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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Question and Answers

Question # 4

An institution is looking to alter an existing threshold-based monitoring scenario because it is generating too many alerts that do not yield suspicious activity reports.

Documentation submitted to the relevant committee for supporting this proposal should include details on: (Choose three.)

A.

evidence that the increased residual risk arising from the change is within the bank's risk appetite.

B.

approval by money-laundering reporting officer for the proposal.

C.

how many resources are spent on the less productive lower threshold and the associated costs.

D.

the number of cases that will not be filed and the resources that can be freed up for other tasks.

E.

minutes of meeting held with the regulator where agreement was obtained that the higher threshold was justified.

F.

historical analysis proving that the current scenario generates a disproportionate number of false positives.

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Question # 5

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

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Question # 6

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

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Question # 7

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

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Question # 8

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

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Question # 9

According to the Egmont Group, which benefits do public-private partnerships (PPPs) provide to Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs)? (Select Three.)

A.

Helping overcome data protection and information sharing limitations

B.

Enhancing the quality of reporting and additional informational input

C.

Helping to alleviate the financial cost burden on law enforcement

D.

Helping to design common approaches and identify desired deliverables

E.

Offering flexibility, agility, and opportunities to adjust to the ML/TF threat environment

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Question # 10

A bank has joined a public-private partnership (PPP) to work with law enforcement and regulators on combating financial crime. However, the bank's data protection officer is concerned about sharing sensitive customer data, and the compliance officer is worried about potential delays in receiving useful information from the government.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of PPPs in fighting financial crime?

A.

PPPs improve financial crime detection and prevention by sharing intelligence between banks and law enforcement.

B.

PPPs help banks reduce compliance costs by automating information sharing.

C.

PPPs allow banks to manage their own suspicious activity report (SAR) filing process without the need to involve the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

D.

PPPs maximize the efficiency of the bank's compliance program by providing real-time intelligence from law enforcement.

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Question # 11

Which of the following conditions contribute to a politically exposed person (PEP) posing greater risk than a typical high-risk bank customer? (Select Two.)

A.

The family members and close associates of PEPs may be involved in illicit activities.

B.

PEPs are granted unlimited credit and financial immunity under international banking regulations.

C.

PEPs may exploit embassy activities to conceal bribery and corruption transactions.

D.

PEPs can have illegitimate fund sources but are legally protected from having their accounts closed for activities outside a bank's risk appetite.

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Question # 12

It Is important for financial institutions (FIs) to be aware of anti-financial crime (AFC) and sanctions regulatory regimes in other jurisdictions in order to.

A.

maintain compliance with the AFC and sanctions requirements of all countries where the F1 operates or has business relationships and to avoid penalties for violations in foreign jurisdictions.

B.

ensure that sanctions regimes are applied selectively based on the regulatory standards of the countries where business activities occur, focusing primarily on aligned jurisdictions

C.

compensate for the limited applicability of AFC and sanctions regulations on cross-border transactions and their reduced relevance for domestic operations in other jurisdictions.

D.

ensure the F1 can manage business relationships in jurisdictions with stricter or more lenient regulations than their home country, allowing for operational flexibility

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Question # 13

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

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Question # 14

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

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Question # 15

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

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Question # 16

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

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Question # 17

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

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Question # 18

Which of the following is an important factor to consider when setting up an anti-financial crimes (AFC) compliance program governance structure?

A.

Ensuring the structure is reviewed by an outside auditor or consultant

B.

Establishing a system of internal controls commensurate with the institution’s size and complexity

C.

Designating a qualified board of directors to monitor day-to-day compliance

D.

Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for AFC risk escalations and issues

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Question # 19

What are the primary sources of reference besides AML laws and regulations when developing and maintaining the AML policies, standards, and procedures of a bank? (Choose three.)

A.

National Risk Assessment

B.

Regulatory guidance or publications

C.

Government or state-run newspapers

D.

Guidance issued by international bodies

E.

Policies and procedures developed by other banks

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Question # 20

According to PinCEN. when a financial institution (PI) identities a suspicious activity that necessitates suspicious activity report (SAR) filing, the SAR supporting documentation should (Select Two.)

A.

include all documents or records that assisted the Fl in making the determination that the activity required a filing.

B.

always be limited to account name, account details, and transaction records.

C.

have written policies and procedures to maintain supporting documentation.

D.

be saved in a single separate file with hard copies stored in a fireproof cabinet.

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Question # 21

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Question # 22

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

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Question # 23

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

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Question # 24

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

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Question # 25

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

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Question # 26

Cryptocurrency-related technologies that can be exploited by money launderers include: (Select Two.)

A.

generative copilots.

B.

small language models.

C.

privacy coins.

D.

crypto-mixers.

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Question # 27

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

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Question # 28

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

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Question # 29

Red flags for potential money laundering in real estate include completing luxury real estate purchases. (Select Two.)

A.

using shell companies or trusts for privacy, lax planning, or asset protection.

B.

in the names of unrelated thud patties.

C.

using the proceeds from selling a prior property or liquidating investments to make an all-cash purchase

D.

using legal entities and intermediaries to protect the privacy of the purchasers.

E.

using loans backed by cash or certificates of deposit.

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Question # 30

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

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Question # 31

A compliance officer is reviewing an institutional banking prospect proposal for a new foreign entity that is a multinational business but headquartered in a country where most businesses are state-owned.

Which risks should be prioritized in the review? (Choose two.)

A.

Politically exposed persons (PEPs)

B.

Capital flight risk

C.

Anti-bribery and corruption risk

D.

Tax evasion

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Question # 32

Which of the following best describes the degree of cooperation between regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) during money laundering investigations, including cross-border cases?

A.

Regulatory authorities primarily work independently but share information when requested by international law enforcement agencies.

B.

FIUs primarily handle reporting from financial institutions, while regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies are limited to enforcing domestic AML laws without international cooperation.

C.

Law enforcement agencies and FIUs only cooperate during domestic investigations, leaving cross-border investigations to international organizations like INTERPOL.

D.

Regulatory authorities, law enforcement agencies, and FIUs share intelligence and coordinate efforts to streamline cross-border money laundering investigations, often through formal agreements.

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Question # 33

A client advisor at a bank contacts a member of the compliance team for guidance on how to proceed with a client who wants to transfer US$250,000 from the sale of cryptoassets into their savings account at the bank.

What guidance should the compliance team provide?

A.

Advise further clarification is necessary, including which coins or tokens were sold and whether the crypto exchange conducts due diligence on its clients

B.

Advise that the transaction should be stopped because cryptoassets in general are not regulated and by definition pose an unacceptable AML risk for the bank

C.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction if the client's KYC is up to date and a search on a public blockchain explorer does not provide any adverse media hits

D.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction because clients are already correctly onboarded KYC is complete and the source of funds is transparent

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Question # 34

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

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Question # 35

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

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Question # 36

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Question # 37

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

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Question # 38

Which of the following programs would most likely be considered part of an effective supervision regime for a regulator?

A.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

B.

Onsite and offsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

C.

Offsite reviews, cooperating on a domestic basis with access to a range of sanctions and outreach

D.

Onsite reviews, cooperating on an international and domestic basis with outreach and access to a range of sanctions

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Question # 39

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

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Question # 40

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

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Question # 41

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

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Question # 42

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

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Question # 43

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

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Question # 44

The United Nations Security Council (UNSC) is empowered to impose sanctions regimes against countries and terrorist organizations.

Which statements are true regarding sanctions imposed by the UNSC? (Select Two.)

A.

Attempts to circumvent or evade sanctions imposed by the UNSC can constitute a criminal offense if designated under local laws and regulations

B.

The UN can impose arms embargoes but cannot prohibit direct or indirect exports of other goods to specific countries

C.

Member countries of the United Nations are expected to implement and enforce sanctions imposed by the UNSC

D.

Direct breaches of sanctions imposed by the UNSC constitute a criminal offense in all member countries

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Question # 45

In a large US bank, an individual leads a team in charge of overseeing the governance and effectiveness of the bank's transaction monitoring approach.

Which strategies should the team implement? (Select Two.)

A.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries

B.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank's internal policies and procedures

C.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected

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Question # 46

Assessing the money laundering risk related to a product within the financial sector includes assessing the: (Select Two.)

A.

governance arrangements

B.

complexity of the products

C.

results of the last audit

D.

financial status of the business

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Question # 47

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

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Question # 48

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

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Question # 49

Which of the following scenarios describe common risk indicators of money laundering faced by operators of legitimate money services businesses (MSBs)? (Select Three.)

A.

A customer changes multiple high-denomination notes to low-denomination notes.

B.

A customer conducts cash transactions using multiple branches of the MSB on the same day.

C.

A customer has a family link to the destination of a money transfer

D.

A customer sends and receives money transfers in equal amounts at or about the same time.

E.

A customer only wants to deal with a particular employee in the MSB.

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Question # 50

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

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Question # 51

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Question # 52

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

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Question # 53

Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)

A.

Using gaming accounts to transfer illicit funds between players undetected

B.

Structuring transactions to avoid reporting thresholds by keeping them under certain limits

C.

Providing false personal information to evade regulatory oversight

D.

Ensuring identity verification is completed prior to the onboarding of new customers

E.

Investing all gaming winnings into high-risk stocks to conceal funds

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Question # 54

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

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Question # 55

Having a risk-based approach is central to a financial institution understanding the money laundering and terrorist financing risk to which they are exposed. The development of a money laundering and terrorist financing risk assessment is a key starting point.

Commonly used risk factors include. (Select Three.)

A.

product risk.

B.

credit risk.

C.

geographic risk.

D.

customer risk.

E.

liquidity risk.

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Question # 56

Which of the following measures can help maintain the independence of BSA/AML compliance staff to ensure effective compliance controls?

A.

Establishing BSA/AML compliance staff reporting to the management of the business line in the first line of defense

B.

Ensuring BSA/AML compliance staff is primarily outsourced

C.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff a reporting line to compliance or other second line of defense internal control function

D.

Providing BSA/AML compliance staff with a reporting line to the chief financial officer

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Question # 57

An employee at a financial institution (Fl) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate. Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

A.

Question their co-worker to determine If their suspicions are correct before reporting to the Fl's Human Resources department

B.

Use the Fl's whistle blowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Warn colleagues and customers of the F1 that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

D.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the F1 to take the required action

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Question # 58

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

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Question # 59

The first line of defense is responsible for:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

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Question # 60

A legal instrument which is executed between two nations and governs cross-border information sharing Is known as a.

A.

mutual legal assistance treaty.

B.

memorandum of understanding.

C.

request for urgent information.

D.

declaration of understanding.

E.

memorandum of agreement.

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Question # 61

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

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Question # 62

Which of the following are considered best practices for effective AML/CFT training programs? (Select Three.)

A.

Training should cover practical examples, use case studies, and provide information on how to comply with policies.

B.

Up-to-date records including logs of training and completion dates should be maintained.

C.

Training should be broad, high level, and not role-specific in order to reach the largest audience.

D.

Training should cover the consequences of not complying with policies and procedures.

E.

Training should always be provided by an independent third party.

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Question # 63

Which of the following best describes one of the principal threats of proliferation financing?

A.

Adversary governments using sophisticated attacks to threaten critical infrastructure and sectors, including finance, health care and energy

B.

Networks of individuals and entities exploiting financial systems to move funds that will be used to acquire weapons of mass destruction or their components

C.

Transnational criminal organizations expanding their engagement into more varied types of illicit activities, including human trafficking and corruption

D.

Networks of individuals and entities raising funds to further proliferate their ideological goals wholly or in part through unlawful acts of force or violence

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Question # 64

Using artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning-based techniques tn adverse media screening can: (Choose three.)

A.

ensure that all adverse media sources are comprehensively analyzed without the need for human review.

B.

significantly reduce human errors arising from repetitive tasks by delivering consistent and highly accurate analysis.

C.

instantly identify intent behind media articles, allowing for more effective risk scoring.

D.

automate the process of identifying new information and distinguishing it from previously encountered data.

E.

cover multiple languages and scripts, surpassing the limitations of human linguistics.

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Question # 65

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

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Question # 66

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

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Question # 67

Which o! the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Select Two.)

A.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

B.

Mandatory attendance and review of alt financial crime trainings

C.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

D.

Setting tone from the top

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Question # 68

A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.

Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?

A.

Ensure the jurisdiction risks and other relevant factors have been taken into consideration in the EWRA and the residual risks are within the corporation's risk appetite

B.

Partnering with established local businesses to leverage their knowledge and connections while sharing risks

C.

Ensuring the company has strong ties with local government officials to influence policy and avoid negative scrutiny

D.

Committing to open communication, ethical practices, and community engagement to build trust with stakeholders

E.

Minimizing the company's direct presence in the country to reduce exposure to potential risks

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