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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Question and Answers

Question # 4

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

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Question # 5

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

A.

Project Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Throughout the project lifecycle

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Question # 6

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

A.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

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Question # 7

A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?

A.

Review stakeholder register and meeting

B.

Data analysis and communication skills

C.

Data gathering and data analysis

D.

Communication skills and cultural awareness

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Question # 8

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Question # 9

What tool or technique can improve a products final characteristics?

A.

Design for X (DfX)

B.

Problem solving

C.

Process analysis

D.

Risk report

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Question # 10

During a retrospective, the team finds that all of the user stories are not complete. What should be done with the incomplete user stories?

A.

Complete these user stories in the current sprint and extend the sprint length.

B.

Advance these user stories to the top of the next sprint backlog.

C.

Move these user stories back to the product backlog for reprioritization.

D.

Remove these user stories as they are not important.

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Question # 11

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager 's sphere of influence on a project?

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Question # 12

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

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Question # 13

What behavior refers to leadership style?

A.

Do things right.

B.

Do the right things

C.

Ask how and when.

D.

Rely on control

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Question # 14

A team has been tasked with designing a product to address a problem they have never faced before. The project team is struggling to get traction as the solutions are not clear. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Add the risk to the project risk register, as the lack of solutions could impact how the product is built.

B.

Add the issue to the project issue log, as it will impact the project performance.

C.

Facilitate a brainstorming session for the team to discuss ideas to solve the problem.

D.

Meet with the project sponsor to understand their vision on how to address the problem.

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Question # 15

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

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Question # 16

What tool or technique is primarily used to plan risk responses'?

A.

Risk categorization

B.

Project risk document updates

C.

Strategies for overall project risk

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 17

A company is moving from a predictive to an adaptive approach. How should the company now translate the already planned work breakdown structure (WBS) to adaptive iterations?

A.

Create a product backlog with the information depicted in the WBS and prioritize the newly developed user stories into iterations.

B.

Accept this limitation and perform accordingly since the WBS can only be used in Scrum iterations.

C.

Consider reforming the structure of the company first as it is difficult for a company to transition from predictive to adaptive methods.

D.

Save the WBS in the historical data as the information can only be used for educational purposes and not as inputs for creating user stories.

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Question # 18

An adaptive team's velocity dropped significantly in the last sprint due to the planned vacation of two team members. The project sponsor wants to know how many more sprints it would take to complete the remaining project. How should the project manager calculate the anticipated velocity for future sprints?

A.

Change the adaptive tool that the team is using to calculate velocity.

B.

Use the velocity of the last sprint, as it is the most recent one to share.

C.

Add a 30% buffer to the velocity to calculate future velocity.

D.

Calculate the average of the past five sprints to predict future velocity.

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Question # 19

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

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Question # 20

At the end of the third iteration, the project team gathers to discuss the stories to be implemented in the next iteration. What should the team do during this session?

A.

Run a spike to ensure all information available is correct and then decide which stories to implement.

B.

Develop a user story analysis based on the work done, depicting the current status, S-curve, schedule variance (SV), and planned value (PV).

C.

Plan the backlog by estimating and reprioritizing the user stories as new information becomes available.

D.

Bring up all risks for implementing the user stories and discuss possible solutions.

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Question # 21

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

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Question # 22

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

B.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery timeline.

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Question # 23

An executive sponsor wants to be briefed on how the product will change over time. Which document should the business analyst use to prepare their presentation?

A.

Project charter

B.

Product roadmap

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product requirements

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Question # 24

What type of change requires the submission of a change request?

A.

Changes in assigned resources

B.

Changes in a technical solution

C.

Changes in status reporting

D.

Changes in the project's scope

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Question # 25

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

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Question # 26

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

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Question # 27

Which of the following can a project manager use to represent dellned team member roles in a group of tasks?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

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Question # 28

What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?

A.

Critical chain method

B.

Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Project network diagram

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Question # 29

Which tools and techniques will a project manager use to develop a project charter?

A.

Project manager experience, expert judgment, scope statement, and meetings

B.

Lessons learned database. Interpersonal and team skills, cost baseline, and meetings

C.

Expert judgment, data gathering. scope statement, schedule baseline, and meetings

D.

Expert judgment, data gathering. interpersonal and team skills, and meetings

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Question # 30

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

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Question # 31

Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Project charter, business documents, and project management plan

B.

Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan

C.

Project charter, business case, and project management plan

D.

Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan

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Question # 32

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

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Question # 33

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Question # 34

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

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Question # 35

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

A.

Early requirements gathering

B.

Feedback analysis

C.

Progressive elaboration

D.

Requirements documentation

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Question # 36

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

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Question # 37

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Question # 38

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

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Question # 39

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 40

When project requirements are documented in user stones then prioritized and refined just prior to construction, which approach is being used for scheduling?

A.

Iterative scheduling with backlog

B.

On-demand scheduling

C.

Life cycle scheduling with backlog

D.

Defining Iterative activities

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Question # 41

A new project has been set. Four main stakeholders besides the project manager and four other team members have been identified. How many communication channels are available?

A.

8

B.

18

C.

36

D.

40

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Question # 42

Which tasks should a project manager perform in order to manage the project schedule effectively?

A.

Plan Schedule Management, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Define Quality of Activities. Develop Schedule

B.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Develop Schedule. Control Schedule

C.

Plan Schedule Management. Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations, Estimate Cost of Activities. Develop Schedule

D.

Define Activities. Sequence Activities, Estimate Activity Durations. Define Quality of Activities. Estimate Cost of Activities, Develop Schedule

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Question # 43

What is a tailoring consideration in Project Integration Management?

A.

Validation and control

B.

Benefits

C.

Technology support

D.

Physical location

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Question # 44

The project manager implemented the stakeholder engagement plan and realized that some uploads should be made. Which components of the project management plan should be modified?

A.

Project charter and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Risk management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Communications management plan and stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Project charter and communications management plan

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Question # 45

What communications management process enables an effective information flow among project stakeholders'?

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Question # 46

A software development team is working on a project to adapt an application to new, government-established data-privacy rules. What factor led to the creation of this project?

A.

Legal requirement

B.

New technology

C.

Social need

D.

Economic change

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Question # 47

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

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Question # 48

What can the project manager find among the factors that could lead a project to be tailored

A.

Company Culture

B.

Return on investment

C.

Earned Value

D.

Schedule Performance Index

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Question # 49

During a virtual kick-off session, the project sponsor highlights the significance of the project to the company. What message should be conveyed to the team in this meeting?

A.

Bonuses based on accomplishment criteria

B.

New working contract with more benefits

C.

Promotion opportunities with this project

D.

Assignment of key roles and responsibilities

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Question # 50

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 51

What process group establishes project scope: refines objectives, and defines the actions necessary to attain project objectives'?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 52

Recently, the government published a new tax law giving companies one year to implement the changes. A project was initiated to change the accounting system. Which delivery approach is most suitable in this context?

A.

Predictive, because of the high risk that the company can be fined.

B.

Predictive, because the requirements are clearly defined up-front.

C.

Adaptive, because the government will provide constant feedback.

D.

Adaptive, because the changes have never been implemented before.

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Question # 53

Due to organizational changes, a new product owner joins a project The product owner wants to review the process used to obtain team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.

What process should the project manager review with the product owner?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Plan Resource Management

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Control Resources

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Question # 54

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

A.

Financing, bottom-up estimating, and expert judgment

B.

Cost aggregation, analogous estimating, and financing

C.

Expert judgment, financing, and cost aggregation

D.

Expert judgment, analogous estimating, and bottom-up estimating

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Question # 55

Which project documents can determine the budget?

A.

Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates

B.

Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register

C.

Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates

D.

Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log

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Question # 56

A business analyst needs to ensure the project team understands the most critical roles and responsibilities within the requirements change process. Which responsibility is the most important?

A.

Reviewing the change

B.

Discussing the change

C.

Analyzing the change

D.

Approving the change

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Question # 57

A Scrum team has a product backlog and a sprint backlog. Which of the following is a correct statement related to these artifacts?

A.

The product backlog does not contain a prioritized list of requirements.

B.

The sprint backlog contains items to be completed during the current sprint.

C.

The sprint backlog contains the list of items prioritized by the product owner.

D.

The product backlog is a subset of the sprint backlog.

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Question # 58

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

A.

Verify product functionality.

B.

Manage the project schedule.

C.

Elicit product requirements.

D.

Allocate project resources.

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Question # 59

An organization is faced with increasing demand from the board of directors. They say budgets are flexible as long as the work gets completed.

What project management approach should the organization use?

A.

Adaptive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Iterative

D.

Predictive

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Question # 60

Which tool uses an algorithm based on historical data to calculate cost?

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Relative estimating

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Question # 61

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

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Question # 62

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

A.

Definition of done (DoD)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Velocity chart

D.

Definition of ready (DoR)

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Question # 63

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

A.

Iteration planning

B.

Retrospective

C.

Backlog refinement review

D.

Daily standup

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Question # 64

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (T&M) contract

D.

Time and material (T&M) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

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Question # 65

Which set of tools and techniques is useful for estimating activity durations for the project schedule?

A.

Brainstorming, Monte Carlo simulation, analogous estimation

B.

Three-point estimation, resources leveling, iteration burndown chart

C.

Milestone charts, parametric estimation, schedule baseline

D.

Parametric estimation, three-point estimation, meetings

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Question # 66

A product owner wants to ensure that the project's requirements, including product requirements, are met and validated. To do this project manager wants.

Match each process to its definition.

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Question # 67

Why is working in iterations usually more time-consuming than using a predictive life cycle?

A.

Timeboxing increases the time needed to accomplish tasks.

B.

Iterations are longer than the execution phase of a traditional project.

C.

Having a minimum viable product first can take more time.

D.

It takes time to understand what the project needs to deliver.

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Question # 68

Which of the following activities are included as part of a project manager's responsibilities?

A.

Direct, control, and focus on structure.

B.

Problem solve , achieve the bottom line, and focus on success.

C.

Control, maintain project status, and develop.

D.

Inspire, engage, and build relationships with people.

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Question # 69

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Question # 70

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

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Question # 71

What tool or technique is used in the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Decomposition

C.

Product analysis

D.

Prototypes

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Question # 72

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

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Question # 73

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

A.

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

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Question # 74

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

A.

Detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.

Impact analysis

D.

Duration for implementation

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Question # 75

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

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Question # 76

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure an effective requirements elicitation.

What should the business analyst do?

A.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

B.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

C.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

D.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

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Question # 77

Agile release planning provides a high-level summary timeline of the release schedule based on.

A.

Activities and story points

B.

Iteration and prioritization plans

C.

Product roadmap and the product vision

D.

Tasks and user stories

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Question # 78

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage.

What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

A.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

B.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

C.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

D.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

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Question # 79

Which of the following can a project manager conduct if they have a stakeholder who is unresponsive and/or unsupportive?

A.

Interactive communications

B.

Pull communications

C.

Push communications

D.

Communication style assessment

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Question # 80

A project team is evaluating criteria to determine project viability. Which of these activities will provide insight into making a go/no-go decision to start the project?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Cost of quality (COQ)

D.

Lessons learned

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Question # 81

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

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Question # 82

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Question # 83

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

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Question # 84

An adaptive project manager is handling a five-sprint cycle to deliver a minimum viable product (MVP). After the third sprint, the productivity of the team drops to 30% due to a change in the way the team operates.

Which of the following changes has caused this loss in productivity?

A.

Two of the team members have been working in silos using different methods to validate their performance.

B.

The team velocity was measured in the third sprint since the tool to measure velocity was introduced only in the third sprint.

C.

The team picked up technical debt items in the third sprint as technical debt can only be picked up after completing two sprints.

D.

Two of the team members were asked to do multitasking, which they did not do in the previous two sprints.

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Question # 85

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

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Question # 86

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer'?

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

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Question # 87

Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?

A.

Background, personality, and communications management plan

B.

Personality, background, and escalation process

C.

Sponsor relationship, personality and background

D.

Current emotional state, personality, and background

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Question # 88

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier's failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months. What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

A.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

B.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

C.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

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Question # 89

Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A.

Matrix diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Flowchart

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Question # 90

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 91

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Question # 92

The definition of operations is a/an:

A.

organizational function performing the temporary execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

B.

temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.

C.

organization that provides oversight for an administrative area.

D.

organizational function performing the ongoing execution of activities that produce the same product or provide repetitive service.

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Question # 93

Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A.

Cyclic

B.

Progressive

C.

Repetitive

D.

Iterative

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Question # 94

What process group includes processes performed to complete work to satisfy the project requirements defined in the project management plan?

A.

Initiating

B Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

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Question # 95

In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Project schedule

D.

Resource calendars

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Question # 96

A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:

A.

quality audits.

B.

process analysis.

C.

benchmarking.

D.

inspection.

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Question # 97

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

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Question # 98

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Question # 99

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

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Question # 100

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

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Question # 101

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

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Question # 102

What is one of the main purposes of the project charter?

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definilion of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Question # 103

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

A.

Project Management

B.

Program Management

C.

Portfolio Management

D.

Operations Management

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Question # 104

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

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Question # 105

In a functional organization, the director of an important stakeholder business group expressed concern to a line manager about the progress of the project. What should the line manager do next?

A.

Hold a face-to-face meeting with the project manager and warn them.

B.

Point the director to a link where they can take a look at the reports.

C.

Invite stakeholders to attend monthly progress review meetings.

D.

Ask the project manager to update the monthly status report distribution list.

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Question # 106

A project manager has to share a status report with a new stakeholder and is trying to determine the level of detail to include in the report. Which document best details the information the project manager needs lo make this decision?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Change management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 107

The project manager is working in an agile/adaptive environment. The project manager is considering different approaches for applying Project Integration Management in this environment. How can the project manager ensure that this will work for the project?

A.

Take control of all decisions and product planning.

B.

Build a team that can respond to changes within a collaborative, decision-making environment.

C.

Promote a team with a narrow specialization within a hierarchical environment.

D.

Delegate project decisions to the product owner and sponsor.

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Question # 108

Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

A.

strategic plan

B.

project

C.

portfolio

D.

program

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Question # 109

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 110

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Question # 111

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

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Question # 112

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

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Question # 113

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Question # 114

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Question # 115

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A.

Level of control.

B.

Communication channels.

C.

Scope.

D.

Strategic alignment.

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Question # 116

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Question # 117

In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A.

Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B.

Contain the standard activity list.

C.

Document and support the project change requests.

D.

Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

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Question # 118

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Question # 119

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 120

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

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Question # 121

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

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Question # 122

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 123

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

5

B.

9

C.

12

D.

14

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Question # 124

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Question # 125

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Question # 126

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 127

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

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Question # 128

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Question # 129

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 130

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Question # 131

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 132

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Question # 133

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 134

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

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Question # 135

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

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Question # 136

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Question # 137

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

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Question # 138

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

A.

Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled

B.

Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs

C.

Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities

D.

Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

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Question # 139

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A.

-2,000

B.

0

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Question # 140

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Context diagram

C.

Control chart

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 141

The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A.

organizational process assets

B.

a requirements traceability matrix

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Question # 142

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Question # 143

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Question # 144

The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A.

Close Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Plan Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

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Question # 145

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Question # 146

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Question # 147

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

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Question # 148

Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?

A.

Schedule network analysis

B.

Reserve analysis

C.

Alternative analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 149

Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:

A.

project management office

B.

portfolio manager

C.

program manager

D.

project manager

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Question # 150

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Question # 151

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Question # 152

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

A.

Verified deliverables.

B.

Validated deliverables.

C.

Acceptance criteria.

D.

Activity resource requirements.

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Question # 153

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Question # 154

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

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Question # 155

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Question # 156

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Question # 157

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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Question # 158

The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Plan Scope Management.

C.

Control Scope.

D.

Define Scope.

Full Access
Question # 159

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Question # 160

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A.

Activity network diagrams

B.

Affinity diagrams

C.

Matrix diagrams

D.

Interrelationship digraphs

Full Access
Question # 161

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

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Question # 162

Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:

A.

Cost management plan.

B.

Work performance information.

C.

Quality management plan.

D.

Work breakdown structure.

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Question # 163

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

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Question # 164

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Question # 165

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 166

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Full Access
Question # 167

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Question # 168

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

Full Access
Question # 169

Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:

A.

Organizational process assets and the project charter,

B.

Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.

C.

Time tables and Pareto diagrams.

D.

Activity attributes and resource calendars.

Full Access
Question # 170

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

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Question # 171

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Question # 172

Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A.

Pareto diagram

B.

Performance reporting

C.

SWOT analysis

D.

Expert judgment

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Question # 173

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

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Question # 174

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Full Access
Question # 175

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 176

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 177

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

Full Access
Question # 178

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Question # 179

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 180

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Full Access
Question # 181

Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A.

Change request

B.

Requirements documentation

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Risk urgency assessment

Full Access
Question # 182

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Full Access
Question # 183

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Full Access
Question # 184

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 185

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 186

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Full Access
Question # 187

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Full Access
Question # 188

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Full Access
Question # 189

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

Full Access
Question # 190

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Full Access
Question # 191

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Full Access
Question # 192

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Full Access
Question # 193

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Full Access
Question # 194

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

Full Access
Question # 195

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Full Access
Question # 196

Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A.

Project Risk Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Stakeholder Management

Full Access
Question # 197

An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

A.

Nominal group technique.

B.

Majority.

C.

Affinity diagram.

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Full Access
Question # 198

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

Full Access
Question # 199

Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?

A.

Organizational process updates

B.

Quality metrics

C.

Change requests

D.

Quality control measurements

Full Access
Question # 200

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

Full Access
Question # 201

The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:

A.

Human resource management plan.

B.

Activity resource requirements.

C.

Personnel assessment tools,

D.

Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Full Access
Question # 202

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

Full Access
Question # 203

Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 204

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

Full Access
Question # 205

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 206

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Full Access
Question # 207

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Full Access
Question # 208

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

Full Access
Question # 209

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Full Access
Question # 210

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 211

Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?

A.

Independent estimates

B.

Market research

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Bidder conferences

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Question # 212

The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A.

A risk urgency assessment.

B.

The scope baseline.

C.

Work performance information.

D.

Procurement audits.

Full Access
Question # 213

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

Full Access
Question # 214

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 215

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 216

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Full Access
Question # 217

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

Full Access
Question # 218

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 219

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

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Question # 220

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Full Access
Question # 221

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A.

Market conditions and published commercial information

B.

Company structure and market conditions

C.

Commercial information and company structure

D.

Existing human resources and market conditions

Full Access
Question # 222

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Full Access
Question # 223

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

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Question # 224

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A.

Coaching

B.

Avoidance

C.

Consensus

D.

Influencing

Full Access
Question # 225

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

Full Access
Question # 226

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

Full Access
Question # 227

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

Full Access
Question # 228

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A.

Intuitive

B.

Iterative

C.

Measured

D.

Monitored

Full Access
Question # 229

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A.

Product performance.

B.

Budget process.

C.

Collective capabilities.

D.

Organizational strategy.

Full Access
Question # 230

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

Full Access
Question # 231

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 232

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?

A.

US$158,700

B.

US$172,500

C.

US$187,500

D.

US$245,600

Full Access
Question # 233

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Full Access
Question # 234

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A.

formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B.

accuracy of the work deliverables.

C.

formalizing approval of the scope statement.

D.

accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Full Access
Question # 235

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

Full Access
Question # 236

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Full Access
Question # 237

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Full Access
Question # 238

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Full Access
Question # 239

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Full Access
Question # 240

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Full Access
Question # 241

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

Full Access
Question # 242

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

Full Access
Question # 243

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Full Access
Question # 244

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

Full Access
Question # 245

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Full Access
Question # 246

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A.

Complete project phase

B.

Project life

C.

The project life cycle

D.

Project cycle

Full Access
Question # 247

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

Full Access
Question # 248

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A.

Plan Procurements.

B.

Control Procurements.

C.

Close Procurements.

D.

Conduct Procurements.

Full Access
Question # 249

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 250

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

Full Access
Question # 251

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Full Access
Question # 252

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

Full Access
Question # 253

The Human Resource Management processes are:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 254

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Risk category

Full Access
Question # 255

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A.

At project initiation

B.

During work performance analysis

C.

Throughout the life of the project

D.

At project milestones

Full Access
Question # 256

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Full Access
Question # 257

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

Full Access
Question # 258

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

Full Access
Question # 259

The product scope description is used to:

A.

Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B.

Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.

C.

Describe the project in great detail.

D.

Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Full Access
Question # 260

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Full Access
Question # 261

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

Full Access
Question # 262

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 263

An output of Control Schedule is:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

Full Access
Question # 264

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

change requests

B.

team performance assessments

C.

project staff assignments

D.

project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 265

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Full Access
Question # 266

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

Full Access
Question # 267

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

Full Access
Question # 268

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A.

Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.

B.

Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.

C.

Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.

D.

Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Full Access
Question # 269

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B.

Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule

C.

Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs

D.

Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Full Access
Question # 270

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 271

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Full Access
Question # 272

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

Full Access
Question # 273

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

Full Access
Question # 274

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Full Access
Question # 275

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Full Access
Question # 276

What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?

A.

Oversight for an administrative area; a facet of the core business

B.

Achieving the project objectives; providing management oversight for an administrative area

C.

A facet of the core business; achieving the project objectives

D.

Both are responsible for achieving the project objectives.

Full Access
Question # 277

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 278

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

Full Access
Question # 279

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

Full Access
Question # 280

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Full Access
Question # 281

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

Full Access
Question # 282

The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors.

B.

Historical information,

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Corporate knowledge base.

Full Access
Question # 283

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

Full Access
Question # 284

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 285

The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:

A.

expert judgment.

B.

rolling wave planning.

C.

work performance information.

D.

specification.

Full Access
Question # 286

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Full Access
Question # 287

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

Full Access
Question # 288

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Full Access
Question # 289

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 290

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 291

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Full Access
Question # 292

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

Full Access
Question # 293

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

Full Access
Question # 294

"Tailoring" is defined as the:

A.

effort of addressing each process to determine which are appropriate and their appropriate degree of rigor.

B.

act of creating a project team with the specialized skills required to produce a required product or service.

C.

action taken to bring a defective or nonconforming component into compliance with requirements or specifications.

D.

adjustment of the respective influences of time, cost, and quality in order to most efficiently achieve scope.

Full Access
Question # 295

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

Full Access
Question # 296

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Full Access
Question # 297

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Full Access
Question # 298

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

Full Access
Question # 299

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

Full Access
Question # 300

Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?

A.

Influence diagrams

B.

Brainstorming

C.

Assumption analysis

D.

SWOT analysis

Full Access
Question # 301

Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?

A.

Program Management Body of Knowledge Guide

B.

The Standard for Program Management

C.

Organizational Project Management Maturity Model (OPM3$)

D.

Guide to the Project Management Body of Knowledge (PMBOK®)

Full Access
Question # 302

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Full Access
Question # 303

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Full Access
Question # 304

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

Full Access
Question # 305

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Full Access
Question # 306

Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Precedence diagramming method (PDM)

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Parametric estimating

Full Access
Question # 307

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Full Access
Question # 308

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

Full Access
Question # 309

Which of the following Process Groups covers all nine Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A.

Executing

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

Full Access
Question # 310

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

Full Access
Question # 311

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Full Access
Question # 312

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 313

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Full Access
Question # 314

Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A.

Cause and effect diagram

B.

Control charts

C.

Pareto chart

D.

Histogram

Full Access
Question # 315

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

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Question # 316

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Question # 317

Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Updated project charter

C.

Approved change request

D.

Multicriteria decision analysis

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Question # 318

The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A.

Plan Communications.

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

C.

Stakeholder Analysis.

D.

Identify Stakeholders.

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Question # 319

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 320

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Question # 321

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

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Question # 322

Project management processes ensure the:

A.

alignment with organizational strategy

B.

efficient means to achieve the project objectives

C.

performance of the project team

D.

effective flow of the project throughout its life cycle

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Question # 323

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

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Question # 324

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

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Question # 325

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

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Question # 326

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

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Question # 327

The project leam is brainstorming on approaches to deliver the upcoming product launch for which the project has been chartered. The project manager is laying out hybrid, adaptive, iterative methods. What is the team trying to address?

A.

Co-location

B.

Lite-cycle

C.

Diversity

D.

Management

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Question # 328

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

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Question # 329

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Acquire Resources

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Question # 330

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

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Question # 331

How is the Project Scope Management process different in agile and adaptive projects then in traditional projects?

A.

Less time spent on defining scope early on

B.

More time spent on defining scope early on

C.

Less time spent on scope management process

D.

Project scope management is the same in all projects

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Question # 332

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Question # 333

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

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Question # 334

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Question # 335

In which sphere of influence is the project manager demonstrating the value of project management and advancing the efficacy of the project management office (PMO)?

A.

The organization

B.

The project

C.

The industry

D.

The product

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Question # 336

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Question # 337

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

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Question # 338

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Question # 339

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Question # 340

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

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Question # 341

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Question # 342

In an agile and adaptive project, which scope management entity invokes stakeholder engagement?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Create work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Scope Baseline

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Question # 343

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Question # 344

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 345

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

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Question # 346

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Question # 347

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Question # 348

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 349

Who is responsible for initiating a project?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office (PMO)

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Question # 350

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 351

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?

A.

Accepted deliverables

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Managing stakeholder expectations

D.

Performance reports

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Question # 352

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 353

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 354

What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?

A.

Insufficient project funding and disqualification of sellers

B.

Insufficient project funding and ineffective use of resources

C.

Disqualification of sellers and non-productive management efforts

D.

Non-productive management effort and inefficient use of resources

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Question # 355

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Question # 356

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Question # 357

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

Full Access
Question # 358

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 359

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

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Question # 360

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Create WBS.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 361

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Question # 362

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Question # 363

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Question # 364

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

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Question # 365

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

Full Access
Question # 366

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?

A.

Corrective action

B.

Defect repair

C.

Preventative action

D.

Probable action

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Question # 367

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 368

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 369

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 370

Resource calendars are included in the:

A.

staffing management plan.

B.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

C.

project communications plan.

D.

project charter.

Full Access
Question # 371

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 372

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 373

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 374

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

C.

Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

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Question # 375

The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A.

minus planned value [EV - PV].

B.

minus actual cost [EV - AC].

C.

divided by planned value [EV/PV],

D.

divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Full Access
Question # 376

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 377

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Activity resource requirements

C.

Resource calendar

D.

Project staff assignments

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Question # 378

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 379

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 380

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 381

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Question # 382

An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:

A.

stakeholder register.

B.

project management plan.

C.

project scope statement.

D.

requirements management plan.

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Question # 383

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 384

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 385

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 386

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

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Question # 387

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 388

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 389

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?

A.

Performance measure

B.

Baseline schedule

C.

Schedule network analysis

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 390

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 391

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Question # 392

Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A.

Mitigate

B.

Transfer

C.

Exploit

D.

Avoid

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Question # 393

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 394

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Question # 395

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Question # 396

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 397

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Question # 398

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A.

manager.

B.

success.

C.

deadline.

D.

scope.

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Question # 399

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Full Access