application/platform software. The provider is responsible for securing and maintaining the underlying infrastructure, operating systems, middleware, runtime environments, and other software components that support the platform and the applications running on it. The provider also handles tasks such as patching, updating, scaling, and backing up the platform software.

A. Application-specific data assets are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization owns and controls its own data and must ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The organization must also comply with any applicable data protection laws and regulations.

B. Application user access management is the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must define and enforce its own policies and procedures for granting, revoking, and monitoring access to its applications and data. The organization must also ensure that its users follow security best practices such as strong passwords and multifactor authentication.

C. Application-specific logic and code are the responsibility of the organization in a PaaS implementation. The organization must develop, test, deploy, and manage its own applications using the tools and services provided by the platform. The organization must also ensure that its applications are secure, reliable, and performant.

https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS

Threat emulation is the method that should be used to test an incident response playbook for insider attacks. Threat emulation is a technique that simulates real-world attacks using realistic scenarios, tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of threat actors. Threat emulation can help evaluate the effectiveness of an incident response plan by testing how well it can detect, respond to, contain, eradicate, recover from, and learn from an attack.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 461]

The analyst should implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics. This approach would allow the analyst to test each solution individually and measure its effectiveness against the attack, without affecting the other solutions or the production environment. This would also minimize the downtime required to implement the best solution, as only one change would be needed. The other options would either involve implementing multiple solutions at once, which could cause conflicts or errors, or collecting metrics before running the attack simulation, which would not reflect the actual impact of the solutions.

Establishing one-way trust from Company B to Company A would allow users from Company B to access Company A’s resources using their existing credentials. Implementing attribute-based access control would allow users to have different sets of rights and privileges based on their attributes, such as department and IP address. Verified References:

• https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/access-management/what-is-sso/
• https://frontegg.com/blog/a-complete-guide-to-implementing-single-sign-on
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/host-integration-server/esso/enterprise-single-sign-on-basics

The organization’s new email system should provide e-discovery functionality. E-discovery stands for electronic discovery, which is the process of identifying, preserving, collecting, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant to a legal matter. E-discovery can help the organization comply with legal holds, which are orders or notices to preserve relevant ESI when litigation is anticipated or ongoing. E-discovery can also help the organization reduce the costs and risks of litigation, as well as improve the efficiency and accuracy of the discovery process. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/electronic-discovery
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/legal-hold
• https://www.ibm.com/topics/electronic-discovery

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

The company should implement an EV certificate and HSTS on its new website. An EV certificate provides the highest level of web identity validation by requiring extensive verification of the organization’s identity and domain ownership. HSTS enforces encryption of all web transactions by redirecting HTTP requests to HTTPS and preventing users from accepting invalid certificates. These solutions would enhance the security and trustworthiness of the website without increasing complexity or expenditure significantly. Verified References:

• https://www.entrust.com/digital-security/certificate-solutions/products/digital-certificates/tls-ssl-certificates
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/develop/access-tokens

Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark
• https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/
• https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110

The most likely cause of the signature failing is that the certificate is set for the wrong key usage. Key usage is an extension of a certificate that defines the purpose and functionality of the public key contained in the certificate. Key usage can include digital signature, key encipherment, data encipherment, certificate signing, and others. If the certificate is set for a different key usage than digital signature, it will not be able to sign the applications properly. The administrator should check the key usage extension of the certificate and make sure it matches the intended purpose. Verified References:

• https://www.wintips.org/how-to-fix-windows-cannot-verify-the-digital-signature-for-this-file-error-in-windows-8-7-vista/
• https://softwaretested.com/mac/how-to-fix-a-digital-signature-error-on-windows-10/
• https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/digital-signatures-and-certificates-8186cd15-e7ac-4a16-8597-22bd163e8e96

Least privilege, policy automation, and continuous validation are some of the key elements that need to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Zero trust architecture is a security model that assumes no implicit trust for any entity or resource, regardless of their location or ownership. Zero trust architecture requires verifying every request and transaction before granting access or allowing data transfer. Zero trust architecture also requires minimizing the attack surface and reducing the risk of lateral movement by attackers.

A. Least privilege is a principle that states that every entity or resource should only have the minimum level of access or permissions necessary to perform its function. Least privilege can help enforce granular and dynamic policies that limit the exposure and impact of potential breaches. Least privilege can also help prevent privilege escalation and abuse by malicious insiders or compromised accounts.

C. Policy automation is a process that enables the creation, enforcement, and management of security policies using automated tools and workflows. Policy automation can help simplify and streamline the implementation of zero trust architecture by reducing human errors, inconsistencies, and delays. Policy automation can also help adapt to changing conditions and requirements by updating and applying policies in real time.

F. Continuous validation is a process that involves verifying the identity, context, and risk level of every request and transaction throughout its lifecycle. Continuous validation can help ensure that only authorized and legitimate requests and transactions are allowed to access or transfer data. Continuous validation can also help detect and respond to anomalies or threats by revoking access or terminating sessions if the risk level changes.

B. VPN is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, which is a technology that creates a secure tunnel between a device and a network over the internet. VPN can provide confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for network communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. VPN still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

D. PKI is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. PKI stands for Public Key Infrastructure, which is a system that manages the creation, distribution, and verification of certificates. Certificates are digital documents that contain public keys and identity information of their owners. Certificates can be used to prove the identity and authenticity of the certificate holders, as well as to encrypt and sign data. PKI can provide encryption and authentication for data communications, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. PKI still relies on trusted authorities and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

E. Firewall is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Firewall is a device or software that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules. Firewall can provide protection against unauthorized or malicious network access, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Firewall still relies on network-based perimeters and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

G. Continuous integration is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. Continuous integration is a software development practice that involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently and automatically. Continuous integration can help improve the quality, reliability, and performance of software products, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. Continuous integration still relies on code-based quality assurance and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

H. IaaS is not an element that needs to be implemented to achieve the objective of transitioning to a zero trust architecture. IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. IaaS can provide scalability, flexibility, and cost-efficiency for IT infrastructure, but it does not provide zero trust security by itself. IaaS still relies on cloud-based security controls and does not verify every request or transaction at a granular level.

OS credential dumping is the process of obtaining account login and password information, normally in the form of a hash or a clear text password, from the operating system and software. System information discovery is the process of gathering information about the system, such as hostname, IP address, OS version, running processes, etc. Both of these techniques are commonly used by adversaries to gain access to sensitive data and resources on the target system. The command shown in the image is using Mimikatz, a tool that can dump credentials from memory, and also querying the system information using WMIC. Verified References:

• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1003/
• https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1082/
• https://github.com/gentilkiwi/mimikatz
• https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/win32/wmisdk/wmic

Field masking is a technique that hides or obscures part of the information in a data field, such as a password, credit card number, or social security number. Field masking can be used to protect sensitive or confidential data from unauthorized access or disclosure, while still allowing authorized users to view or verify the data.

Field masking should be implemented to authenticate employees who call in remotely by allowing the help desk staff to view partial information about employees, because field masking would:

• Enable the help desk staff to verify the identity of the employees by asking them to provide some characters or digits from their data fields, such as their employee ID or email address.
• Prevent the help desk staff from viewing the full information about employees, which may be considered sensitive and subject to privacy regulations or policies.
• Reduce the risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse by limiting the exposure of sensitive data to only those who need it.

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

• Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.
• Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.
• Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.
• Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

The company should use an additional layer of encryption to secure the data from theft when moving to a CSP. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable format using a secret key. Encryption can protect the data from unauthorized access or modification during transit and at rest. Encryption can be applied at different levels, such as disk, file, or application. An additional layer of encryption can provide an extra security measure on top of the encryption provided by the CSP. Verified References:

• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/transition-seat-based-services
• https://cloud.google.com/architecture/patterns-for-connecting-other-csps-with-gcp

The change control board (CCB) is a committee that consists of subject matter experts and managers who decide whether to implement proposed changes to a project. The change control board is part of the change management plan, which defines the roles and processes for managing change within a team or organization. The change control board must review and approve a submission for any change request that affects the scope, schedule, budget, quality, or risks of the project. The change control board evaluates the impact and benefits of the change request and decides whether to accept, reject, or defer it.

A. The implementation engineer requesting direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it bypasses the change control board and the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could compromise the project’s objectives and deliverables.

C. The information system security officer providing the systems engineer with the system updates is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board or the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could introduce security vulnerabilities or conflicts with other system components.

D. The security engineer asking the project manager to review the updates for the client’s system is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board. The project manager is responsible for facilitating the change management process, but not for approving or rejecting change requests.

https://www.projectmanager.com/blog/change-control-board-roles-responsibilities-processes

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated

Purchasing one wildcard certificate is the best solution to protect multiple websites hosted by an organization in a cloud-hosted WAF. A wildcard certificate is a type of SSL/TLS certificate that can secure a domain name and any number of its subdomains with a single certificate. For example, a wildcard certificate for *.mycompany.com can secure www.mycompany.com, campus.mycompany.com, and any other subdomain under mycompany.com. A wildcard certificate can save costs and simplify management compared to purchasing individual certificates for each website.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 301]

A SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) solution is a software platform that can automate the detection and response of known threats, such as ransomware, phishing, or denial-of-service attacks. A SOAR solution can also integrate with other security tools, such as IPS, NGFW, SIEM, and threat feeds, to provide a comprehensive and dynamic security posture. A SOAR solution would best satisfy the requirements of the online file hosting service, because it would:

• Remediate threats to customer data integrity and availability first, by automatically applying predefined actions or workflows based on the severity and type of the threat.
• Allow the environment to be dynamic to match increasing customer demands, by scaling up or down the security resources and processes as needed.
• Not interfere with customers’ ability to access their data at anytime, by minimizing the human intervention and downtime required for threat response.
• Enable security analysts to focus on high-risk items, by reducing the manual tasks and alert fatigue associated with threat detection and response.

Delivering an updated threat signature throughout the endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is the best way to take advantage of the security solution that uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. An EDR system is a solution that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, mobile devices, or servers, and detects and responds to potential threats. An EDR system can use threat signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known malicious software or attacks, to identify and block malicious activities on endpoints. By delivering an updated threat signature based on the indicators of compromise collected from the sandbox environment, the organization can enhance its EDR system’s ability to detect and prevent zero-day attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. Verified References:

• https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-endpoint-detection-response.html
• https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-a-sandbox/

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process’ memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process’ memory space.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 295]

A regular expression (regex) is a sequence of characters that defines a search pattern for matching text. A regex can be used to detect the presence of a malicious piece of software communicating with its command-and-control server by matching the indicators of compromise (IOC) in the network traffic.

In this case, the systems administrator should use the regex Host: [a-z]*.malicious.com to determine if any of the company hosts are compromised, while reducing false positives, because this regex would:

• Match the Host header in the HTTP request, which specifies the domain name of the command-and-control server.
• Allow any subdomain under the malicious.com domain, by using the character class [a-z]*, which matches zero or more lowercase letters.
• Escape the dot character in the domain name, by using the backslash , which prevents it from being interpreted as a wildcard that matches any character.
• Not match any other parts of the IOC that could change, such as the URL path, the User-Agent header, or the HTTP method.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of servers that can cache content close to end users, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery of web content, such as images, videos, and streaming media. A CDN can also handle an increase in customer demand of resources, provide high-quality streaming media, and create a user-friendly interface by reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also improve the security and availability of the website by mitigating DDoS attacks and providing redundancy. Verified References:

• https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-overview
• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Content_delivery_network

The methods that can be used to protect user internet privacy, to ensure the connection is encrypted, and to keep user activity hidden are proxy and MAC address randomization. A proxy is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and the internet, hiding the user’s IP address and location from websites and other online services. A proxy can also encrypt the connection between the user and the proxy server, preventing anyone from snooping on the user’s traffic. MAC address randomization is a feature that changes the MAC address of a mobile device periodically or when connecting to different networks. A MAC address is a unique identifier of a network interface that can be used to track the device’s location and activity. MAC address randomization can help protect the user’s privacy by making it harder for third parties to link the device to a specific user or network. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/proxy-server
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchnetworking/definition/MAC-address-randomization
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/MAC-address-Media-Access-Control-address

Aligning the impact subscore requirements to the predetermined system categorization can help the analyst get a better picture of the risk while adhering to the organization’s policy. The impact subscore is one of the components of the CVSS base score, which reflects the severity of a vulnerability. The impact subscore is calculated based on three metrics: confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These metrics can be adjusted according to the system categorization, which defines the security objectives and requirements for a system based on its potential impact on an organization’s operations and assets. By aligning the impact subscore requirements to the system categorization, the analyst can ensure that the CVSS scores reflect the true impact of a vulnerability on a specific system and prioritize remediation accordingly. 

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.

TPMs provide the ability to store measurements of code and data that can be used to ensure that code and data remain unchanged over time. This is done through Platform Configuration Registers (PCRs), which are structures used to store measurements of code and data. The measurements are taken during the boot process and can be used to compare the state of the system at different times, which can be used to detect any changes to the system and verify that the system has not been tampered with.

Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html

Software composition analysis (SCA) is the best solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future. SCA is a process of identifying the third-party and open source components in the applications of an organization. This analysis leads to the discovery of security risks, quality of code, and license compliance of the components. SCA can help the security engineer to detect and remediate any vulnerabilities in a third-party library that was exploited by the hacker, such as updating to a newer and more secure version of the library. SCA can also help to enforce secure coding practices and standards, such as following the principle of least privilege and avoiding excessive privileges for local accounts. By using SCA, the security engineer can improve the security posture and resilience of the web application assets against future attacks. Verified References:

• https://www.synopsys.com/glossary/what-is-software-composition-analysis.html
• https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/overview-of-software-composition-analysis/

E-discovery is the process of searching and collecting evidence during an investigation or lawsuit. E-discovery involves identifying, preserving, processing, reviewing, analyzing, and producing electronically stored information (ESI) that is relevant for a legal case or investigation. E-discovery can be used to find evidence in email, business communications, social media, online documents, databases, and other digital sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario

A MSA stands for master service agreement, which is a document that covers the general terms and conditions of a contractual relationship between two parties. It usually includes payment terms, limitation of liability, intellectual property rights, dispute resolution, and other clauses that apply to all services provided by one party to another. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.upcounsel.com/master-service-agreement

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

The Statement of Work is a document that outlines the scope of the penetration test and defines the objectives, tools, methodology, and targets of the test. It also outlines the security controls that will be impacted by the test and what the expected outcomes are. Additionally, the Statement of Work should include any legal requirements and other considerations that should be taken into account during the penetration test.

Utilizing watermarks in the images that are specific to each external party would best accomplish the goal of tracing back any leaked draft images. Watermarks are visible or invisible marks that can be embedded in digital images to indicate ownership, authenticity, or origin. Watermarks can also be used to identify the recipient of the image and deter unauthorized copying or distribution. If a draft image is leaked to the public, the watermark can reveal which external party was responsible for the breach.

A secrets management tool is a tool that helps companies securely store, transmit, and manage sensitive digital authentication credentials such as passwords, keys, tokens, certificates, and other secrets. A secrets management tool can help prevent secrets sprawl, enforce business policies, and inject secrets into pipelines. A secrets management tool can also help protect secrets from unauthorized access, leakage, or compromise by using encryption, tokenization, access control, auditing, and rotation. A secrets management tool is a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it can provide a centralized and consistent way to manage secrets across multiple containers and environments.

B. Saving secrets in key escrow is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the operational challenges of managing secrets for containers. Key escrow is a process of storing cryptographic keys with a trusted third party that can release them under certain conditions. Key escrow can be useful for backup or recovery purposes, but it does not provide the same level of security and automation as a secrets management tool.

C. Storing the secrets inside the Dockerfiles is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it exposes the secrets to anyone who can access the Dockerfiles or the images built from them. Storing secrets inside the Dockerfiles is equivalent to hardcoding them into the application code, which is a bad practice that violates the principle of least privilege and increases the risk of secrets leakage or compromise.

D. Running all Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is not a recommended solution for replacing the company’s monolithic software application with a containerized solution, because it does not address the issue of storing and managing secrets for containers. Running Dockerfiles in a randomized namespace is a technique to avoid name conflicts and collisions between containers, but it does not provide any security benefits for secrets.

Input validation is a technique that checks the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent many common web application attacks, such as:

• SQL injection, which exploits a vulnerability in the application’s database query to execute malicious SQL commands.
• Cross-site scripting (XSS), which injects malicious JavaScript code into the application’s web page to execute on the client-side browser.
• Directory traversal, which accesses files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

In this case, the security engineer should recommend input validation as the best mitigation technique, because it would:

• Prevent the exfiltration of a company report by validating the file parameter in the URL and ensuring that it matches a predefined list of allowed files or formats.
• Enhance the security of the web application by filtering out any malicious or invalid input from users or attackers.
• Be more effective and efficient than other techniques, such as firewall, WAF (Web Application Firewall), or DLP (Data Loss Prevention), which may not be able to detect or block all types of web application attacks.

Remote access services deployed using vendor-diverse redundancy with event response driven by playbooks is the best solution to meet the requirements. Vendor-diverse redundancy means using different vendors or technologies to provide the same service or function, which can increase the availability and resilience of the service. For example, if one vendor’s VPN solution fails due to a zero-day vulnerability, another vendor’s VPN solution can take over without affecting the users. Event response driven by playbooks means using predefined workflows or scripts to automate the actions or decisions that need to be taken in response to certain events or triggers. For example, a playbook can define how to switch between different remote access solutions based on certain criteria or conditions, such as performance, availability, security, or manual input. Playbooks can also be integrated with SOAR platforms to leverage their capabilities for orchestration, automation, and response. Verified References:

• https://cyware.com/security-guides/security-orchestration-automation-and-response/what-is-vendor-agnostic-security-orchestration-automation-and-response-soar-40e4
• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/cyberpedia/what-is-a-security-playbook

A screened subnet is a network segment that separates two different environments, such as ОТ (operational technology) and IT (information technology), and provides security controls to limit and monitor the traffic between them. This would allow the business to get the required reports from the historian server without exposing the ОТ environment to unnecessary risks. Using a VPN, allowing IT traffic, or allowing PLCs to send data are less secure options that could compromise the ОТ environment. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-operational-technology https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resou rces/casp-content-guide

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Data exposure is a security concern that will most likely need to be addressed during migration of all company data to the cloud, as it could involve sensitive or confidential data being accessed or disclosed by unauthorized parties. Data exposure could occur due to misconfigured cloud services, insecure data transfers, insider threats, or malicious attacks. Data exposure could also result in compliance violations, reputational damage, or legal liabilities. Latency is not a security concern, but a performance concern that could affect the speed or quality of data access or transmission. Data loss is not a security concern, but a availability concern that could affect the integrity or recovery of data. Data dispersion is not a security concern, but a management concern that could affect the visibility or control of data. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exposure https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

VDI (virtual desktop infrastructure), proxy, CASB (cloud access security broker), and DRM (digital rights management) are technologies that can mitigate the concerns of processing sensitive information using SaaS (software as a service) collaboration tools. VDI is a technology that provides virtualized desktop environments for users that are hosted and managed by a central server, allowing users to access applications or data from any device or location. VDI can prevent data leakage to the media via printing of documents, as it can restrict or monitor the printing capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Proxy is a technology that acts as an intermediary between clients and servers, filtering or modifying web traffic based on predefined rules or policies. Proxy can prevent data leakage to a personal email address, as it can block or redirect web requests to unauthorized or untrusted email domains or services. CASB is a technology that provides visibility and control over cloud services or applications, enforcing security policies or compliance requirements based on predefined rules or criteria. CASB can prevent data access and viewing by systems administrators, as it can encrypt or mask sensitive data before it reaches the cloud provider or application, making it unreadable or inaccessible by unauthorized parties. DRM is a technology that restricts the access, use, modification, or distribution of digital content or devices, enforcing the rights and permissions granted by the content owner or provider to authorized users or devices. DRM can prevent data upload to a file storage site, as it can limit or disable the copying, sharing, or transferring capabilities or permissions of users or devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-vdi https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Defenses against BGP hijacks include IP prefix filtering, meaning IP address announcements are sent and accepted only from a small set of well-defined autonomous systems, and monitoring Internet traffic to identify signs of abnormal traffic flows.

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

• https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html
• https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

Cgroups (control groups) is a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, such as CPU, memory, disk I/O, or network bandwidth. Cgroups can help prevent resource exhaustion scenarios on the Docker host due to a single application that is overconsuming available resources, as it can enforce quotas or priorities for each container or group of containers. Union filesystem overlay is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a technique that allows multiple filesystems to be mounted on the same mount point, creating a layered representation of files and directories. Linux namespaces is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a feature that isolates and virtualizes system resources for each process or group of processes, creating independent instances of global resources. Device mapper is not a core Linux concept that reflects the ability to limit resource allocation to containers, but a framework that provides logical volume management, encryption, or snapshotting capabilities for block devices. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cgroups https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/ca sp-content-guide

A WAF protects your web apps by filtering, monitoring, and blocking any malicious HTTP/S traffic traveling to the web application, and prevents any unauthorized data from leaving the app. It does this by adhering to a set of policies that help determine what traffic is malicious and what traffic is safe.

According to OWASP, LDAP injection is an attack that exploits web applications that construct LDAP statements based on user input without proper validation or sanitization. LDAP injection can result in unauthorized access, data modification, or denial of service. To prevent LDAP injection, OWASP recommends conducting input sanitization by escaping special characters in user input and deploying a web application firewall (WAF) that can detect and block malicious LDAP queries.45

Remotely wiping the device is the best way to secure the data on the lost device, as it would erase all the data and prevent unauthorized access. Requiring a VPN to be active to access company data may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Setting up different profiles based on the person’s risk may not prevent data loss or theft, as it depends on the level of access and encryption. Requiring MFA to access company applications may not protect the data on the device itself, as it could be stored locally or cached. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-byod https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-sou rce/resources/casp-content-guide

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

MITRE ATT&CK is a threat management framework that provides a comprehensive and detailed knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations. It can help threat hunting teams to identify, understand, and prioritize potential threats, as well as to develop effective detection and response strategies. MITRE ATT&CK covers the entire lifecycle of a cyberattack, from initial access to impact, and provides information on how to mitigate, detect, and hunt for each technique. It also includes threat actor profiles, software descriptions, and data sources that can be used for threat intelligence and analysis. Verified References:

• https://attack.mitre.org/
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/top-threat-modeling-frameworks-stride-owasp-top-10-mitre-attck-framework/
• https://www.ibm.com/topics/threat-management

A multicloud provider solution is the best option for proceeding with the digital transformation while ensuring SLA (service level agreement) requirements in the event of a CSP (cloud service provider) incident. A multicloud provider solution is a strategy that involves using multiple CSPs for different cloud services or applications, such as infrastructure, platform, or software as a service. A multicloud provider solution can provide resiliency, redundancy, and availability for cloud services or applications, as it can distribute the workload and risk across different CSPs and avoid single points of failure or vendor lock-in. An on-premises solution as a backup is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could involve high costs, complexity, or maintenance for maintaining both cloud and on-premises resources, as well as affect the scalability or flexibility of cloud services or applications. A load balancer with a round-robin configuration is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for cloud services or applications, as well as not provide sufficient resiliency or redundancy in case of a CSP incident. An active-active solution within the same tenant is not a good option for proceeding with the digital transformation, as it could still be affected by a CSP incident that impacts the entire tenant or region, as well as increase the costs or complexity of managing multiple instances of cloud services or applications. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-multicloud https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Rate limiting is a technique that can limit the number or frequency of requests that a client can make to an API (application programming interface) within a given time frame. This can help remedy the performance issues caused by high CPU utilization on the servers that host the APIs, as it can prevent excessive or abusive requests that could overload the servers. Implementing geoblocking on the WAF (web application firewall) may not help remedy the performance issues, as it could block legitimate requests based on geographic location, not on request rate. Implementing OAuth 2.0 on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as OAuth 2.0 is a protocol for authorizing access to APIs, not for limiting requests. Implementing input validation on the API may not help remedy the performance issues, as input validation is a technique for preventing invalid or malicious input from reaching the API, not for limiting requests. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rate-limiting https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Implementing cloud-based content filtering with sandboxing capabilities is the best solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form. Cloud-based content filtering is a technique that uses a cloud service to filter or block web traffic based on predefined rules or policies, preventing unauthorized or malicious access to web resources or services. Cloud-based content filtering can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can scan or analyze email attachments before they reach the mailbox and block or quarantine them if they are malicious. Sandboxing is a technique that uses an isolated or virtualized environment to execute or test suspicious or untrusted code or applications, preventing them from affecting the host system or network. Sandboxing can prevent malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it can run or detonate email attachments in a safe environment and observe their behavior or impact before allowing them to reach the mailbox. Implementing application whitelisting and adding only the email client to the whitelist for laptops in the claims processing department is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the usability or functionality of other applications on the laptops that may be needed for work purposes, as well as not prevent malicious software from running within the email client. Requiring all laptops to connect to the VPN (virtual private network) before accessing email is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could introduce latency or performance issues for accessing email, as well as not prevent malicious software from reaching or executing on the laptops. Installing a mail gateway to scan incoming messages and strip attachments before they reach the mailbox is not a good solution for preventing malicious software installation on the employee’s laptop due to opening an email attachment that appeared to be a claim form, as it could affect the normal operations or functionality of email communication, as well as not prevent legitimate attachments from reaching the mailbox. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cloud-based-content-filtering https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Replacing the current antivirus with an EDR (endpoint detection and response) solution is the best solution for addressing several service outages on the endpoints due to new malware. An EDR solution is a technology that provides advanced capabilities for detecting, analyzing, and responding to threats or incidents on endpoints, such as computers, laptops, mobile devices, or servers. An EDR solution can use behavioral analysis, machine learning, threat intelligence, or other methods to identify new or unknown malware that may evade traditional antivirus solutions. An EDR solution can also provide automated or manual remediation actions, such as isolating, blocking, or removing malware from endpoints. Removing the web proxy and installing a UTM (unified threat management) appliance is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could expose endpoints to more threats or attacks by removing a layer of protection that filters web traffic, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Implementing a deny list feature on endpoints is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could be ineffective or impractical for blocking new or unknown malware that may not be on the deny list, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Adding a firewall module on the current antivirus solution is not a good solution for addressing service outages on endpoints due to new malware, as it could introduce compatibility or performance issues for endpoints by adding an additional feature that may not be integrated or optimized with the antivirus solution, as well as not provide sufficient detection or response capabilities for endpoint-specific malware. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-edr https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-so urce/resources/casp-content-guide

OWASP is a resource used to identify attack vectors and their mitigations, OVAL is a vulnerability assessment standard

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a source that the security architect could consult to address the security concern of XSS (cross-site scripting) attacks on a web application that uses a database back end. OWASP is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications and services. OWASP publishes the OWASP Top 10 list of common web application vulnerabilities and risks, which includes XSS attacks, as well as recommendations and best practices for preventing or mitigating them. SDLC (software development life cycle) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a framework for developing software in an organized and efficient manner. OVAL (Open Vulnerability and Assessment Language) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but a standard for expressing system configuration information and vulnerabilities. IEEE (Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers) is not a source for addressing XSS attacks, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of engineering and technology. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-owasp https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information while it is at rest and in transit. PCI DSS is a standard that defines the security requirements and best practices for organizations that process, store, or transmit credit card information, such as merchants, service providers, or acquirers. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of credit card information and prevent fraud or identity theft. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an agency that develops standards, guidelines, and recommendations for various fields of science and technology, including cybersecurity. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but a regulation that defines the data protection and privacy rights and obligations for individuals and organizations in the European Union or the European Economic Area. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of science and technology, including information security. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pci-dss https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The device event logs show that the device was in two different locations (New York and London) within a short time span (one hour), which indicates impossible travel. This could be a sign of a compromised device or account. The best response action is to disable the device’s account and access while investigating the incident. Malicious installation of an application is not evident from the logs, nor is resource leak or falsified status reporting. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-impossible-travel https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

A virtual next-generation firewall (vNGFW) is a software version of a NGFW that can be deployed on cloud servers to provide advanced network security features. A vNGFW can help secure the cloud environment similarly to the infrastructure on premises by providing functions such as URL filtering, SSL/TLS inspection, deep packet inspection, antivirus, IPS, application control, and sandboxing. A web application firewall (WAF) is a device or software that filters and blocks malicious web traffic from reaching an application. A WAF can help secure the web servers in the cloud environment by protecting them from common attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on criteria such as identity, role, or function. Microsegmentation can help secure the cloud environment by isolating different types of servers and applying granular security policies to each segment.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. However, a CDN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. Software-defined WAN (SD-WAN) is a technology that uses software to manage the connectivity and routing of wide area network (WAN) traffic across multiple links or carriers. SD-WAN can help improve the reliability and efficiency of WAN connections by dynamically selecting the best path for each application based on factors such as bandwidth, latency, cost, and quality of service (QoS). However, SD-WAN does not provide the same level of security as a vNGFW or a WAF. External vulnerability scans are assessments that identify and report on the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of an IT system from an external perspective. External vulnerability scans can help improve the security posture of an IT system by providing visibility into its exposure to potential threats. However, external vulnerability scans do not provide the same level of protection as a vNGFW or a WAF. Containers are units of software that package an application and its dependencies into a standardized format that can run on any platform or environment. Containers can help improve the portability and scalability of applications by allowing them to run independently from the underlying infrastructure. However, containers do not provide the same level of security as microsegmentation. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.3: Implement solutions for the secure use of cloud services

To protect confidential financial information on a laptop that is frequently moved between locations, full disk encryption (FDE) is a strong security measure that ensures that all data on the hard drive is encrypted. This means that if the laptop is lost or stolen, the data remains inaccessible without the encryption key. Additionally, backing up the file to an encrypted flash drive provides an extra layer of security and ensures that there is a secure copy of the file in case the laptop is compromised.

The primary goal of an after-action review (AAR) is to evaluate the response to an incident critically and identify what was done well and what could be improved. An AAR is a structured review or de-brief process for analyzing what happened, why it happened, and how it can be done better by the participants and those responsible for the project or event.

The best approach to reduce the company's risk is to segregate the enterprise IT servers and supervisory industrial systems. Creating a new network segment and using a Next-Generation Firewall (NGFW) to enforce a strict segmentation policy will help to isolate the systems and protect against potential attacks. Additionally, implementing a Wireless Intrusion Detection System (WIDS) can help monitor the spectrum for unauthorized devices or interference.

SOAR solutions (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) are designed to help organizations efficiently manage security operations. They can automate the collection and analysis of security data, which improves the performance of a security operations center (SOC) by allowing the security team to focus on more strategic tasks and reduce response times to incidents.

Single-tenant architectures provide a dedicated environment for each client, which enhances data privacy since the resources are not shared with other tenants. This isolation minimizes the risk of data leakage or interference from other tenants, offering a high degree of privacy. Additionally, single-tenancy allows for full control over the database environment, including customization options tailored to specific security requirements or compliance needs, which is not always possible in a multi-tenant architecture.

HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS) is a web security policy mechanism that helps to protect websites against man-in-the-middle attacks such as protocol downgrade attacks and cookie hijacking. It allows web servers to declare that web browsers (or other complying user agents) should only interact with it using secure HTTPS connections, and never via the insecure HTTP protocol. Enabling HSTS would prevent attackers from redirecting users from a secure site to an unsecure or malicious one.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company's locations.

NetFlow logs provide visibility into network traffic patterns and volume, which can be analyzed to detect anomalies, including potential security incidents. They can be invaluable in correlating the timing and nature of network events with security incidents to better understand if there is an association.

Certificate pinning is a technique that embeds one or more trusted certificates or public keys inside an application, and verifies that any certificate presented by a server matches one of those certificates or public keys. Certificate pinning can prevent on-path attacks, such as man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks, which intercept and modify the communication between a client and a server.

Configuring certificate pinning inside the application would allow the mobile application developer to create a global, highly scalable, secure chat application that is not susceptible to on-path attacks while the user is traveling in potentially hostile regions, because it would:

• Ensure that only trusted servers can communicate with the application, by rejecting any server certificate that does not match one of the pinned certificates or public keys.
• Protect the confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of the chat messages, by preventing any attacker from intercepting, modifying, or impersonating them.
• Enhance the security of the application by reducing its reliance on external factors, such as certificate authorities (CAs), certificate revocation lists (CRLs), or online certificate status protocol (OCSP).

A spam campaign is a mass distribution of unsolicited or fraudulent emails that may contain malicious links, attachments, or requests. Spam campaigns are often used by attackers to deliver ransomware, which is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s data and demands a ransom for its decryption.

Simulating a spam campaign would allow the Chief Security Officer (CSO) to evaluate whether the training has been successful in reducing the number of successful ransomware attacks that have hit the company, because it would:

• Test the employees’ ability to recognize and avoid clicking on fake or malicious emails, which is one of the main vectors for ransomware infection.
• Measure the effectiveness of the training by comparing the click-through rate and the infection rate before and after the training.
• Provide feedback and reinforcement to the employees by informing them of their performance and reminding them of the best practices for email security.

In the context of a private cryptographic key suspected to be exposed, the best immediate action is to revoke the certificate associated with that key. Revoking the certificate ensures that it cannot be used to establish new secure sessions, which prevents attackers from using the potentially compromised key to impersonate or decrypt communications. The revocation process typically involves updating the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or leveraging the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), both of which are used by clients to check the validity of certificates.

Change management is a systematic approach to dealing with the transition or transformation of an organization's goals, processes, or technologies. In the context of implementing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution and ensuring that authorized modifications are well-planned and executed, change management is critical. It ensures that changes are introduced in a controlled and coordinated manner to minimize the impact on service quality and mitigate risks associated with the changes.

An after-action report is a document that summarizes the performance of a team during a cybersecurity incident. It is used to review all aspects of the incident response plan, including what was done correctly, what needs improvement, and how the team responded to the incident. The CISO's review of data from a cyber exercise would typically result in an after-action report, which helps in improving future responses to incidents.

In cloud computing models, the security of the physical data center is the responsibility of the Cloud Service Provider (CSP). The CSP is responsible for protecting the infrastructure that runs all of the services offered in the cloud, which includes the physical security of the data center.

A Content Delivery Network (CDN) is designed to serve content to end-users with high availability and high performance. By implementing a CDN, the company can distribute the content across multiple geographically dispersed servers, thereby reducing latency for users far from the West Coast data centers, including those on the East Coast of the United States and in Europe.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the application availability. Supporting heterogeneous architecture means using different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. This can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Ensuring cloud autoscaling is in place means using cloud services that automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to an application based on the demand or load. This can help improve scalability and performance by providing more resources when needed, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Scaling horizontally means adding more servers or nodes to an IT environment to increase its capacity or throughput. This can help improve scalability and performance by distributing the load across multiple servers, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.4: Select controls based on systems security evaluation models

Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

ssdeep is a tool that computes and matches Context Triggered Piecewise Hashing (CTPH), also known as fuzzy hashing. It can be used to identify similar files or slight variations of the same file, which may point to the creator of the file if certain patterns or markers are consistently present. This method allows for integrity checking without altering the evidence, which is critical in forensic investigation.

Record-level encryption is primarily used to protect sensitive information stored in specific fields within a database, such as personal data, financial information, or health records. This encryption method ensures that individual data entries are encrypted, providing a high level of security and privacy by making the data unreadable to unauthorized users or in the event of a database breach, while still allowing the database to be functional for authorized queries and operations.

Tokenization is the process of replacing sensitive data, like credit card numbers, with unique identification symbols (tokens) that retain all the essential information without compromising its security. This method is compliant with PCI DSS requirements as it ensures that actual credit card data is not stored or processed, thus minimizing the risk of data breaches. Tokenization also maintains confidentiality even if part of the data handling system is compromised, as the tokens do not hold any exploitable data.