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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Question and Answers

Question # 4

What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?

A.

$50

B.

$100

C.

$125

D.

$175

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Question # 5

Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Monitor and Control Risks

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Question # 6

Project governance refers to framework.......which of the following is a portfolio?

Pioject governance refers lo framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activates with a defined hierarchy between projects, programs and poctfotos. According to this hierarchy, which ot Die following is a portfolio?

A.

A portfolio is a group of projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios and operations managed together to achieve strategic objectives.

B.

A portfolio is the mam project of the company, supervised directly by the CEO.

C.

A portfolio is a group of projects managed by the same project manager.

D.

A portfolio is a group of related proiecls, programs, subsidary portfolios, and operation*, thai provides similar products or services.

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Question # 7

Which statement is related to the project manager ' s sphere of influence at the organizational level?

A.

A project manager interacts with other project managers to detect common interests and impacts between their projects.

B.

A project manager facilitates communication between the suppliers and contractors on the project.

C.

A project manager considers the current industry trends and evaluates how they can impact or be applied to the project.

D.

A project manager may inform other professionals about the value of project management.

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Question # 8

Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A.

Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B.

Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4

C.

Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6

D.

Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

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Question # 9

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

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Question # 10

Which is an example of an internal enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Market Share brand recognition

B.

Factory location

C.

Local government regulation

D.

Industry research

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Question # 11

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 12

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

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Question # 13

Where are key project deliverables documented?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

User acceptance criteria

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Question # 14

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 15

Which of these is true project integration management?

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects

B.

Project Integration Management and Expert Judgement are mutually exclusive

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero

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Question # 16

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 17

Which item is an example of personnel assessment?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Tight matrix

C.

Team-building activity

D.

Focus group

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Question # 18

What should be the frequency for meetings when transitioning from Scrum to Kanban?

A.

Weekly

B.

Daily

C.

When required

D.

Monthly

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Question # 19

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Question # 20

What benefit does the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process offer?

A.

Allows the project manager to increase support and minimize resistance from stakeholders

B.

Maintains or increases the efficiency and effectiveness of stakeholder engagement activities as the project evolves and its environment changes

C.

Provides an actionable plan to interact effectively with stakeholders

D.

Enables the project team to identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder or group of stakeholders

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Question # 21

Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 22

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Question # 23

A program consists of four agile teams. Each team has a separate daily standup. Later each day, there is another standup meeting attended by one member from each team.

Which Scrum technique is this?

A.

Scaled Agile Framework (SAFe®)

B.

Disciplined Agile® (DA™)

C.

Large Scale Scrum (LeSS)

D.

Scrum of Scrums

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Question # 24

Which of the following are components of the project management plan?

A.

Scope management plan, scope baseline, risk management plan, and configuration managemet plan

B.

Scope management plan, issue log, risk register and project schedule network diagram

C.

Scope management plan, schedule baseline, milestone list, and assumption log

D.

Scope management plan, cost estimates, duration estimates, and resource calenders

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Question # 25

A project manager is determining the amount of contingency needed for a project. Which analysis is the project manager using?

A.

What-if scenario analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 26

A stakeholder asked the project manager to add an additional feature to the project scope. The project manager is unsure whether the project budget will allow this additional scope.

What component of the project management plan should the project manager reference to determine whether the budget will allow a new feature to be added?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Cost estimate

C.

Risk register

D.

Cost management plan

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Question # 27

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders ' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

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Question # 28

Project reporting is a tool that is most closely associated with which process?

A.

Communicate Plan

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Report Performance

D.

Control Communications

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Question # 29

Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?

A.

The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval.

B.

The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule.

C.

The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems.

D.

The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project.

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Question # 30

A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

A.

Start-to-start (SS).

B.

Start-to-finish (SF).

C.

Finish-to-start (FS).

D.

Finish-to-finish (FF).

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Question # 31

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

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Question # 32

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

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Question # 33

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Question # 34

Which scenario is most desirable during the execution phase of a project?

A.

Apply and use quality controls to ensure expectations are met throughout the project

B.

Communicate quality failures to the sponsor for feedback

C.

Conduct all quality inspections at the end of the project

D.

Only correct quality issues found if it will keep you within the budget

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Question # 35

In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?

A.

Planning

B.

Closing

C.

Executing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 36

The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.

Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

6

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Question # 37

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Question # 38

The project manager is leading a construction project that has been ongoing for eight years. The project manager needs to calculate the correct static payback period and consults the cash flow statement of the construction project investment.

What equation should the project manager use?

Cash Flow Statement of the Project Investment Unit: US$ Billion

Period: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Cash inflow: 0, 0, 0, 0, 1200, 1200, 1200, 1200

Cash outflow: 0, 700, 800, 500, 700, 700, 700, 700, 700

Net cash flow (NCF): 0, -700, -800, 300, 500, 500, 500, 500, 500

Accumulative total of net cash flow: 0, -700, -1500, -1200, -700, -200, 300, 800, 1300

A.

Static payback period = 3 + |-1200| / 500 = 5.4

B.

Static payback period = 6 + |300| / 500 = 6.6

C.

Static payback period = 5 + |-200| / 500 = 5.4

D.

Static payback period = 4 + |-700| / 500 = 5.4

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Question # 39

Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Decomposition

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 40

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

A.

Financing, bottom-up estimating, and expert judgment

B.

Cost aggregation, analogous estimating, and financing

C.

Expert judgment, financing, and cost aggregation

D.

Expert judgment, analogous estimating, and bottom-up estimating

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Question # 41

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

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Question # 42

A project manager needs information to finish their work on the project charter for a clinical trial.

Which procedure is used to obtain the requirements information?

A.

Forecasting

B.

Simulations

C.

Elicitation

D.

Quantitative analysis

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Question # 43

What are the two most common contract types used in a project?

A.

Cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract and fixed price contract

B.

Fixed price contract and cost-reimbursable contract

C.

Cost-reimbursable contract and time and material (TandM) contract

D.

Time and material (TandM) contract and cost plus award fee (CPAF) contract

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Question # 44

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client ' s overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization ' s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Question # 45

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Question # 46

A practitioner organized a requirements workshop with the client ' s frontline application users. The users explained that one of the challenges of the current application is that they must click on each input before entering data, which happens thousands of times a day.

Which technique did the practitioner use to identify this pain point?

A.

System thinking

B.

User acceptance testing

C.

Decision-making

D.

Active listening

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Question # 47

A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?

A.

US$S000

B.

US$9500

C.

US$10,000

D.

US$12,500

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Question # 48

A company has implemented an adaptive project management framework for a new project. When planning for an iteration, how should risks be addressed? Choose two.

A.

Risks should be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

B.

Risks should be tailored for each iteration.

C.

Risks should be identified, analyzed, and managed during each iteration.

D.

Risks should be documented prior to each iteration.

E.

Risks should be reviewed only once during each iteration.

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Question # 49

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?

A.

Functional managers and manager of project managers

B.

Functional managers only

C.

Project managers only

D.

Technical managers and project managers

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Question # 50

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 51

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Question # 52

Who should the stakeholders consult to discuss concerns about the current work package?

A.

Project manager

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project coordinator

D.

Project sponsor

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Question # 53

A project manager needs to determine the schedule variance (SV). The project manager ' s latest schedule indicates 14 units of work completed against a plan of 23 units.

What is the SV?

A.

-9

B.

37

C.

9

D.

322

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Question # 54

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

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Question # 55

What is a tool to improve team performance?

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

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Question # 56

A project manager has been assigned to a project with a short duration and given funding to form a small team. The project manager needs to choose team members based on their availability and other aspects.

What other features should the project manager consider?

A.

Skill set, expertise, and training readiness

B.

Past project performance, wage rate, and network base

C.

Collaborative skills, quality focus, and political connections

D.

Priorities, resource demand, and expertise

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Question # 57

Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A.

Control

B.

Bar

C.

Flow

D.

Pareto

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Question # 58

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Question # 59

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

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Question # 60

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

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Question # 61

Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?

A.

Influence/impact grid

B.

Power/influence grid

C.

Power/interest grid

D.

Salience model

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Question # 62

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Question # 63

Which conflict resolution technique produces the most lasting results?

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth/accommodate

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Question # 64

What is the first step in the Stakeholder Management process?

A.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Identify Stakeholders

C.

Manage Stakeholder Responsibility

D.

Monitor Stakeholder Activity

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Question # 65

Which of the following correctly explains the term " progressive elaboration ' ?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Question # 66

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Question # 67

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

A.

-2,000

B.

-1,000

C.

1,000

D.

2,000

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Question # 68

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

A.

Detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.

Impact analysis

D.

Duration for implementation

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Question # 69

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

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Question # 70

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Question # 71

Given the following information.

Activity A takes one week.

Activity B takes three weeks.

Activity C takes two weeks.

Activity D takes five weeks.

Activity A starts at the same time as Activity B.

Activity C follows Activity B and Activity A.

Activity D follows Activity C.

How long will it take to complete the project?

A.

Eleven weeks

B.

Nine weeks

C.

Eight weeks

D.

Ten weeks

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Question # 72

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 73

An employee was hired to work on ongoing, repetitive activities in the accounting department. The employee ' s duties are managing and controlling day-to-day activities. Which type of managing is the employee performing?

A.

Strategic

B.

Finance

C.

Project

D.

Operations

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Question # 74

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Question # 75

During the execution of a project, a stakeholder asks a project manager whether the project is falling behind or ahead of its baseline schedule. The project manager calculates the earned value analysis (EVA) schedule variance and it comes out to be zero. Which of the following is correct about the EVA schedule variance?

A.

It is calculated incorrectly, as it cannot be zero for an in-flight project; otherwise the project is completed.

B.

Change it to a negative value to show that the project is falling behind.

C.

Zero is a perfectly valid value for an in-flight project; hence share the zero value with the stakeholder.

D.

Change it to a positive value to show that the project is ahead of its baseline schedule.

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Question # 76

Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Plan Quality

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 77

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Question # 78

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Question # 79

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

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Question # 80

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Question # 81

Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A.

Cost risk simulation analysis

B.

Expected monetary value analysis

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Sensitivity analysis

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Question # 82

Which of the following is used as input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Question # 83

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

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Question # 84

During the planning phase, a project manager must create a work breakdown structure (WBS) to improve management of the project ' s components. What should be included in the WBS?

A.

Activity dependencies

B.

Work package risks

C.

Description of work

D.

Resource estimates

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Question # 85

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 86

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A.

Develop Project Management Plan

B.

Develop Project Charter

C.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 87

A new project manager wishes to recommend creating a project management office to senior management. Which statement would the project manager use to describe the Importance of creating the project management office?

A.

It will give the project manager Independence to make decisions without other departmental input.

B.

It Integrates organizational data and information to ensure that strategic objectives are fulfilled.

C.

The project management office can execute administrative tasks.

D.

The project management office can coordinate projects.

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Question # 88

In addition to the project charter, what other artifact is produced as a result of the Develop Project Charter process ' ?

A.

Assumption log

B.

Milestone list

C.

Business case

D.

Risk register

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Question # 89

A project was sent for early customer testing and the customer reported that some of the features do not features do not meet the requirements. What should the project manager have done to avoid this scenario?

A.

Engage customer earlier

B.

Conduct quality audits

C.

Validate Scope

D.

Validate quality requirements

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Question # 90

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Question # 91

When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A.

Interactive communication

B.

Claims administration

C.

Conflict management

D.

Performance reporting

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Question # 92

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 93

Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Initiating

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Question # 94

A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:

A.

triangular distribution

B.

tornado diagram

C.

beta distribution

D.

fishbone diagram

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Question # 95

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Question # 96

What is one reason why stakeholders must be identified when performing business analysis?

A.

To identify project timelines through business reviews

B.

To allow the business analyst to determine the project budget

C.

To identify who should define the business requirements for the project

D.

To determine a cost-benefit analysis for the project

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Question # 97

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Question # 98

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 99

A new game development process must have three versions. Each version is to be developed in approximately five iteration cycles with a duration of one month each. This will help this small enterprise to have a return on investment (ROI) as the project runs from the first cycle. Which methodology should the project manager adopt and implement in the project?

A.

Feature-driven development (FDD) as it will deliver product segments and the milestones are controlled by the development manager.

B.

Kanban as it will provide flexibility to the team for working at their own pace in the time frame requested.

C.

Scrum as it uses sprints and retrospectives, maximizing time delivery and the value of the product.

D.

Extreme Programming (XP) as it will help deliver more quickly since developers will work in pairs.

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Question # 100

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Question # 101

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

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Question # 102

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

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Question # 103

Which of the following is used to classify stakeholders based on their assessments of power, urgency, and legitimacy?

A.

Power interest grid

B.

Stakeholder cube

C.

Salience model

D.

Directions of influence

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Question # 104

It you established a contingency reserve including time, money, and resources, how are you handling risk?

A.

Accepting

B.

Transferring

C.

Avoiding

D.

Mitigating

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Question # 105

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 106

Which of the following items is a technique for data gathering?

A.

Facilitation

B.

Meeting management

C.

Conflict management

D.

Interviews

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Question # 107

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

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Question # 108

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Question # 109

In the business analysis aspect of a construction project, what is the purpose of the requirements validation process?

A.

Ensures a thorough unit test case coverage

B.

Ensures an accurate reflection of the stakeholders ' intentions

C.

Ensures that the business problem is solved

D.

Ensures the successful delivery of business value

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Question # 110

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Question # 111

Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?

A.

Project Plan

B.

Responsibility Matrix

C.

Issue Log

D.

Scope Document

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Question # 112

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 113

What is an emerging practice in stakeholder engagement?

A.

Confirming that all identified stakeholders are engaged and actually affected by the work

B.

Assuring that team leadership is primarily involved in stakeholder engagement

C.

Ensuring that stakeholders do not change after stakeholder identification

D.

Ensuring that stakeholders most affected by the work are involved as collaborative team partners

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Question # 114

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

A.

50-75%

B.

25-50%

C.

75-100%

D.

0-25%

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Question # 115

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

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Question # 116

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

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Question # 117

How does planning for prevention costs assist in meeting stakeholder needs and expectations, while still providing required performance and reliability?

A.

It details product or service failures experienced by the customer

B.

It clarifies the costs associated with assessing the quality of the product or service

C.

It accounts for costs used to avoid poor quality in the product or service

D.

It communicates product or service failures discovered by the project team

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Question # 118

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager. What should the project manager do to address this issue?

A.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

B.

Apply emotional intelligence (EI) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team ' s issues.

C.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

D.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

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Question # 119

Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?

A.

Limited

B.

Low to moderate

C.

Moderate to high

D.

High to almost total

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Question # 120

During a project team meeting, one of the team members suggested a product functionality that would immensely benefit the customer. The project manager documents the request for later analysis.

What is this an example of?

A.

Monitoring the traceability matrix

B.

Managing the scope

C.

Maintaining the product backlog

D.

Managing the cost benefit

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Question # 121

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A.

appetite

B.

tolerance

C.

threshold

D.

management

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Question # 122

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Question # 123

Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A.

Change control tools

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Delphi technique

D.

Change log

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Question # 124

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Question # 125

Which sentence summarizes the salience model?

A.

Classifies stakeholders based on assessment of their power, urgency and legitimacy

B.

A chart in which the Stakeholders are ropiosented as dots according to then level ol power and influence

C.

A three-dimensional model that ran be useful to engage the stakeholder community

D.

Classifies stakeholders and the project toam by the impact of their work in the project

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Question # 126

What communication methods would a project manager use for overall effective project communication?

A.

Interactive communication, push communication, interpersonal communication

B.

Interactive communication, push communication, pull communication

C.

Push communication, pull communication, interpersonal communication

D.

Pull communication, interactive communication, interpersonal communication

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Question # 127

When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:

A.

realigned.

B.

performed.

C.

improved.

D.

controlled.

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Question # 128

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 129

What process is performed periodically throughout the project as needed?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Plan Resource Management

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Question # 130

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

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Question # 131

When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?

A.

Authority

B.

Role

C.

Competency

D.

Responsibility

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Question # 132

The project manager and the project team are in the process of documenting procurement decisions. Which of the following will be the procurement strategy?

A.

Payment types, delivery methods, and procurement phases

B.

Procurement metrics, make-or-buy decisions, and procurement statement of work

C.

Vendor selection criteria, stakeholder roles and responsibilitys, and prequalified sellers

D.

Timetable procurement activities, product cost, and knowledge transfer schedule

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Question # 133

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

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Question # 134

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

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Question # 135

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 136

The project manager is creating the communications management plan Which group of inputs Is required to begin?

A.

Work performance reports, change requests, and risk register

B.

Work performance data, project documents, and stakeholder engagement plan

C.

Project charter, project management plan, and project documents

D.

Work performance data, stakeholder register, and team management plan

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Question # 137

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Project scope statement.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 138

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

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Question # 139

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A.

Result

B.

Product

C.

Service

D.

Improvement

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Question # 140

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Question # 141

Which items are components of a project management plan?

A.

Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan

B.

Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information

C.

Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars

D.

Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

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Question # 142

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Full Access
Question # 143

Which set of tools and techniques is useful for estimating activity durations for the project schedule?

A.

Brainstorming, Monte Carlo simulation, analogous estimation

B.

Three-point estimation, resources leveling, iteration burndown chart

C.

Milestone charts, parametric estimation, schedule baseline

D.

Parametric estimation, three-point estimation, meetings

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Question # 144

Which of the following lists of tools and techniques is used when conducting procurements?

A.

Expert judgement, procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation advertising and independent estimates

B.

Budgeting procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and seller ' s proposal C. Expert judgement, procurement negotiations bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising, and make-or-buy decisions

C.

Agreements procurement negotiations, bidder conferences, proposal evaluation and advertising selected seller

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Question # 145

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Question # 146

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

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Question # 147

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

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Question # 148

When planning communications management what input identifies key stakeholders?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project schedule

C.

Project charter

D.

Work performance reports

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Question # 149

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 150

A project manager has recently been assigned a new agile project and needs to determine an appropriate leadership style. The project manager aims to empower the team members so they feel committed and motivated to deliver value.

Which leadership style should be used for this project?

A.

A servant leadership style

B.

A laissez-faire leadership style

C.

A collaborative leadership style

D.

A directive leadership style

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Question # 151

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Question # 152

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

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Question # 153

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A.

Functional managers

B.

Business partners

C.

Customers or sponsors

D.

Subject matter experts

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Question # 154

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

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Question # 155

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

A.

Burndown chart

B.

Velocity chart

C.

Definition of ready (DoR)

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

Full Access
Question # 156

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Question # 157

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

Full Access
Question # 158

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (TandM)

Full Access
Question # 159

Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?

A.

Nominal group technique

B.

Idea/mind mapping

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

Full Access
Question # 160

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

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Question # 161

What is the purpose of the project management process groups?

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

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Question # 162

Which of the following answers includes an input, a technique, and an output of the Plan Stakeholders Engagement process?

A.

Project management plan, data gathering, and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Business documents, meetings, and stakeholder register

C.

Organizational process assets, data gathering, and project document updates

D.

Project management plan, data analysis, and change requests

Full Access
Question # 163

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

Full Access
Question # 164

How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?

A.

Keep satisfied

B.

Keep informed

C.

Manage closely

D.

Monitor

Full Access
Question # 165

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

Resource availability

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Team performance assessment

Full Access
Question # 166

While working in an adaptive environment, a business analyst is collaborating with other roles in drafting a product roadmap. Which three roles are involved in establishing the product roadmap? (Choose three)

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Portfolio manager

C.

End user

D.

Program manager

E.

Internal inspector

Full Access
Question # 167

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager ' s sphere of influence on a project?

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

Full Access
Question # 168

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

Full Access
Question # 169

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 170

What is the process of ensuring that project resources are assigned and available?

A.

Control Procurements

B.

Acquire Resources

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Procurement Management

Full Access
Question # 171

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

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Question # 172

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

Full Access
Question # 173

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Question # 174

In one of the project meetings during project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

B.

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

C.

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

D.

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

Full Access
Question # 175

What is purpose of using the building information model (BIM) in software tools in the construction field?

A.

Reduce significant amount of time and money

B.

Help manage risks in large projects

C.

Keep up with emerging trends

D.

Provide sellers with multiple sources for documents

Full Access
Question # 176

What is an example of a technical project management skill?

A.

Managing a project schedule

B.

Developing a project delivery strategy

C.

Establishing a project team

D.

Understanding organizational objectives

Full Access
Question # 177

Which process uses expert judgment to manage project resources?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Both A and B

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Question # 178

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

Full Access
Question # 179

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

Full Access
Question # 180

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Full Access
Question # 181

Which tool uses an algorithm based on historical data to calculate cost?

A.

Three-point estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Analogous estimating

D.

Relative estimating

Full Access
Question # 182

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

Full Access
Question # 183

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

Full Access
Question # 184

What is an output of the plan resource management process

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 185

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

Full Access
Question # 186

The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A.

stakeholder management strategy.

B.

communications management plan,

C.

stakeholder register,

D.

performance report.

Full Access
Question # 187

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

Full Access
Question # 188

After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources.

B.

Estimate Activity Durations,

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Control Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 189

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

Full Access
Question # 190

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

Full Access
Question # 191

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity C’s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 daysD .10 days

Full Access
Question # 192

A product owner asked for a change in one of the requirements during the elicitation phase. What should the business analyst do?

A.

Provide the information to the product manager for approval.

B.

Provide the information to the project manager to seek approval or rejection.

C.

Reject the change as the project scope has already been defined.

D.

Accept the modification and update the requirements traceability matrix.

Full Access
Question # 193

An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

Work performance reports.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Activity resource requirements.

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

Full Access
Question # 194

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

Full Access
Question # 195

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

Full Access
Question # 196

Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Modeling techniques

C.

Resource optimization

D.

Meetings

Full Access
Question # 197

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

Full Access
Question # 198

Which of the following is an example of facit knowledge?

A.

Risk register

B.

Project requirements

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Make-or-buy analysis

Full Access
Question # 199

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A.

Forecasting,

B.

Brainstorming.

C.

Historical databases.

D.

Cost of quality.

Full Access
Question # 200

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Full Access
Question # 201

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage.

What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

A.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

B.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

C.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

D.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

Full Access
Question # 202

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

Full Access
Question # 203

An output of Control Schedule is:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

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Question # 204

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Question # 205

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

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Question # 206

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

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Question # 207

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 208

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

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Question # 209

As the project takes place and some issues arose, the project manager (Joe) finds out that some team members were not 100% committed to the project, and some of them were underperforming.

What should the project manager have done to avoid this situation?

A.

Coupled inexperienced team members with individuals having extensive knowledge in the required field

B.

Had open and transparent planning that engages internal and external stakeholders

C.

Held regular meetings more often with team members to check on their progress and obstacles

D.

Diversified more of the project team to capture a broad range of experiences

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Question # 210

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

A.

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

B.

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

D.

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

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Question # 211

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Question # 212

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A.

Project management information system

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work breakdown structure

D.

Variance analysis

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Question # 213

A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?

A.

Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets

B.

Project schedule and stakeholder register

C.

Quality management plan and risk register

D.

Basis of estimates and scope baseline

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Question # 214

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Question # 215

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Question # 216

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

Full Access
Question # 217

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Question # 218

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Question # 219

Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Plan Quality

D.

Report Performance

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Question # 220

Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A.

Cost of quality

B.

Historical relationships

C.

Project management software

D.

Forecasting

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Question # 221

A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A.

Slack

B.

Float

C.

Lag

D.

Lead

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Question # 222

Organizations perceive risks as:

A.

events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B.

the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.

C.

events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.

D.

the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

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Question # 223

What organizational process asset (OPA) can impact a project?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Preapproved supplier lists

C.

Physical environmental elements

D.

Legal restrictions

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Question # 224

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use when estimating costs?

A.

Lessons learned register and cost aggregation

B.

Project schedule and resources requirements

C.

Three-point estimating and risk register

D.

Expert judgempnt and decision making

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Question # 225

Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Project management plan

B.

Change request status updates

C.

Organizational process assets updates

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 226

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 227

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

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Question # 228

Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A.

Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B.

Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools

C.

Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project

D.

Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Full Access
Question # 229

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

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Question # 230

Which are the competing constraints that project manager should address when tailoring a project?

A.

Cost, scope, schedule

B.

Sponsorship, risk, quality

C.

Schedule, sponsorship, scope

D.

Resources, Quality, Communication

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Question # 231

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 232

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

Full Access
Question # 233

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 234

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

Full Access
Question # 235

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

A.

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

Full Access
Question # 236

During the execution of a predicted project, the need for a new product feature has been proposed by the customer. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Decline any request by the customer and continue the project as initially planned.

B.

Accept the customer ' s request and continue with elicitation of the new product features.

C.

Investigate the possibility of using the management reserve to pay for the extra hours the team will need to work.

D.

Investigate the effect that such an integration will have on the project plan and propose a change request.

Full Access
Question # 237

A project manager is creating a project charter to provide a direct link between the project and the organization ' s strategic objectives. What must be considered when creating this document?

A.

High-level requirements and the project team

B.

Key stakeholder list and contingency reserve

C.

Detailed milestone schedule and project objectives

D.

Project purpose and high-level project description

Full Access
Question # 238

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Full Access
Question # 239

Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?

A.

Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project

B.

Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met

C.

Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner

D.

Develops an appropriate approach and plan for communication of project activities

Full Access
Question # 240

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A.

Issue log

B.

Change log

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Change requests

Full Access
Question # 241

Which organizational process asset can make an impact on the outcome of a project?

A.

Political climate

B.

Leadership style

C.

Financial data repository

D.

Organizational structure types

Full Access
Question # 242

What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?

A.

In the Initiation phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

B.

In the Planning phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 50%.

C.

In the Monitoring and Controlling phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

D.

In the Closing phase, the estimate is in the range of +/- 15%.

Full Access
Question # 243

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager ' s approval

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 244

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A.

Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.

B.

Central coordination of communication management across projects.

C.

Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.

D.

Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Full Access
Question # 245

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

Full Access
Question # 246

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Full Access
Question # 247

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

Full Access
Question # 248

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Full Access
Question # 249

Which stakeholder approves a project ' s result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

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Question # 250

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

Full Access
Question # 251

A project is delivering an integrated solution to an external client on a fixed-price contract. The project has a significant technical component and has a dedicated technical project manager working with a business program manager and the client ' s project manager. The technical lead is requesting two new developers.

Which plan should the project manager use to identify who is responsible for finding the budget for additional developers?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Business management plan

C.

Stakeholder engagement plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 252

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

Full Access
Question # 253

What do top project managers do to maximize their sphere of influence within a project team?

A.

Consider management standards, economic factors, and sustainability strategies

B.

Contribute knowledge and expertise to others within the profession

C.

C Address political and strategic issues that impact the project ' s viability or quality

D.

D Demonstrate superior relationship and communication skills while displaying a positive attitude

Full Access
Question # 254

Who identifies project requirements in the early phase of the project?

A.

Business analyst, product team, and key stakeholders

B.

Project manager, business analyst, and key stakeholders

C.

Project manager, business analyst, and project sponsor

D.

Project sponsor, business analyst, and key stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 255

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

Full Access
Question # 256

Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A.

Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B.

Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.

D.

Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 257

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

Full Access
Question # 258

A project manager is experiencing a project with a high degree of change. Which type of stakeholder engagement does this project require?

A.

Discussing with management

B.

Escalating to the sponsors

C.

Engaging regularly with stakeholders

D.

Engaging only with decision makers

Full Access
Question # 259

What purpose does the hierarchical locus of stakeholder communications serve?

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the tocus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media, and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

Full Access
Question # 260

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

Full Access
Question # 261

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

Full Access
Question # 262

Directing another person to get from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors and the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well is related to?

A.

Influence and challenge

B.

Innovation and administration

C.

Leadership and management

D.

Engagement and guidance

Full Access
Question # 263

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Full Access
Question # 264

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

Full Access
Question # 265

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A.

Sole-sum

B.

Win-lose

C.

Lose-win

D.

Partial-sum

Full Access
Question # 266

What tools or techniques are necessary to create the project management plan?

A.

Meetings and data analysis

B.

Expert judgment and data gathering

C.

Interpersonal skills and change control

D.

Data analysis and expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 267

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

Full Access
Question # 268

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

Full Access
Question # 269

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

Full Access
Question # 270

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

Full Access
Question # 271

After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager indicates some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and the required network. How would the project manager define extra costs?

A.

Appraisal costs

B.

Management reserves

C.

Cost of nonconformance

D.

Cost of conformance

Full Access
Question # 272

Match the project life cycle type with its corresponding definition.

Full Access
Question # 273

What Knowledge Area must be led by the project manager and cannot be delegated to other specialists?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Schedule Management

Full Access
Question # 274

Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?

A.

Background, personality, and communications management plan

B.

Personality, background, and escalation process

C.

Sponsor relationship, personality and background

D.

Current emotional state, personality, and background

Full Access
Question # 275

Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:

A.

requirements analysis, communication technology, communication models, and communication methods.

B.

methods, stakeholder register, communication technology, and communication models.

C.

requirements, communication technology, communication requirements analysis, and communication methods.

D.

management plan, communication technology, communication models, and communication requirements analysis.

Full Access
Question # 276

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

Full Access
Question # 277

Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A.

project staff assignments

B.

project tea m acquisition

C.

managing conflicting interests

D.

communication methods

Full Access
Question # 278

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Full Access
Question # 279

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 280

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

A.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

C.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

D.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

Full Access
Question # 281

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

Full Access
Question # 282

During a project ' s execution phase, the project manager reviews the communications management plan for communication technology factors. What can affect the choice of communications?

A.

Legal requirements

B.

Politics and power structures

C.

Internal information needs

D.

Sensitivity and confidentiality of the information

Full Access
Question # 283

In a project using agile methodology, who may perform the quality control activities?

A.

A group of quality experts at specific times during the project

B.

The project manager only

C.

All team members throughout the project life cycle

D.

Selected stakeholders at specific times during the project

Full Access
Question # 284

A project team conducts regular standup meetings to keep everyone updated on what each one of them is working on. What type of communication is this?

A.

Informal

B.

Unofficial

C.

Formal

D.

Hierarchical

Full Access
Question # 285

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Full Access
Question # 286

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

Full Access
Question # 287

A project team is closing out a phase and updating the organizational knowledge base What organizational process asset (OPA) will the team update?

A.

Traceability matrixB Lessons learned

B.

Change control proceduresD Resource availability

Full Access
Question # 288

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

Full Access
Question # 289

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

Full Access
Question # 290

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

Full Access
Question # 291

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Full Access
Question # 292

Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A.

A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.

B.

A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.

C.

One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.

D.

One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Full Access
Question # 293

In an agile or adaptive environment. when should risk be monitored and prioritized?

A.

Only during the initiation and Closing phases

B.

During the initiation and Planning phases

C.

During each iteration as the project progresses

D.

Throughout the Planning process group and retrospective meeting

Full Access
Question # 294

What is the difference between quality metrics and quality measurements?

A.

Quality metrics are product attributes and the measurement is the result of the Monitor and Control Project process

B.

Quality metrics are the result of the Monitor and Control Project process and the measurements are product attributes

C.

Quality metrics and measurements are the same concept

D.

Quality metrics is the general objective and the measurements are the specific objectives

Full Access
Question # 295

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

Full Access
Question # 296

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Full Access
Question # 297

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

Full Access
Question # 298

The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:

A.

10.

B.

12.

C.

20.

D.

24.

Full Access
Question # 299

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

Full Access
Question # 300

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

Full Access
Question # 301

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

Full Access
Question # 302

Which is the main benefit of managing and tailoring strategies in the Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

Increased support and minimized resistance from stakeholders

B.

Increased performance of the project team

C.

Maintenance of stakeholder satisfaction because costs and scope are under control

D.

Updated project documents, as requested by stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 303

The Agile principle " welcome changing requirement, even late in development " relates to which agile manifesto?

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

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Question # 304

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Question # 305

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Question # 306

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

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Question # 307

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

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Question # 308

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

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Question # 309

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 310

Why is required in a project?

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

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Question # 311

Which is the correct hierarchy in a project environment, from most to least Inclusive?

A.

Projects, portfolios, then programs

B.

Portfolios, programs, then projects

C.

Portfolios, projects, then programs

D.

Projects, programs, then portfolios

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Question # 312

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

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Question # 313

Which procurement management process includes obtaining seller response, seller selection, and contract awarding?

A.

Plan Procurement

B.

Manage Procurement

C.

Conduct Procurements

D.

Perform Procurement

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Question # 314

Which key benefit can a project manager obtain by identifying stakeholders?

A.

Identify the appropriate focus for engagement of each stakeholder.

B.

Assess the risk exposure for each stakeholder.

C.

Map stakeholder power and influence grid.

D.

Identify the appropriate channels of communication with all stakeholders.

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Question # 315

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Question # 316

During project execution, a key resource leaves the team for another job. What should the project manager do in this situation?

A.

Submit a change request for additional budget to secure a project resource.

B.

Consult with the functional manager for a replacement resource.

C.

Distribute work to other team members to reduce impact to the project schedule.

D.

Consult the risk register for an appropriate risk response.

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Question # 317

A project manager is identifying the risks of a project. Which technique should the project manager use?

A.

Representations of uncertainty

B.

Prompt lists

C.

Audits

D.

Risk categorization

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Question # 318

The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A.

1.33

B.

2

C.

0.75

D.

0.5

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Question # 319

A project manager is assigned to a new project with a defined scope. The project requires advanced planning at the start of the project. Which approach should the project manager select for the project?

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Kanban

D.

Adaptive

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Question # 320

What is the primary benefit of the Manage Quality process?

A.

Increases the probability of meeting quality objectives

B.

Enhances the performance of the product berg created

C.

Defines quality roles and responsibilities

D.

Ensures that the project is completed as originally planned

Full Access
Question # 321

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

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Question # 322

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 323

A business manager wants to start a project to launch a new product and submits a business case to the Portfolio Steering Committee for review. The committee asks the manager for details about the expected business value of the project.

How can the manager document the business value for the Portfolio Steering Committee?

A.

Conduct a feasibility study to determine the business impact of the new product.

B.

Prepare a benefits management plan to capture target benefits and strategic alignment.

C.

Execute a market study for similar products and demonstrate a market need.

D.

Create a presentation outlining the business benefits of the new product.

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Question # 324

A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

A.

mitigate

B.

accept

C.

transfer

D.

avoid

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Question # 325

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

A.

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

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Question # 326

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Question # 327

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

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Question # 328

The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A.

exploit

B.

avoid

C.

mitigate

D.

share

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Question # 329

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Reserve analysis

D.

Stakeholder analysis

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Question # 330

Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A.

Monitor and Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 331

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Question # 332

The project manager released a report. A few stakeholders express the view that the report should not have been directed to them.

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Question # 333

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Question # 334

Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?

A.

Internal

B.

External

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Full Access
Question # 335

A project manager has the task of determining the deliverables for a six-month project using a predictive approach. How should the project manager determine which processes to include in the project management plan?

A.

Discuss the processes and deliverables needed to meet the project objectives with the team.

B.

Integrate hybrid approach processes and deliverables to meet the short delivery time line.

C.

Identify the processes and deliverables for only the current phase first.

D.

Follow organizational methodology and produce all required deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 336

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Full Access
Question # 337

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

Full Access
Question # 338

What three strategies are used to respond to threats?

A.

Escalate, accept, and mitigate

B.

Accept share, and avoid

C.

Escalate, transfer, and exploit

D.

Mitigate, accept, and prioritize

Full Access
Question # 339

Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?

A.

Hierarchical

B.

External

C.

Formal

D.

Official

Full Access
Question # 340

Development of the benefits management plan occurs in which stage of the project life cycle?

A.

Starting the project

B.

Organizing the project

C.

Completing pre-project work

D.

Executing the product

Full Access
Question # 341

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Question # 342

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

Full Access
Question # 343

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 344

Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders ' needs and requirements and:

A.

Available organizational assets

B.

Project staff assignments

C.

Interpersonal skills

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 345

One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:

A.

organization charts.

B.

ground rules.

C.

organizational theory,

D.

conflict management.

Full Access
Question # 346

During the execution phase of a project a detect is found. The project manager takes responsibility and with the correct documentation, begins the task necessary to repair the defect. What process was applied?

A.

Change request

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Lessons learned

Full Access
Question # 347

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

A.

Project Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Throughout the project lifecycle

Full Access
Question # 348

What process in Project Schedule Management identifies and documents specific actions to be performed to produce a project’s deliverables?

A.

Plan Schedule Management

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

Full Access
Question # 349

A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 350

What is the recommended approach for handling risk in a high-variability environment?

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Iterative

D.

Incremental

Full Access
Question # 351

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence.

What should the project manager do first?

A.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

B.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

Full Access
Question # 352

Which process is engaged when a proiect learn inember makes a change to project budget with the project manager ' s approval?

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 353

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives

Full Access
Question # 354

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

Full Access
Question # 355

Which statement describes the various purposes of project scheduling?

A.

Define the policies, rules, and techniques to run a schedule; serve as a tool to manage stakeholder expectations; and serve as a base for backlog management

B.

Define how and when deliverables will be completed, serve as communication tool, and serve as a base for performance reporting

C.

Define the life cycle, traditional or agile approach, and tools to control schedule; serve as a reference for scope management; and serve as a base for risk management

D.

Define activities, sequences, duration, and dependencies, serve as a reference for resource allocation, serve as a base for earned value analysis.

Full Access
Question # 356

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

Full Access
Question # 357

At what stages of project should the identify Stakeholder process be performed?

A.

When beginning each phase of the project

B.

At the beginning of the project only

C.

Only when the project manager is concerned about stakeholder satisfaction

D.

When the project charter is produced, at the beginning of each phase, and when significant changes occur

Full Access
Question # 358

The organization ' s perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Full Access
Question # 359

Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?

A.

Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical Knowledge

B.

PMP certification, experience, technical Knowledge, and post-graduate education

C.

Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge

D.

Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel

Full Access
Question # 360

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

Full Access
Question # 361

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Palm Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

Full Access
Question # 362

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Full Access
Question # 363

The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A.

Plan Risk Management.

B.

Plan Risk Responses.

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Full Access
Question # 364

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Full Access
Question # 365

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

Full Access
Question # 366

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Full Access
Question # 367

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

Full Access
Question # 368

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Plan Cost Management

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 369

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

Full Access
Question # 370

A project manager is working with the project sponsor to identify the resources required for the project. They use a RACI chart to ensure that the team members knows their roles and responsibilities.

What are the four elements of a RACI chart?

A.

Recommend, approve, coordinate, and inform

B.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform

C.

Recommend, accountable, consult, and inform

D.

Responsible, accountable, coordinate, and inform

Full Access
Question # 371

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A.

Methodology

B.

Risk category

C.

Risk attitude

D.

Assumption analysis

Full Access
Question # 372

In an interactive communication model, how is the sender ensured that the message was understood by the receiver?

A.

The receiver decodes the message

B.

The receiver responds to the message with feedback.

C.

The receiver transmits the message

D.

The receiver acknowledges their receipt of the message

Full Access
Question # 373

In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with methodology A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage. How will the project team determine project cost?

A.

Use a lightweight cost estimation due to the nature of angile projects.

B.

Use a detailed cost estimation for agile projects.

C.

Retrieve a dudget from a previous project and create a baseline of this project based on it.

D.

Use a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) to get cost estimation.

Full Access
Question # 374

Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A.

Benefit

B.

Initiative

C.

Objective

D.

Process

Full Access
Question # 375

A project manager is assigned to a strategic project Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.

Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?

A.

The project and the organization

B.

The organization and the industry

C.

The subject matter experts and the project

D.

The change control board and the organization

Full Access
Question # 376

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 377

Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?

A.

Develop Team

B.

Manage Team

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Resource Management

Full Access
Question # 378

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

Full Access
Question # 379

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Full Access
Question # 380

After recommending to Tan (client) to leave the feature out, what should the project manager do?

A.

Document the end user feedback and follow the change control process in order to define small-scale prototypes to test ideas and try new approaches during future iterations.

B.

Have the end user write a user story with a brief description of an outcome of the feature.

C.

Check with the project team that the resources needed to add this feature are made available by restructuring the timeline and reducing initial quantities.

D.

Enable a stakeholder change in order to facilitate the project to provide the required deliverable as well as the intended outcome.

Full Access
Question # 381

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A.

Change requests

B.

Performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 382

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

A.

Project Management

B.

Program Management

C.

Portfolio Management

D.

Operations Management

Full Access
Question # 383

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

Full Access
Question # 384

Calculate the Schedule Performance Index (SPI) based on the following information: earned value (EV) is 30 and planned value (PV) is 15.

A.

2.0

B.

45

C.

0.5

D.

15

Full Access
Question # 385

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

Full Access
Question # 386

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 387

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project ' s success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

Full Access
Question # 388

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Full Access
Question # 389

A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager ' s key responsibility during this phase?

A.

Defining the scope of the project

B.

Building a collaborative environment

C.

Creating a detailed project management plan

D.

Directing the delivery of the project

Full Access
Question # 390

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

Full Access
Question # 391

What causes replanning of the project scope?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

Full Access
Question # 392

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

Full Access
Question # 393

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders ' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Full Access
Question # 394

At the end of the third iteration, the project team gathers to discuss the stories to be implemented in the next iteration. What should the team do during this session?

A.

Run a spike to ensure all information available is correct and then decide which stories to implement.

B.

Develop a user story analysis based on the work done, depicting the current status, S-curve, schedule variance (SV), and planned value (PV).

C.

Plan the backlog by estimating and reprioritizing the user stories as new information becomes available.

D.

Bring up all risks for implementing the user stories and discuss possible solutions.

Full Access
Question # 395

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Full Access
Question # 396

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Full Access