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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Question and Answers

Question # 4

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

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Question # 5

During project execution, a team member has identified and then analyzed an opportunity that

will yield a net saving of 10% and reduce time in the schedule by 20%

Which strategy should the project manager adopt to accommodate this opportunity?

A.

Escalate to upper management to build awareness of the opportunity.

B.

Exploit the opportunity immediately, since the cost saving makes it worthwhile.

C.

Transfer the opportunity to a partner and start a partner contract.

D.

Create a trail of the opportunity before full adoption, because of the risk associated.

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Question # 6

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A.

10

B.

12

C.

14

D.

17

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Question # 7

All testing on a project has been performed successfully and all acceptance criteria have been met. What is the next step?

A.

Set up a meeting with the sponsor.

B.

Set up a go/no-go meeting.

C.

Wait for the next sprint.

D.

Deliver the product.

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Question # 8

If a project manager effectively manages project knowledge, a key benefits is that:

A.

all stakeholders have access to the same information.

B.

the project team is able to understand the project status.

C.

project stakeholders have a clear picture of the project.

D.

new knowledge is added to organizational process assets.

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Question # 9

Projects programs subsidiary portfolios.... objectives refer to?

Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives refers to?

A.

Operations Management

B.

Project Management

C.

Program Management

D.

Portfolio Management

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Question # 10

What specific quality considerations should be examined while completing Quality Management plan?

A.

Risk registerB Stakeholder engagement

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Standards and regulatory compliance

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Question # 11

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Question # 12

What organizational process asset (OPA) might impact a project's outcome?

A.

Processes, polices, and procedures

B.

Legal restrictions

C.

Infrastructure, resource availability. and employee capability

D.

Financial considerations

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Question # 13

Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Process

C.

Project

D.

Program

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Question # 14

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:

A.

structure.

B.

process asset.

C.

matrix.

D.

breakdown structure.

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Question # 15

In agile projects while performing scope management. What is the definition of requirements

A.

Metrics

B.

Sprint

C.

Charter

D.

Backlog i

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Question # 16

A project manager oversees a project in an adaptive environment. After each iteration, which type of meeting should the project manager conduct?

A.

Iteration planning

B.

Retrospective

C.

Backlog refinement review

D.

Daily standup

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Question # 17

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

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Question # 18

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Question # 19

A company has implemented an adaptive project management framework for a new project. When planning for an iteration, how should risks be addressed? Choose two.

A.

Risks should be considered when selecting the content of each iteration.

B.

Risks should be tailored for each iteration.

C.

Risks should be identified, analyzed, and managed during each iteration.

D.

Risks should be documented prior to each iteration.

E.

Risks should be reviewed only once during each iteration.

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Question # 20

Which project management process is used by the project manager to ensure that stakeholders receive timely and relevant information?

A.

Plan Communications Management

B.

Manage Communications

C.

Monitor Communications

D.

Develop Project Management Plan

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Question # 21

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Question # 22

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager's approval

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Question # 23

Which of the following activities are included as part of a project manager's responsibilities?

A.

Direct, control, and focus on structure.

B.

Problem solve , achieve the bottom line, and focus on success.

C.

Control, maintain project status, and develop.

D.

Inspire, engage, and build relationships with people.

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Question # 24

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

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Question # 25

What risk response strategy involves removing high- risk scope elements from a project?

A.

Transfer

B.

Avoid

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Question # 26

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

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Question # 27

What process in Project Schedule Management identifies and documents specific actions to be performed to produce a project’s deliverables?

A.

Plan Schedule Management

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Durations

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Question # 28

Which project documents can determine the budget?

A.

Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates

B.

Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register

C.

Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates

D.

Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log

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Question # 29

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Question # 30

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Question # 31

Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?

A.

A self-organizing approach to increase team focus and maximize collaboration

B.

A virtual team to minimize feeling of isolation and gaps on sharing knowledge

C.

A distributed team to improve tracking progress, productivity, and performance

D.

A norming approach that requires team members to adjust their behavior and work together

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Question # 32

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Question # 33

What is an example of a technical project management skill?

A.

Managing a project schedule

B.

Developing a project delivery strategy

C.

Establishing a project team

D.

Understanding organizational objectives

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Question # 34

Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?

A.

Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and ream skills

B.

Data analysis, audits, and decision making

C.

Expert judgement, audits, and decision making

D.

Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment

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Question # 35

What is an example of an emerging trend in procurement management?

A.

Online technology enable projects to postpone ordering long lead items until the items are needed

B.

Online technologies allow a project's progress to be viewed by all stakeholders to build better relations

C.

Online procurement tools provide buyers with multiple sources to advertise to sellers.

D.

Online procurement tools provide sellers with designated sources for procurement documents and the resources to complete them.

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Question # 36

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Accepted deliverables

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Organizational process assets

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Question # 37

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Question # 38

A recently hired project manager is looking for templates to use for projects on which they will work. To what category of enterprise environmental factors should the project manager refer?

A.

Resource availability

B.

Infrastructure

C.

Academic research

D.

Corporate knowledge base

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Question # 39

A project manager can choose from several techniques to resolve conflicts between team members. Which technique can result in a win-win solution?

A.

Collaborate/Problem Solve

B.

Compromise/Reconcile

C.

Smooth/Accommodate

D.

Withdraw/Avoid

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Question # 40

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A.

-700

B.

-200

C.

200

D.

500

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Question # 41

A business manager wants to start a project to launch a new product and submits a business case to the Portfolio Steering Committee for review. The committee asks the manager for details about the expected business value of the project.

How can the manager document the business value for the Portfolio Steering Committee?

A.

Conduct a feasibility study to determine the business impact of the new product.

B.

Prepare a benefits management plan to capture target benefits and strategic alignment.

C.

Execute a market study for similar products and demonstrate a market need.

D.

Create a presentation outlining the business benefits of the new product.

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Question # 42

A project team is working on a new driverless vehicle and is organizing a workshop with experts to analyze the data received from the prototype. Who should the project manager invite to provide expert advice?

A.

The subject matter experts (SMEs) identified in the stakeholder register

B.

The senior experts with high status in the academic community

C.

The major stakeholders nominated by the project sponsor

D.

The usual review participants holding recognized certifications

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Question # 43

What earned value (EV) measure indicates the cost efficiency of the work completed?

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

To-complete performance index (TCPI)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Question # 44

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Initiating

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Question # 45

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

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Question # 46

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A.

management

B.

response

C.

tolerance

D.

appetite

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Question # 47

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Question # 48

Which project manager competency is displayed through the knowledge, skills, and behaviors related to specific domains of project, program, and portfolio management?

A.

Leadership management

B.

Technical project management

C.

Strategic management

D.

Business management

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Question # 49

A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because It is a foreign location.

Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?

A.

Predictive life cycle

B.

Waterfall life cycle

C.

Hybrid life cycle

D.

Product life cycle

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Question # 50

What is the process of ensuring that project resources are assigned and available?

A.

Control Procurements

B.

Acquire Resources

C.

Control Resources

D.

Plan Procurement Management

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Question # 51

A project manager has reached an agreement on the requirements and now needs to define the workflow for the end user. A critical step must be completed and validated by the end user before proceeding.

Which modeling tool best describes this process?

A.

Traceability

B.

User interface design

C.

Use case

D.

Wireframe

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Question # 52

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

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Question # 53

What quantitative risk analysis technique is used to select the optimum course of action from a number of alternatives?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Simulation

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Influence diagram

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Question # 54

Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?

A.

Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer's satisfaction.

B.

Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.

C.

Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.

D.

Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.

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Question # 55

Which role does the project manager resemble best?

A.

Orchestra conductor

B.

Facilities supervisor

C.

Functional manager

D.

School principal

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Question # 56

Which of the following is an example of an organizational system that is arranged based on the job being performed?

A.

Simple

B.

Multi-divisional

C.

Functional

D.

Project-oriented

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Question # 57

With regard to a project manager's sphere of influence in a project, which of the following does the project manager influence most directly?

A.

Suppliers

B.

Customers

C.

Governing bodies

D.

Project team

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Question # 58

Which two of the following can be used as communication tools between the business analyst and the rest of the project team? (Choose two)

A.

Project management plan

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Responsible, accountable, consult, inform (RACI) matrix

E.

Process flows

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Question # 59

Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?

A.

Project charter

B.

Project baseline

C.

Assumption log

D.

Schedule forecast

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Question # 60

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

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Question # 61

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Question # 62

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

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Question # 63

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

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Question # 64

Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?

A.

Project stakeholders should be Identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.

B.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.

C.

Project stakeholders should be identified when the project chatter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.

D.

Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process.

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Question # 65

Which of the following is an example of an internal factor that influences the outcome of the project?

A.

Legal restrictions

B.

Financial considerations

C.

Commercial database

D.

Geographic distribution of facilities

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Question # 66

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Parametric estimating

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Question # 67

What process in Project Risk Management prioritizes project risks?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Implement Risk Responses

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Question # 68

What is one of the main purposes of the project chatter?

A.

Formal authorization of the existence of the project

B.

Formal acceptance of the project management plan

C.

Formal approval of the detailed project budget

D.

Formal definition of stakeholder roles and responsibilities

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Question # 69

The Agile principle "welcome changing requirement, even late in development" relates to which agile manifesto?

A.

Working software over comprehensive documentation

B.

Individuals and interactions over processes and tools

C.

Customer collaboration over contract negotiation

D.

Responding to change over following a plan

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Question # 70

Which is an example of leveraging evolving trends and emerging practices in Project Integration Management?

A.

Hybrid methodologies

B.

Risk register updates

C.

Outsourced project resources

D.

Reliance on lessons learned documents

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Question # 71

If you are using an Ishikawa diagram to determine the root cause of problems, which process are you engaged in?

A.

Plan Quality Management

B.

Control Quality

C.

Risk Management

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Question # 72

In which of the Risk Management processes is the project charter used as an input?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Question # 73

The project management plan requires the acquisition of a special part available from a supplier located abroad. Which source selection method is being used?

A.

Least cost

B.

Qualifications only

C.

Sole source

D.

Fixed budget

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Question # 74

The features and functions that characterize a result, product, or service can refer to:

A.

project scope

B.

product scope

C.

service scope

D.

product breakdown structure

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Question # 75

Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A.

Information management systems

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Data gathering and representation

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Question # 76

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Question # 77

What is the best tool to calculate the critical path on a project?

A.

Critical chain method

B.

Graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT) diagram

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Project network diagram

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Question # 78

Due to today's competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long-range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?

A.

Planning and risk management skills

B.

Communication and time management skills

C.

Business intelligence and leadership skills

D.

Strategic and business management skills

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Question # 79

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Question # 80

In an adaptive or agile life cycle, how are the customer and sponsor involved in the project scope management activities?

A.

Involvement is needed only during project initiation.

B.

Minimal involvement of stakeholders is sufficient.

C.

They should be continuously engaged.

D.

They should be involved only during phase or deliverable reviews.

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Question # 81

Why is tailoring in a project necessary?

A.

Requirements keep changing.

B.

An artifact must be produced.

C.

A tool or technique is required.

D.

Each project is unique.

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Question # 82

Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk data quality assessment

C.

Risk categorization

D.

Risk urgency

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Question # 83

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A.

a Knowledge Area

B.

a Process Group

C.

program management

D.

portfolio management

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Question # 84

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 85

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

A.

Project Management

B.

Program Management

C.

Portfolio Management

D.

Operations Management

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Question # 86

What conflict resolution technique involves delaying the issue or letting others resolve it?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Collaborate/problem solve

C.

Withdraw/avoid

D.

Force/direct

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Question # 87

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Question # 88

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder's relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

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Question # 89

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Question # 90

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

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Question # 91

A reward can only be effective if it is:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Question # 92

A project manager is reporting the project performance as 25 days worth of work completed against 13 days originally planned. What is the schedule variance (SV)?

A.

-12

B.

1.15

C.

38

D.

12

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Question # 93

When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:

A.

improvement

B.

program

C.

result

D.

portfolio

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Question # 94

An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Validated changes.

C.

The change log.

D.

The requirements traceability matrix.

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Question # 95

What type of meeting is held to discuss prioritized product backlog items?

A.

Status

B.

Daily standup

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Release planning

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Question # 96

What is an output of the plan resource management process

A.

Project charter

B.

Risk register

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 97

Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?

A.

Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.

B.

Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.

C.

Create a social network and post news there.

D.

Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.

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Question # 98

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Question # 99

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project's time and cost objectives.

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Question # 100

The project manager is dividing the project scope into smaller pieces, and repeating this process until no more subdivisions are required. At this point the project manager is able to estimate costs and activities for each element.

What are these elements called?

A.

Project activities

B.

Work packages

C.

Planning packages

D.

Project deliverables

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Question # 101

Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?

A.

Procurement statement of work (SOW)

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Terms of reference

D.

Change request

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Question # 102

Which is the order of steps in the Procurement Management process?

A.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

B.

Identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, obtaining quotes or proposals, and controlling procurements

C.

Controlling procurements, identifying and planning procurement requirements, obtaining quotes or proposals, negotiating with vendors, and contracting with selected vendors

D.

Obtaining quotes or proposals, identifying and planning procurement requirements, negotiating with vendors, contracting with selected vendors, and controlling procurements

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Question # 103

A project manager Is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management, and Is clarifying and resolving previously Identified issues. In which process is the project manager engaged?

A.

Identify Stakeholders

B.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

D.

Monitor Slakeholder Engagement

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Question # 104

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

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Question # 105

Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors.

C.

Organizational process assets.

D.

Work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 106

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

Full Access
Question # 107

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 108

Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A.

Mandatory

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

External

Full Access
Question # 109

Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?

A.

Project Quality Management and Project Time Management

B.

Project Scope Management and Project Risk Management

C.

Project Stakeholder Management and Project Cost Management

D.

Project Integration Management and Project Procurement Management

Full Access
Question # 110

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

Full Access
Question # 111

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

Full Access
Question # 112

Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 113

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

Full Access
Question # 114

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Full Access
Question # 115

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

Full Access
Question # 116

Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?

A.

Power/influence grid

B.

Power/interest grid

C.

Influence/impact grid

D.

Salience model

Full Access
Question # 117

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A.

Transference

B.

Avoidance

C.

Exploring

D.

Mitigation

Full Access
Question # 118

Portfolio Management is management of:

A.

a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B.

a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.

C.

all projects undertaken by a company.

D.

a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

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Question # 119

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

Full Access
Question # 120

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:

A.

Supportive

B.

Leading

C.

Neutral

D.

Resistant

Full Access
Question # 121

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A.

Product

B.

Cost-benefit

C.

Stakeholder

D.

Research

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Question # 122

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

Full Access
Question # 123

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A.

Scope audits

B.

Scope reviews

C.

Quality audits

D.

Control chart

Full Access
Question # 124

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A.

sponsor

B.

customer

C.

business partners

D.

functional managers

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Question # 125

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Full Access
Question # 126

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Full Access
Question # 127

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

Full Access
Question # 128

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A.

Utilize the change control process.

B.

Crash the schedule to fix the defect.

C.

Leave the defect in and work around it.

D.

Fast-track the remaining development.

Full Access
Question # 129

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Integrating all planned activities

B.

Performing the activities included in the plan

C.

Developing and maintaining the plan

D.

Execution of deliverables

Full Access
Question # 130

An adaptive team is in the process of merging a legacy system from an acquired company. In order to check the project status and manage the flow of work, they are using a scrum board for this project. What data should be included in this information radiator?

A.

Product and sprint backlog

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) and baseline

C.

Increments and bottlenecks

D.

Burndown and burnup charts

Full Access
Question # 131

Match the process with its corresponding process group.

Full Access
Question # 132

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A.

recognition and rewards

B.

compliance

C.

staff acquisition

D.

training needs

Full Access
Question # 133

Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A.

Control charts

B.

Pareto diagrams

C.

Ishikavva diagrams

D.

Checksheets

Full Access
Question # 134

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 135

Which stakeholder approves a project's result?

A.

Customer

B.

Sponsor

C.

Seller

D.

Functional manager

Full Access
Question # 136

An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A.

defect repair

B.

work repair

C.

corrective action

D.

preventive action

Full Access
Question # 137

Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?

A.

Collect Requirements

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Define Scope

D.

Define Activities

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Question # 138

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

Full Access
Question # 139

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A.

Process analysis and expert judgment

B.

Analytical techniques and a project management information system

C.

Performance reviews and meetings

D.

Expert judgment and meetings

Full Access
Question # 140

Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:

A.

performance measurement criteria

B.

source selection criteria

C.

product acceptance criteria

D.

phase exit criteria

Full Access
Question # 141

The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A.

tracking

B.

scoping

C.

timing

D.

defining

Full Access
Question # 142

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

Full Access
Question # 143

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

Full Access
Question # 144

The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:

A.

Manage the timely completion of the project.

B.

Ensure that the project includes all of the work required.

C.

Make sure the project will satisfy the needs for which it was begun.

D.

Reduce the risk of negative events in the project.

Full Access
Question # 145

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

Full Access
Question # 146

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Work breakdown structure

C.

Requirements documentation

D.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 147

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A.

Consultants and stakeholders

B.

Stakeholders and functional managers

C.

Project team members and consultants

D.

Project team members and stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 148

Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A.

Control chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

Checksheet

D.

Pareto diagram

Full Access
Question # 149

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A.

0.8

B.

1

C.

1.25

D.

1.8

Full Access
Question # 150

The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is:

A.

Acquire Project Team.

B.

Plan Human Resource Management.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 151

Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A.

Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B.

Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.

C.

Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.

D.

Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Full Access
Question # 152

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Full Access
Question # 153

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Full Access
Question # 154

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

Full Access
Question # 155

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

Full Access
Question # 156

Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A.

Control Quality

B.

Control Scope

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 157

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Full Access
Question # 158

What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A.

0.50

B.

0.67

C.

1.50

D.

2.00

Full Access
Question # 159

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

Full Access
Question # 160

Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?

A.

Project team

B.

Focus group

C.

Change control board

D.

Project stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 161

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

Full Access
Question # 162

When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A.

Before the Define Activities process

B.

During the Define Activities process

C.

Before the Sequence Activities process

D.

During the Sequence Activities process

Full Access
Question # 163

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

Full Access
Question # 164

Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:

A.

organizational skills

B.

technical skills

C.

communication skills

D.

hard skills

Full Access
Question # 165

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

Full Access
Question # 166

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

Full Access
Question # 167

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

Full Access
Question # 168

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Full Access
Question # 169

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Full Access
Question # 170

The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:

A.

Plan Human Resource Management.

B.

Acquire Project Team.

C.

Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 171

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

Full Access
Question # 172

An output of the Create WBS process is:

A.

Scope baseline.

B.

Change requests.

C.

Accepted deliverables.

D.

Variance analysis.

Full Access
Question # 173

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Requirements document

C.

Project charter

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 174

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 175

Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A.

corrective action.

B.

preventive action.

C.

non-conformance report,

D.

defect repair.

Full Access
Question # 176

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Full Access
Question # 177

A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A.

risk data quality assessment.

B.

variance and trend analysis.

C.

data gathering and representation techniques.

D.

risk audits.

Full Access
Question # 178

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

Full Access
Question # 179

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

Full Access
Question # 180

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

Full Access
Question # 181

Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?

A.

-8000

B.

-2000

C.

2000

D.

8000

Full Access
Question # 182

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

Full Access
Question # 183

How many Project Management Process Groups are there?

A.

3

B.

4

C.

5

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 184

Co-location is a tool and technique of:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Develop Project Team.

D.

Acquire Project Team.

Full Access
Question # 185

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

Full Access
Question # 186

In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Time Management

C.

Project Communications Management

D.

Project Quality Management

Full Access
Question # 187

The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A.

Determine Budget.

B.

Baseline Budget.

C.

Control Costs.

D.

Estimate Costs.

Full Access
Question # 188

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

Full Access
Question # 189

Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Strategies for opportunities

C.

Decision tree analysis

D.

Risk data quality assessment

Full Access
Question # 190

Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

Full Access
Question # 191

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 192

In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A.

Acquire Project Team

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Manage Project Execution

D.

Develop Project Charter

Full Access
Question # 193

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

Full Access
Question # 194

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

Full Access
Question # 195

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

Full Access
Question # 196

Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A.

Perform Quality Assurance

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Full Access
Question # 197

Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Analytical techniques.

C.

Earned value management.

D.

Group decision-making techniques.

Full Access
Question # 198

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

A.

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

Full Access
Question # 199

Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?

A.

Supportive

B.

Directive

C.

Controlling

D.

Instructive

Full Access
Question # 200

Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?

A.

Document analysis

B.

Observations

C.

Product analysis

D.

Expert judgment

Full Access
Question # 201

Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?

A.

Facilitation techniques

B.

Expert judgment

C.

Analytical techniques

D.

Variance analysis

Full Access
Question # 202

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

Full Access
Question # 203

The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Communications Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Risk Management

D.

Project Scope Management

Full Access
Question # 204

Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A.

Only once, at the beginning

B.

At the beginning and the end

C.

Once during each phase

D.

Repeatedly

Full Access
Question # 205

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 206

An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A.

The project management plan.

B.

The stakeholder register.

C.

Procurement documents.

D.

Stakeholder analysis.

Full Access
Question # 207

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

Full Access
Question # 208

A team is working on a project using an adaptive approach. During project execution, the project gets delayed by one month due to an unforeseen risk. What should the team do next to deliver this project?

A.

Stop working on the project completely, even if the team can continue working on the tasks with the identified risk.

B.

Accept the project delay and add the risk to the lessons learned document for the next project.

C.

Change the delivery date and deliver the initially agreed-upon scope after mitigation of the identified risk.

D.

Reprioritize the work based on the increased visibility of the current risks.

Full Access
Question # 209

A project sponsor has asked the project manager to determine how soon the project can be completed. Which of the following methods can a project manager use to find this information?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Decomposition

C.

Critical path method (CPM)

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Full Access
Question # 210

An input to the Control Quality process is:

A.

Activity attributes

B.

Quality control measurements

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Deliverables

Full Access
Question # 211

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

Full Access
Question # 212

Which behavior is a management trait?

A.

Asking what and why

B.

Challenging the status quo

C.

Innovating

D.

Relying on control

Full Access
Question # 213

What is the purpose of the protect management process groups?

A.

To define a new project

B.

To track and monitor processes easily

C.

To logically group processes to achieve specific project objectives

D.

To link specific process inputs and outputs

Full Access
Question # 214

Who identifies project requirements in the early phase of the project?

A.

Business analyst, product team, and key stakeholders

B.

Project manager, business analyst, and key stakeholders

C.

Project manager, business analyst, and project sponsor

D.

Project sponsor, business analyst, and key stakeholders

Full Access
Question # 215

What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables'?

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 216

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

Full Access
Question # 217

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

Full Access
Question # 218

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 219

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Full Access
Question # 220

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A.

Earned value management.

B.

Forecasting.

C.

Critical chain methodology.

D.

Critical path methodology.

Full Access
Question # 221

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Question # 222

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Question # 223

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

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Question # 224

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Question # 225

Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Inspection

C.

Project analysis

D.

Document analysis

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Question # 226

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

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Question # 227

In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A.

Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B.

Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.

C.

Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.

D.

Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

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Question # 228

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

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Question # 229

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Question # 230

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A.

Technical approach

B.

Technical capability

C.

Business size and type

D.

Production capacity and interest

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Question # 231

Which are required to create the schedule management plan?

A.

Scope baseline, work breakdown structure (WBS), estimated costs, and milestone list

B.

Resource management plan, organizational process assets, activity list, and business case

C.

Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project charter, and project management plan

D.

Activity list, project statement of work, project charter, and communications management plan

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Question # 232

Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A.

Work performance reports

B.

Assumptions logs

C.

Network diagrams

D.

Academic studies

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Question # 233

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A.

majority rule technique.

B.

nominal group technique.

C.

Delphi technique,

D.

idea/mind mapping technique.

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Question # 234

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Question # 235

Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A.

Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

C.

Time and Material Contract (T&M)

D.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

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Question # 236

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A.

Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline

B.

Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline

C.

Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline

D.

Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline

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Question # 237

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A.

Forming

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Performing

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Question # 238

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Question # 239

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?

A.

Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)

B.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)

C.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)

D.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

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Question # 240

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

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Question # 241

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Question # 242

An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:

A.

quality management plan.

B.

project management plan.

C.

communications management plan.

D.

schedule management plan.

Full Access
Question # 243

Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A.

Probability

B.

Quantitative

C.

Qualitative

D.

Sensitivity

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Question # 244

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Question # 245

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Question # 246

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Question # 247

In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?

A.

Start-to-start (SS)

B.

Start-to-finish (SF)

C.

Rnish-to-finish (FF)

D.

Finish-to-start (FS)

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Question # 248

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Question # 249

Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A.

Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B.

Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)

C.

Technological advancement and/or senior executive request

D.

Market demand and/or legal requirements

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Question # 250

The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?

A.

Transfer

B.

Share

C.

Avoid

D.

Accept

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Question # 251

Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 252

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller's

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

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Question # 253

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Question # 254

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 255

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 256

Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A.

Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B.

Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates

C.

Resource calendars and project management plan updates

D.

Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Full Access
Question # 257

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Question # 258

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

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Question # 259

The table represents the possible durations of a specific project task.

Using the three-point estimating technique what is the expected number of days it should take to complete the task?

A.

2

B.

3

C.

4

D.

6

Full Access
Question # 260

In a demonstration meeting with a customer, the project team presented deliverables that were considered ready for customer use. The team based the results on a checklist of all the required criteria for the project.

Which of the following elements is the team using?

A.

Definition of ready (DoR)

B.

Burndown chart

C.

Backlog refinement

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

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Question # 261

Why is working in iterations usually more time consuming than using a predictive life cycle?

A.

Having a minimum viable product first can take more time.

B.

Iterations are longer than the execution phase of a traditional project.

C.

Timeboxing increases the time needed to accomplish tasks.

D.

It takes time to understand what the project needs to deliver.

Full Access
Question # 262

What can a project1 manager review to understand the status of project?

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

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Question # 263

In one of the project meetings during a project execution, a new stakeholder attends and highlights a new risk. What should the project manager do next?

A.

Add this risk to the lessons learned register on project completion.

B.

Add the stakeholder to the stakeholder register and add the risk to the risk register.

C.

Make sure proper testing gets completed to minimize the risk highlighted.

D.

Ignore the risk from this stakeholder as this stakeholder never showed up at the start of the project.

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Question # 264

In the project charter process, which three of the following are discussed during meetings held with stakeholders? (Choose three) D Cost

A.

High-level deliverables

B.

Success criteria

C.

Project objectives

D.

Phase transitions

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Question # 265

Which can be used to convert a verified deliverable to an accepted deliverable?

A.

Decomposition

B.

Reporting

C.

Voting

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 266

Which three of the following are key traits of a project leader? (Choose three)

A.

Rely on control.

B.

Focus on near-team goals.

C.

Convey trust and inspire trust in other team members.

D.

Challenge the status quo and do things differently.

E.

Focus on the horizon.

Full Access
Question # 267

What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?

A.

A range of techniques utilizing a plan driven approach, adaptive approach or a hybrid ot both

B.

Only techniques of an agile/adaptive approach in large organizations

C.

Change the role of the project manager to managing pro|ci I in adaptive nuviionin-

D.

Splitting larger projects into two or more smaller project is which can be addressed in an adaptive method

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Question # 268

Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?

A.

Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information

B.

Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology

C.

Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology

D.

Glossary of common terminology, constraints denved from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan

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Question # 269

According to the PMI Talent Triangle. leadership skills relate to the ability to:

A.

understand the high-level overview of the organization

B.

tailor traditional and agile tools for the project

C.

work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery

D.

guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals

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Question # 270

Howls program success measured?

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program's projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Question # 271

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Question # 272

Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?

A.

When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization

B.

When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit

C.

When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule

D.

When they are from the same unit of the organization

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Question # 273

In a large organization, with projects of different types and sizes, what kind of approach or method would be best to use?

A.

Predictive

B.

Adaptive

C.

A mix

D.

Agile

Full Access
Question # 274

Which of the following must be included in the risk register when the project manager completes the Identify Risks process?

A.

List of identified risks, potential risk owners, list of potential risk response

B.

List of identified risks, list of causes, list of risk categories

C.

Short risk titles, list of potential risk owners, list of impacts on objectives

D.

List of activities affected, list of potential risk responses, list of causes

Full Access
Question # 275

How should a project manager plan communication for a project which has uncertain requirements?

A.

Include stakeholders in project meetings and reviews, use frequent checkpoints, and co-locate team members only.

B.

Invite customers to sprint planning and retrospective meetings, update the team quickly and on a daily basis, and use official communication channels.

C.

Adopt social networking to engage stakeholders, issue frequent and short messages, and use informal communication channels.

D.

Adopt a strong change control board process, establish focal points for main subjects, and promote formal and transparent communication.

Full Access
Question # 276

Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?

A.

Compromising

B.

Collaborating

C.

Smoothing

D.

Problem Solving

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Question # 277

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

Full Access
Question # 278

Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

B.

Report Performance

C.

Distribute Information

D.

Plan Communications

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Question # 279

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

Full Access
Question # 280

Quality metrics are an output of which process?

A.

Plan Quality

B.

Perform Quality Control

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 281

What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Risk registry

C.

Risk response planning

D.

Interviewing

Full Access
Question # 282

Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A.

Performance report

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Requested changes

D.

Project management plan

Full Access
Question # 283

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Full Access
Question # 284

The project manager is working in the processes of Project Resource Management. Which process is the project manager developing if they are using parametric estimation?

A.

Plan Resource Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Acquire Resources

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Question # 285

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

A.

Early requirements gathering

B.

Feedback analysis

C.

Progressive elaboration

D.

Requirements documentation

Full Access
Question # 286

Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?

A.

Government standards

B.

Organizational culture

C.

Employee capabilities

D.

Organizational knowledge bases

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Question # 287

Which components of the project management plan are inputs used when creating the stakeholder engagement plan?

A.

Risk, resource, and communications management plans

B.

Scope, quality, and resource management plans

C.

Procurement, integration, and risk management plans

D.

Communications, schedule, and cost management plans

Full Access
Question # 288

The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?

A.

Acquire Resources

B.

Control Resources

C.

Manage Team

D.

Develop Team

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Question # 289

A project manager is launching an information system to provide a lessons learned database. This action is necessary for recipients to access content at their own discretion. Which communication method is described?

A.

Push communication

B.

Pull communication

C.

Interactive communication

D.

Stakeholder communication

Full Access
Question # 290

An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A.

A process improvement plan,

B.

Quality control measurements.

C.

Work performance information,

D.

The project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 291

High-level project risks are included in which document?

A.

Business case

B.

Risk breakdown structure

C.

Project charter

D.

Risk register

Full Access
Question # 292

A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:

A.

Benchmarking.

B.

Context diagrams.

C.

Brainstorming.

D.

Prototyping.

Full Access
Question # 293

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

Full Access
Question # 294

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

Full Access
Question # 295

Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:

A.

tangible

B.

targeted

C.

organized

D.

variable

Full Access
Question # 296

A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A.

project records

B.

project reports

C.

stakeholder notifications

D.

stakeholder register

Full Access
Question # 297

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Question # 298

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

Full Access
Question # 299

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A.

expert judgment and change requests.

B.

work performance information and change requests.

C.

organizational process asset updates and an issue log.

D.

project management plan updates and an issue log.

Full Access
Question # 300

Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?

A.

Product scope description

B.

Procurement statement of work

C.

Project schedule

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Full Access
Question # 301

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

Full Access
Question # 302

Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Time Management

B.

Project Cost Management

C.

Project Scope Management

D.

Project Human Resource Management

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Question # 303

Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?

A.

Risk assessment analysis

B.

Make or buy analysis

C.

Contract value analysis

D.

Cost impact analysis

Full Access
Question # 304

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

Full Access
Question # 305

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

Full Access
Question # 306

During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Verify Scope

C.

Control Scope

D.

Develop Schedule

Full Access
Question # 307

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

Full Access
Question # 308

Types of internal failure costs include:

A.

inspections.

B.

equipment and training.

C.

lost business.

D.

reworking and scrapping.

Full Access
Question # 309

A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A.

Cost-reimbursable

B.

Time and material

C.

Fixed price or lump-sum

D.

Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Full Access
Question # 310

Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A.

Internal failure costs

B.

Prevention costs

C.

Appraisal costs

D.

External failure costs

Full Access
Question # 311

Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?

A.

Preventive action

B.

Risk management

C.

Corrective action

D.

Defect repair

Full Access
Question # 312

Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?

A.

Configuration Identification

B.

Configuration Status Accounting

C.

Configuration Verification and Audit

D.

Configuration Quality Assurance

Full Access
Question # 313

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

Full Access
Question # 314

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

Full Access
Question # 315

In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Monitor and Control Risk

C.

Monitor and Control Project Work

D.

Plan Risk Responses

Full Access
Question # 316

Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?

A.

Procurement statement of work

B.

Purchase order

C.

Source selection criteria

D.

Bidder conference

Full Access
Question # 317

Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A.

Strategic plan

B.

Project charter

C.

Project management plan

D.

Service level agreement

Full Access
Question # 318

The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:

A.

Work packages.

B.

Accepted deliverables.

C.

The WBS dictionary.

D.

The scope baseline.

Full Access
Question # 319

Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 320

An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A.

resource calendar.

B.

activity list.

C.

risk management plan.

D.

organizational process assets.

Full Access
Question # 321

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A.

Initiating

B.

Executing

C.

Planning

D.

Controlling

Full Access
Question # 322

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?

A.

Staffing level is highest at the start.

B.

The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.

C.

The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.

D.

The cost of changes is highest at the start.

Full Access
Question # 323

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A.

Crashing

B.

Fast tracking

C.

Leads and lags adjustment

D.

Parallel task development

Full Access
Question # 324

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A.

0.45

B.

0.56

C.

0.70

D.

1.36

Full Access
Question # 325

What is the total float of the critical path?

A.

Can be any number

B.

Zero or positive

C.

Zero or negative

D.

Depends on the calendar

Full Access
Question # 326

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

A.

Scope plan

B.

Product scope

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Scope baseline

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Question # 327

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A.

Work breakdown structure

B.

Organizational breakdown structure

C.

Resource breakdown structure

D.

Bill of materials

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Question # 328

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A.

Parametric estimating

B.

Monte Carlo analysis

C.

Alternatives analysis

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 329

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 330

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A.

quality audits

B.

process analysis

C.

statistical sampling

D.

benchmarking

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Question # 331

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Question # 332

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A.

start-to-start (SS)

B.

start-to-finish (SF)

C.

finish-to-start (FS)

D.

finish-to-finish (FF)

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Question # 333

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?

A.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) update

C.

Project schedule network diagram

D.

Mandatory dependencies list

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Question # 334

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A.

The Delphi technique

B.

Nominal group technique

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Brainstorming

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Question # 335

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Question # 336

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A.

plan

B.

process

C.

program

D.

portfolio

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Question # 337

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Question # 338

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

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Question # 339

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Question # 340

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A.

Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B.

Identify quality project standards.

C.

Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.

D.

Complete the quality control checklist.

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Question # 341

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 342

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A.

Functional manager

B.

Project manager

C.

Program manager

D.

Project management office

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Question # 343

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Question # 344

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Question # 345

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A.

It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B.

It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.

C.

It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.

D.

It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

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Question # 346

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A.

Negotiation

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Recognition and rewards

D.

Prizing and promoting

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Question # 347

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A.

Histograms

B.

Scatter diagrams

C.

Flowcharts

D.

Checksheets

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Question # 348

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:

A.

Validate Scope.

B.

Close Project or Phase.

C.

Control Quality.

D.

Verify Scope.

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Question # 349

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A.

negotiation

B.

organizational theory

C.

meeting

D.

networking

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Question # 350

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

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Question # 351

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Question # 352

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A.

always be applied uniformly.

B.

be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.

C.

be selected as appropriate by the project team.

D.

be applied based on ISO guidelines.

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Question # 353

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A.

7

B.

8

C.

14

D.

16

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Question # 354

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 355

While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Human resource plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Question # 356

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Question # 357

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Question # 358

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?

A.

Variance analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Historical relationships

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Question # 359

Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A.

It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.

B.

It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.

C.

It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.

D.

It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

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Question # 360

The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B.

Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).

C.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).

D.

Time and Material Contract (T&M).

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Question # 361

Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A.

Variance Analysis

B.

Define Scope

C.

Verify Scope

D.

Control Scope

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Question # 362

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Question # 363

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 364

Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?

A.

Configuration management plan

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Schedule baseline

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Question # 365

Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?

A.

Affinity

B.

Scatter

C.

Fishbone

D.

Matrix

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Question # 366

Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A.

Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B.

Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept

C.

Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept

D.

Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

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Question # 367

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A.

work breakdown structure (WBS).

B.

schedule target.

C.

performance measurement baseline (PMB).

D.

earned value baseline.

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Question # 368

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A.

0.8

B.

0.89

C.

1.13

D.

1.25

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Question # 369

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Question # 370

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A.

a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B.

a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

C.

a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D.

the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

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Question # 371

Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Closing

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Question # 372

The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:

A.

Pareto charts.

B.

quality metrics.

C.

change requests,

D.

Ishikawa diagrams.

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Question # 373

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Question # 374

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Question # 375

The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A.

Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.

C.

Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.

D.

Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

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Question # 376

Which of the following is a project constraint?

A.

Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Question # 377

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A.

Increases

B.

Decreases

C.

Stays the same

D.

Has no bearing

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Question # 378

Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Question # 379

The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A.

quality.

B.

value.

C.

technical performance.

D.

status.

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Question # 380

The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Monitoring and Controlling

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Question # 381

The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A.

Alternatives identification

B.

Scope decomposition

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 382

In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?

A.

Decode

B.

Encode

C.

Medium

D.

Noise

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Question # 383

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

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Question # 384

Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A.

Technical performance measurement

B.

Cost performance baseline

C.

Benchmarking

D.

Cost of quality

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Question # 385

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Question # 386

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 387

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

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Question # 388

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Question # 389

Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?

A.

Two

B.

Four

C.

Five

D.

Twelve

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Question # 390

What is project management?

A.

A logical grouping of project management inputs, outputs, tools, and techniques

B.

Applying knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements

C.

Launching a process that can result in the authorization of a new project

D.

A formal, approved document that defines how the project is executed, monitored, and controlled

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Question # 391

Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:

A.

feasibility study, concept development, design, and prototype.

B.

initiate, plan, execute, and monitor.

C.

Develop Charter, Define Activities, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Report Performance.

D.

Identify Stakeholders, develop concept, build, and test.

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