Which of the following are reasons an organization needs a sound records management plan? I. To afford some protection against lawsuits; II. To safeguard vital information; III. To analyze and manage expenditures.
III only
I and II only
I, II, and III
I only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program highlights the importance of a sound records management plan for AP processes, particularly for compliance, security, and financialanalysis. A records management plan ensures that documents (e.g., invoices, vendor data) are organized, secure, and accessible, supporting legal protection, information security, and expenditure analysis.
Item I (To afford some protection against lawsuits): A records management plan ensures documentation is available to defend against legal claims, such as vendor disputes or audits, providing evidence of compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item II (To safeguard vital information): Records management protects sensitive data (e.g., vendor TINs, payment details) from loss or unauthorized access, ensuring confidentiality and compliance. This is a valid reason.
Item III (To analyze and manage expenditures): Records management enables AP to track and analyze spending patterns, supporting budgeting and cost control. This is a valid reason.
Option A (III only): Incorrect, as Items I and II are also valid reasons.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III is also a valid reason.
Option C (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are reasons for a sound records management plan.
Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Items II and III are also valid reasons.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “A sound records management plan protects against lawsuits by maintaining auditable records, safeguards vital information like vendor data, and enables expenditure analysis for cost management.†The training video discusses records management as a critical control, citing its role in legal compliance, data security, and financial oversight.
Which of the following AP department procedures would reduce the number of vendor calls to the AP department?
I and II only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors)
II and III only (Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I and III only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I, II, and III (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
Vendor calls to the accounts payable (AP) department often stem from inquiries about invoice status, payment timing, or discrepancies. Providing access to a supplier portal (Option I) allows vendors to check invoice and payment status online, reducing the need for direct contact. Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice (Option III) clarifies payment details, addressing common vendor questions. Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors (Option II) may streamline internal processes but does not directly reduce vendor calls, as it does not provide vendors with self-service tools or additional information.
The web source from Esker states: “Supplier portals reduce vendor inquiries by allowing vendors to track invoice and payment status in real-time… Detailed remittance advice with comprehensive payment information minimizes follow-up calls from vendors.†This supports Options I and III. Option II is not mentioned as a direct method for reducing vendor calls, as it primarily affects internal AP workflows.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,†including strategies to improve AP efficiency and vendor relations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†aligns with using supplier portals and detailed remittance advice to minimize vendor inquiries.
According to the ACFE, which of the following is the most common type of fraud scheme?
Asset misappropriation
Intellectual property fraud
Corruption (bribery)
Financial misstatement
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program addresses fraud prevention, referencing the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE) for fraud trends. According to the ACFE’s Report to the Nations,asset misappropriationis the most common type of occupational fraud, involving schemes like theft of cash, inventory, or other assets. It is more frequent than corruption, financial misstatement, or intellectual property fraud due to its simplicity and accessibility in roles like AP.
Option A (Asset misappropriation): Correct. ACFE data consistently shows asset misappropriation as the most common fraud scheme, accounting for over 80% of cases, due to its prevalence in roles with access to funds or assets.
Option B (Intellectual property fraud): Intellectual property fraud is less common, as it requires specialized knowledge and access, and is not a primary AP concern. This is incorrect.
**Option C (Corruption (Ñнер
Answer: A
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program addresses fraud prevention, referencing the Association of Certified Fraud Examiners (ACFE) for fraud trends. According to the ACFE’sReport to the Nations,asset misappropriationis the most common type of occupational fraud, involving schemes like theft of cash, inventory, or other assets. It is more frequent than corruption, financial misstatement, or intellectual property fraud due to its simplicity and accessibility in roles like accounts payable (AP).
Option A (Asset misappropriation): Correct. The ACFE’sReport to the Nations(2022 edition, as referenced in IOFM materials) states that asset misappropriation accounts for approximately 86% of occupational fraud cases, making it the most common scheme. Examples include stealing cash, falsifying expense reports, or misusing company assets, which are prevalent in AP due to access to payments and vendor data.
Option B (Intellectual property fraud): Intellectual property fraud, such as theft of trade secrets, is less common (less than 5% of cases per ACFE) and typically involves specialized roles, not AP. This is incorrect.
Option C (Corruption (bribery)): Corruption, including bribery and kickbacks, accounts for about 38% of cases (often overlapping with other schemes), but is less frequent than asset misappropriation. This is incorrect.
Option D (Financial misstatement): Financial misstatement, such as falsifying financial reports, is the least common (around 10% of cases) but often involves the highest financial impact. This is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlscites the ACFE’sReport to the Nations, stating, “Asset misappropriation is the most common fraud scheme, comprising over 80% of cases, due to its ease of execution in roles like AP.†The training videodiscusses fraud risks in AP, emphasizing that “per the ACFE, asset misappropriation, such as cash theft or fraudulent payments, is the most frequent fraud type.â€
What does the acronym “FIFO†mean?
First In, First Out
Fifty Invested, Five Optioned
Fraud In Financial Operations
Final Invoice For Offset
In the context of accounts payable and financial operations, the acronymFIFOstands forFirst In, First Out, a method commonly used in inventory management and accounting to assume that the earliest goods purchased (first in) are sold or used first (first out). This affects cost of goods sold and inventory valuation. The other options are not relevant: “Fifty Invested, Five Optioned†(Option B), “Fraud In Financial Operations†(Option C), and “Final Invoice For Offset†(Option D) are not standard terms in AP or accounting.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “FIFO, or First In, First Out, is an inventory accounting method where the earliest goods received are recorded as sold first, impacting financial reporting.†This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,†including accounting principles like FIFO that affect financial processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†aligns with understanding FIFO as a standard method in inventory and cost accounting.
Procurement card (P-card) issuers offer rebates according to:
Volume of spend
Number of individual transactions
Frequency of use
Quantity of cards issued
Procurement cards (P-cards) are corporate credit cards used for business purchases, and issuers often offer rebates or incentives to encourage their use. These rebates are typically based on the volume of spend, meaning the total dollar amount charged to the P-card over a specified period. This incentivizes organizations to consolidate more purchases on the card, benefiting both the issuer (through transaction fees) and the organization (through rebates).
The web source from Corcentric states: “P-card issuers commonly offer rebates based on the total volume of spend, encouraging organizations to increase card usage for eligible purchases.†This confirms that rebates are tied to the dollar amount spent (Option A), not the number of transactions (Option B), frequency of use (Option C), or number of cards issued (Option D).
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,†including P-card programs and their benefits. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process†aligns with the industry standard that rebates are based on spend volume, as this drives cost savings and program efficiency.
Which of the following is a key reason for careful management of your vendor master file?
Control the number of vendor calls
Reduce the potential for fraud
Monitor vendor quality
Gain visibility into payment status
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of managing the vendor master file to prevent errors and risks. A key reason is toreduce the potential for fraud, as accurate and validated vendor data (e.g., TINs, addresses) prevents payments to fraudulent vendors and ensures compliance with regulations like OFAC.
Option A (Control the number of vendor calls): Not a primary reason. While a clean vendor master file may reduce inquiries, this is a secondary benefit, not a key focus.
Option B (Reduce the potential for fraud): Correct. Careful management, including TIN verification and sanction list checks, prevents fraudulent vendor setups and payments.
Option C (Monitor vendor quality): Vendor quality is typically assessed by Procurement or Operations, not the vendor master file, which focuses on data accuracy. Incorrect.
Option D (Gain visibility into payment status): Payment status is tracked in AP systems, not the vendor master file, which stores static vendor data. Incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Careful management of the vendor master file reduces fraud risk by ensuring accurate vendor data and compliance with validation processes.†The training video emphasizes, “A well-maintained vendor master file prevents fraud through rigorous verification, such as TIN matches and address checks.â€
The acronym GAAP stands for which of the following?
Government Accounting Acceptance Principles
Government Accounting Actuarial Program
General Accounting Administration Program
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding foundational accounting standards, such asGenerally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), which govern financial reporting in the U.S. GAAP provides a standardized framework for recording and reporting financial transactions, ensuring consistency and transparency, which is critical for AP processes like invoice recording and financial statement preparation.
Option A (Government Accounting Acceptance Principles): Incorrect, as GAAP is not specific to government accounting and is not termed “acceptance principles.â€
Option B (Government Accounting Actuarial Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is unrelated to actuarial programs or government-specific accounting.
Option C (General Accounting Administration Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is a set of principles, not an administrative program.
Option D (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles): Correct. GAAP is the standard framework for financial accounting, widely used by AP professionals to ensure accurate and compliant financial reporting.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) provide the rules and standards for financial reporting, ensuring that AP transactions are recorded consistently and transparently.†The training video mentions GAAP in the context of internal controls, noting its role in maintaining financial statement accuracy and compliance with regulations like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
For a VAT invoice that contains what you believe to be a billing error, what is the only recommended solution?
Do not pay the invoice and report the transaction to the VAT administration
Pay the incorrect amount and then send a formal written request for an adjustment
Do not pay the invoice and return it to the vendor for correction
Short pay or overpay as necessary and include an explanation of why you did so
Value Added Tax (VAT) invoices are subject to strict regulatory requirements, as they impact taxreporting and compliance. When a VAT invoice contains a billing error (e.g., incorrect amount, tax rate, or details), the recommended solution is to withhold payment and return the invoice to the vendor for correction. This ensures that the corrected invoice complies with VAT regulations, allowing accurate tax reporting and reclaiming of input VAT. Paying an incorrect invoice or reporting the error to the VAT administration without correction risks non-compliance and audit issues.
The web source from Avalara explains: “If a VAT invoice is incorrect, it must be corrected by the supplier issuing a new invoice or a credit note, depending on the nature of the error.†This aligns with the option to return the invoice to the vendor for correction. Paying the incorrect amount (Option B) or short/overpaying with an explanation (Option D) can complicate VAT reconciliation and may not be accepted by tax authorities, as the invoice must accurately reflect the transaction. Reporting the transaction to the VAT administration (Option A) is unnecessary unless the error involves fraud or persistent issues, and it does not resolve the invoice discrepancy.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,†including VAT compliance and invoice handling. While the specific question is not directly quoted in the provided sources, IOFM’s curriculum emphasizes compliance with tax regulations, as noted in the program description: “Review peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process – from receipt of invoice, through processing and payment.†The focus on accurate invoice processing supports returning the invoice for correction as the standard practice.
Where circumstances do not permit implementing ideal controls, an organization should put in place the next-best alternative, commonly referred to as:
Interim controls
Stop-gap controls
Secondary controls
Compensating controls
TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers the design and implementation of internal controls to mitigate risks. When ideal controls (e.g., full segregation of duties) are not feasible due to resource constraints or organizational structure,compensating controlsare implemented as alternative measures to achieve similar risk mitigation. These controlsprovide additional checks or oversight to compensate for the absence of primary controls.
Option A (Interim controls): Interim controls imply temporary measures, not necessarily designed to compensate for missing ideal controls. This is incorrect.
Option B (Stop-gap controls): Stop-gap controls are ad-hoc, temporary fixes, not a formal term in the COSO framework or AP practices. This is incorrect.
Option C (Secondary controls): Secondary controls are not a recognized term in internal control frameworks; they imply less critical controls, not alternatives. This is incorrect.
Option D (Compensating controls): Correct. Compensating controls are alternative measures implemented when ideal controls are not practical, ensuring adequate risk mitigation.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “When ideal controls cannot be implemented, compensating controls provide alternative risk mitigation, such as additional reviews or approvals to address control gaps.†The training video discusses compensating controls in the context of COSO and SOX, noting their use in small organizations where segregation of duties is challenging.
What is one benefit of entering a commodity code in a user-defined field when setting up a newvendor?
It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered
It indicates which team member created the new record
It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors
It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of structured data in the vendor master file (VMF) to support organizational processes. Entering acommodity code(a standardized code classifying goods or services) in a user-defined field allows procurement to categorize vendor offerings, enablingspend analysisto identify spending patterns, negotiate better terms, and optimize supplier selection.
Option A (It prevents a duplicate vendor from being entered): Incorrect. Commodity codes classify goods/services, not vendor identities; duplicate prevention relies on TIN or name checks.
Option B (It indicates which team member created the new record): Incorrect. Commodity codes are unrelated to record creation metadata, which is tracked separately.
Option C (It automatically generates a price comparison to other similar vendors): Incorrect. Commodity codes enable categorization but do not automatically generate price comparisons; additional tools are needed.
Option D (It enables procurement to use the data for spend analysis): Correct. Commodity codes allow procurement to group vendors by product/service type, facilitating spend analysis and strategic sourcing.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “Entering commodity codes in the vendor master file enables procurement to perform spend analysis by categorizing vendor goods and services.†The training video notes, “Commodity codes support procurement’s ability to analyze spending patterns, a key benefit of structured VMF data.â€
Payments by U.S. companies to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported to the IRS if they equal or exceed which of the following dollar amounts?
$600
$1,000
$500
$300
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS Form 1099 reporting requirements for payments to U.S. unincorporated service providers (e.g., independent contractors, freelancers). Payments for services totaling$600 or morein a calendar year must be reported on Form 1099-NEC (Nonemployee Compensation), ensuring the IRS can track income for tax purposes.
Option A ($600): Correct. The IRS requires Form 1099-NEC for payments of $600 or more to unincorporated U.S. service providers, such as individuals or partnerships, for services rendered.
Option B ($1,000): Incorrect. The $600 threshold applies, not $1,000.
Option C ($500): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $500.
Option D ($300): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $300.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Payments of $600 or more to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported on Form 1099-NEC, per IRS regulations.†TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliancespecifies, “The $600 threshold applies to nonemployee compensation paid to individuals, sole proprietors, or partnerships, requiring a 1099-NEC filing.†The training video reinforces this, noting, “AP ensures 1099-NEC forms are issued for payments of $600 or more to track contractor income.â€
The Sarbanes-Oxley statute in the U.S. requires public companies to: I. Establish controls over accounts payable hiring; II. Use a recognized framework to design and test controls over financial reporting; III. Ensure that the company CFO is a CPA.
I and II only
II only
I, II, and III
I only
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program includes detailed coverage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), which mandates internal controls for public companies to ensure accurate financial reporting. SOX requires companies to use a recognized framework, such as COSO (Committee of Sponsoring Organizations), to design and test controls over financial reporting (Item II). However, it does not mandate specific controls over AP hiring (Item I) orrequire the CFO to be a CPA (Item III).
Item I (Establish controls over accounts payable hiring): SOX focuses on financial reporting controls, not hiring processes for specific departments like AP. While internal controls may indirectly influence hiring (e.g., segregation of duties), there is no specific SOX requirement for AP hiring controls. This item is not required.
Item II (Use a recognized framework to design and test controls over financial reporting): SOX Section 404 mandates that public companies establish and test internal controls over financial reporting using a recognized framework, such as COSO. This is a core requirement.
Item III (Ensure that the company CFO is a CPA): SOX requires CFOs to certify financial reports (Section 302), but there is no mandate that they hold a CPA designation. This item is not required.
Option A (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a SOX requirement.
Option B (II only): Correct, as only Item II (using a recognized framework like COSO) is mandated by SOX.
Option C (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Items I and III are not SOX requirements.
Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a SOX requirement, and Item II is required.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “SOX Section 404 requires public companies to use a recognized framework, such as COSO, to design and test internal controls over financial reporting.†It clarifies that “SOX does not mandate specific hiring controls for departments like AP or require CFOs to be CPAs, though it emphasizes executive accountability.†The training video discusses SOX’s focus on financial controls, citing COSO as the standard framework and noting no specific hiring or CPA requirements.
In the U.S., what is the best way to verify a vendor’s business registration?
Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation that the registration is up-to-date
Submit a request to the Internal Revenue Service to do a Form 1120 search
Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution
Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the APS Certification Program covers vendor validation to ensure legitimacy and prevent fraud. The best way to verify a vendor’s business registration in the U.S. is tocheck the database of the Secretary of Statein the state where the vendor is registered, as this provides authoritative, public confirmation of the vendor’s legal status and registration details.
Option A (Send a letter to the vendor requesting written confirmation): Incorrect. Vendor-provided confirmation is less reliable, as it may be falsified, and is not authoritative.
Option B (Submit a request to the IRS to do a Form 1120 search): Incorrect. Form 1120 is a corporate tax return, not a business registration record, and the IRS does not provide registration verification services.
Option C (Require a sworn affidavit from the vendor’s financial institution): Incorrect. Financial institutions do not typically provide affidavits for business registration, and this is not a standard practice.
Option D (Check the database of the Secretary of State where the vendor is registered): Correct. Secretary of State databases offer verifiable, public records of business registration, the most reliable method.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “To verify a vendor’s business registration, check the Secretary of State database in the vendor’s state of incorporation for authoritative confirmation.†The training video notes, “The best practice for validating vendor legitimacy is accessing Secretary of State records online to confirm registration details.â€
Detective controls do which of the following? I. Establish segregation of duties; II. Look for errors and irregularities; III. Determine if preventive controls are effective.
I, II, and III
I and III only
II and III only
I and II only
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program explains that detective controls are designed to identify errors, fraud, or control failures after they occur. They include activities like reviewing transactions for irregularities and assessing the effectiveness of preventive controls.Segregation of duties, however, is a preventive control, not a detective one, as it prevents fraud by dividing responsibilities.
Item I (Establish segregation of duties): Segregation of duties prevents fraud by ensuring no single employee controls all aspects of a transaction (e.g., invoice approval and payment). This is a preventive control, not detective.
Item II (Look for errors and irregularities): Detective controls, such as account reconciliation or audits, identify errors or fraudulent activities after they occur. This is a valid function.
Item III (Determine if preventive controls are effective): Detective controls, like monitoring or control testing, assess whether preventive controls (e.g., vendor validation) are working. This is a valid function.
Option A (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item I is a preventive control.
Option B (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Option C (II and III only): Correct, as Items II and III describe detective control functions.
Option D (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a detective control function.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Detective controls, such as audits and reconciliations, look for errors and irregularities and evaluate the effectiveness of preventive controls.†It clarifies that “segregation of duties is a preventive control to avoid conflicts of interest.†The training video discusses detective controls as tools for “post-transaction review and control assessment,†excluding segregation of duties.
Common elements required in a VAT-acceptable invoice include all of the following, EXCEPT:
The customer’s VAT identification number
The date of invoice issue
The VAT rate applied
The supplier’s banking information
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT) requirements for invoices, particularly for organizations operating in jurisdictions with VAT systems (e.g., EU countries). A VAT-acceptable invoice must include specific elements to comply with tax regulations, such as the customer’s VAT identification number, the date of issue, and the VAT rate applied. Thesupplier’s banking information, while useful for payment, is not a mandatory requirement for VAT compliance.
Option A (The customer’s VAT identification number): Required for cross-border transactions or business-to-business sales to verify VAT status and enable zero-rating or reverse charge. This is a mandatory element.
Option B (The date of invoice issue): Required to establish the tax point and ensure proper tax period reporting. This is a mandatory element.
Option C (The VAT rate applied): Required to specify the tax rate (e.g., standard, reduced) and calculate the VAT amount. This is a mandatory element.
Option D (The supplier’s banking information): Not required for VAT compliance. While banking details may be included for payment purposes, they are not part of VAT invoice requirements. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesstates, “A VAT-acceptable invoice must include the customer’s VAT ID, date of issue, VAT rate, and other tax-related details, but supplier banking information is not required for compliance.†The training video discusses VAT invoicing for international transactions, listing mandatory elements and noting that “banking details are optional, as they relate to payment, not tax reporting.â€
To establish a successful shared services center, each of the following is required EXCEPT:
Performance metrics
A customer service orientation
A greenfield site
A change in mindset
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers strategies for optimizing AP processes, including the establishment of shared services centers (SSCs). SSCs consolidate back-office functions like AP to improve efficiency and reduce costs. Key requirements for a successful SSC include performance metrics to measure success, a customer serviceorientation to support internal and external stakeholders, and a change in mindset to embrace centralized processes. However, agreenfield site(a new, undeveloped location) is not a requirement, as SSCs can be established in existing facilities or virtual environments.
Option A (Performance metrics): Performance metrics (e.g., cost per invoice, processing time) are essential to evaluate the SSC’s efficiency and ensure alignment with organizational goals. This is a requirement.
Option B (A customer service orientation): SSCs must prioritize service to internal clients (e.g., departments) and external stakeholders (e.g., vendors), ensuring smooth communication and issue resolution. This is a requirement.
Option C (A greenfield site): A greenfield site refers to a new facility built from scratch. SSCs can operate in existing offices, leased spaces, or even digitally, making a greenfield site unnecessary. This is the correct answer, as it is not required.
Option D (A change in mindset): Transitioning to an SSC requires employees and management to adopt a centralized, process-driven approach, moving away from decentralized silos. This cultural shift is a requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses SSCs as a way to “streamline AP through centralized processes, requiring performance metrics, a service-oriented approach, and a cultural shift to succeed.†It notes that SSCs can be established in various locations, with no mention of a greenfield site as a necessity. The training video highlights case studies of SSCs, emphasizing metrics and mindset changes but not physical site requirements.
Which of the following are among the elements that the IRS considers in defining a T&E accountable plan?
I only (Expense substantiation)
I, II, and III (Expense substantiation; Business connection requirement; Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis)
II only (Business connection requirement)
I and III only (Expense substantiation; Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis)
An accountable plan, as defined by the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), is a reimbursement or allowance arrangement for business expenses, including Travel and Entertainment (T&E), that meets three specific requirements to avoid being treated as taxable income: (1)Expense substantiation, where employees must provide documented evidence (e.g., receipts) for expenses; (2)Business connection requirement, meaning expenses must be incurred in connection with performing services for the employer; and (3)Return of unused cash advances on a timely basis, ensuring any excess advances are returned within a reasonable period (typically 120 days). All three elements (Options I, II, and III) are required for a T&E accountable plan.
The web source from the IRS states: “An accountable plan must meet three requirements: 1) Employees must have paid or incurred expenses while performing services as an employee (business connection); 2) Employees must adequately account for these expenses within areasonable period (substantiation); and 3) Employees must return any excess allowance or advance within a reasonable period.†This directly supports Option B, as all three elements are included in the IRS definition.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,†including IRS regulations for T&E accountable plans. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†and compliance with federal tax laws emphasizes the three IRS requirements, confirming that all three elements are essential.
Fixed assets include which of the following? I. Accounts receivable; II. Furniture and fixtures; III. Inventory.
I, II, and III
I and II only
II only
I and III only
ThePaymentstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the types of accounts involved in AP transactions, such as assets, liabilities, and expenses. Fixed assets are long-term, tangible assets used in business operations, such as furniture and fixtures, which are not intended for sale. Accounts receivable and inventory, however, are not fixed assets; they are current assets, as they are expected to be converted to cash within a year.
Item I (Accounts receivable): Accounts receivable represent money owed to the organization by customers for goods or services sold. They are classified ascurrent assets, not fixed assets, because they are short-term and liquid. This item is not a fixed asset.
Item II (Furniture and fixtures): Furniture and fixtures (e.g., desks, chairs, office equipment) are tangible, long-term assets used in business operations. They are classified asfixed assetsbecause they have a useful life exceeding one year and are not intended for sale. This item is a fixed asset.
Item III (Inventory): Inventory consists of goods held for sale or use in production. It is classified as acurrent assetbecause it is expected to be sold or used within a year. This item is not a fixed asset.
Option A (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as only II is a fixed asset; I and III are current assets.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as I (accounts receivable) is not a fixed asset.
Option C (II only): Correct, as furniture and fixtures (II) are the only fixed asset among the options.
Option D (I and III only): Incorrect, as neither I (accounts receivable) nor III (inventory) are fixed assets.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underPaymentscovers basic accounting principles, including the classification of assets. It defines fixed assets as “tangible assets with a useful life of more than one year, such as furniture, fixtures, and equipment, used in business operations.†The text distinguishes fixed assets from current assets like accounts receivable and inventory, which are “expected to be converted to cash or used within a year.†The training video reinforces this by discussing how AP processes payments for fixed assets (e.g., capital expenditures) versus current assets (e.g., inventory purchases).
To protect your organization from employee fraud, which of the following controls should be employed?
Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire
Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees from accredited universities
Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out every six to eight months
Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program emphasizes preventing employee fraud through robust controls, particularly in AP, where access to payments and vendor data creates risks.Conducting detailed background checkson new AP employees is a standard control to verify integrity and reduce the risk of fraudulent behavior. Other options, such as NDAs, accounting degrees, or temporary hiring, are less effective or irrelevant for fraud prevention.
Option A (Require that all potential employees sign an NDA prior to hire): Non-disclosure agreements (NDAs) protect confidential information but do not directly prevent fraud, which involves financial misconduct (e.g., embezzlement). This is not a primary fraud control.
Option B (Ensure all staff members have accounting degrees): An accounting degree does not guarantee honesty or prevent fraud. Many AP roles require practical skills, not formal degrees. This is not a fraud control.
Option C (Hire only temporary employees and rotate them out): Temporary staffing and frequent rotation disrupt continuity and may increase fraud risk due to lack of accountability. This is not a fraud control.
Option D (Conduct detailed background checks on all new AP employees): Background checks verify criminal history, credit issues, and past employment, identifying potential fraud risks. This is a standard and effective control. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “To prevent employee fraud, organizations should implement controls like detailed background checks for AP staff to ensure trustworthiness.†It lists background checks as a key measure, alongside segregation of duties and surprise audits, but does not mention NDAs, degrees, or temporary staffing as fraud prevention controls. The training video reinforces this, citing background checks as essential for roles with financial access.
When maintaining an audit trail of changes to the vendor master file, which of the following should be recorded? I. Who requested the change; II. Who actually made the change; III. The date the change was made.
I, II, and III
I and II only
II and III only
I and III only
TheVendor Master Filetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the importance of maintaining an audit trail for changes to the vendor master file (VMF) to ensure transparency, accountability, and fraud prevention. An effective audit trail should recordwho requested the change(to verify authorization),who actually made the change(to track accountability), andthe date the change was made(to establish a timeline), ensuring a complete record for compliance and audits.
Item I (Who requested the change): Essential to verify that the request came from an authorized individual, supporting internal controls and fraud prevention.
Item II (Who actually made the change): Critical to track the individual who modified the VMF, ensuring accountability and traceability.
Item III (The date the change was made): Necessary to document when the change occurred, aiding in audits and fraud investigations.
Option A (I, II, and III): Correct, as all three items are essential components of a VMF audit trail.
Option B (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item III (date) is also essential.
Option C (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item I (requester) is also essential.
Option D (I and III only): Incorrect, as Item II (changer) is also essential.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underVendor Master Filestates, “An audit trail for VMF changes must include who requested the change, who made the change, and the date of the change to ensure transparency and compliance.†The training video reinforces, “Recording the requester, the person making the change, and the date in the VMF audit trail is critical for fraud prevention and audit readiness.â€
An organization’s mission statement is intended to provide which of the following?
Policies and procedures
Ethics and compliance standards
Methodology and direction
Metrics and benchmarking information
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding the broader organizational context in which AP operates, including governance and strategic objectives. An organization’s mission statement is a high-level declaration of its purpose, values, and strategic direction. It providesmethodology and directionby guiding decision-making and aligning processes with the organization’s goals, rather than detailing specific policies, ethics standards, or metrics.
Option A (Policies and procedures): Policies and procedures are operational guidelines that dictate how tasks (e.g., AP processes) are performed. A mission statement does not provide these details; it sets a broader vision. This option is incorrect.
Option B (Ethics and compliance standards): While a mission statement may reflect ethical values, it is not the primary vehicle for defining ethics and compliance standards, which are typically outlined in separate codes of conduct or compliance policies. This option is incorrect.
Option C (Methodology and direction): The mission statement articulates the organization’s purpose and strategic direction, providing a framework (methodology) for how the organization operates and where it is headed. This is the correct answer.
Option D (Metrics and benchmarking information): Metrics and benchmarking are performance measurement tools, not part of a mission statement, which focuses on vision and purpose rather than quantitative data. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsbriefly addresses organizational governance, noting that “a mission statement defines the organization’s purpose and provides direction for all departments, including AP, to align their processes with strategic goals.†The training video emphasizes that AP professionals must understand the organization’s mission to ensure their work supports broader objectives, such as cost efficiency or vendor trust. The mission statement is described as a guiding framework, not a detailed operational or compliance document.
Which of the following best describes ERP systems?
They are popular methods of tracking continuous improvement
They provide a sophisticated means of fraud detection
They link together business functions with real-time data flow
They are payment systems designed exclusively for cryptocurrency
Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) systems are integrated software platforms that link various business functions—such as accounting, procurement, accounts payable, inventory, and human resources—through a centralized database, enabling real-time data flow and streamlined operations. ERP systems enhance efficiency by providing a unified view of business processes, but they are not primarily for tracking continuous improvement (Option A), fraud detection (Option B), or cryptocurrency payments (Option D).
The web source from NetSuite states: “ERP systems integrate business functions, such as finance, procurement, and HR, with real-time data flow to improve efficiency and decision-making.†This directly supports Option C, emphasizing the role of ERP in linking business functions with real-time data.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,†including the role of ERP systems in accounts payable processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†aligns with the definition of ERP systems as integrative platforms for real-time data management.
What is blockchain?
A distributed ledger system
A random password generator
An internal audit methodology
An accounts payable collaborative
Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger system that records transactions across multiple computers in a secure, transparent, and tamper-resistant manner. In accounts payable, blockchain can enhance processes like invoice verification and payment tracking by providing a trusted, immutable record. The other options are incorrect: a random password generator (Option B) is unrelated to blockchain, an internal audit methodology (Option C) refers to audit processes, and an accounts payable collaborative (Option D) is not a defined term.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that records transactions in a secure, decentralized manner, offering potential applications in accounts payable for secure payment processing and invoice tracking.†This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,†including emerging technologies like blockchain. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†includes understanding technologies that enhance AP efficiency and security, confirming blockchain as a distributed ledger system.
Which of the following is necessary to prepare a 1099?
A PTIN for all reportable vendors
A W-4 for all reportable vendors
A TIN for all reportable vendors
A W-2 for all reportable vendors
The preparation of IRS Form 1099 (e.g., 1099-MISC, 1099-NEC) is a critical component of theTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program. Form 1099 is used to report payments made to non-employees, such as independent contractors, vendors, or other entities, for services rendered, typically when payments exceed $600 in a calendar year. To prepare a 1099, the payer (e.g., the organization’s AP department) must obtain the payee’sTaxpayer Identification Number (TIN), which can be either an Employer Identification Number (EIN) for businesses or a Social Security Number (SSN) for individuals. The TIN is collected via IRS Form W-9, which vendors must provide to the payer.
Option A (PTIN): A Preparer Tax Identification Number (PTIN) is used by tax preparers who file tax returns on behalf of others. It is not required for vendors or payees when preparing a 1099. This option is incorrect.
Option B (W-4): Form W-4 is used by employees to indicate withholding preferences for federal income tax from their wages. Since 1099 forms are for non-employees (e.g., contractors), a W-4 is irrelevant. This option is incorrect.
Option C (TIN): The TIN is mandatory for 1099 reporting. The IRS requires the payee’s TIN to be included on the 1099 form to track payments and ensure tax compliance. If a vendor fails to provide a TIN, the payer may be required to implement backup withholding (e.g., 24% as of 2025). This is the correct answer.
Option D (W-2): Form W-2 is used to report wages paid to employees, not payments to vendors or contractors. Since 1099 forms are for non-employee compensation, a W-2 is not applicable. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The IOFM APS e-textbook and training video under theTax and Regulatory Compliancesection emphasize the importance of collecting a valid TIN via Form W-9 for 1099 reporting. TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, details the IRS requirements for TIN collection and backup withholding. Specifically, it states that “a valid TIN is required for all reportable payments to avoid IRS penalties and ensure accurate 1099 filing.†Additionally, the APS curriculum covers IRS regulations, including the need to process “B Notices†when TINs are missing or incorrect, reinforcing the centrality of the TIN in 1099 preparation.
What is the current thinking on the practice of maintaining a petty cash fund?
It’s practically obsolete and should be eliminated, if possible
Three separate individuals should sign off on disbursements
It’s considered a best practice within service organizations and consulting businesses
It should be maintained by an executive in the treasury department
The current thinking on maintaining a petty cash fund is that it ispractically obsolete and should be eliminated, if possible, due to the availability of more efficient and secure alternatives, such as payment cards or electronic reimbursements. Petty cash funds are prone to mismanagement, theft, and lack of oversight, and modern AP practices favor digital solutions for small transactions.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “Petty cash funds are increasingly considered obsolete, as payment cards and electronic reimbursements offer more secure and trackable alternatives for small transactions.†This directly supports Option A. The other options are incorrect:
Option B: Requiring three individuals to sign off is excessive and not a standard practice.
Option C: Petty cash is not considered a best practice, even in service or consulting businesses.
Option D: Petty cash is typically managed by AP or administrative staff, not treasury executives.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,†including best practices for managing small transactions. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices†aligns with the trend toward eliminating petty cash in favor of modern payment methods.
Which AP function is typically NOT considered a good candidate for business process outsourcing (BPO)?
Performance monitoring
Check printing
Utility payments
Invoice imaging
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the APS Certification Program covers the use of technology to streamline AP processes and the potential for outsourcing certain functions to business process outsourcing (BPO) providers. BPO is commonly used for repetitive, transaction-based tasks such as check printing, utility payments, and invoice imaging, which benefit from automation and economies of scale. However,performance monitoring—which involves analyzing AP metrics, ensuring compliance, and optimizing processes—is typically retained in-house, as it requires strategic oversight and organizational knowledge.
Option A (Performance monitoring): Performance monitoring involves tracking key performance indicators (KPIs) like invoice processing time, error rates, and compliance with internal controls. This function requires deep understanding of the organization’s goals and policies, making it less suitable for outsourcing. This is the correct answer.
Option B (Check printing): Check printing is a routine, mechanical task that can be efficiently outsourced to BPO providers with secure printing and mailing capabilities. It is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option C (Utility payments): Utility payments are standardized, recurring transactions thatcan be automated and outsourced to BPO providers, often integrated with electronic payment systems. This is a good BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option D (Invoice imaging): Invoice imaging (scanning and digitizing invoices) is a repetitive task that leverages automation and is frequently outsourced to BPO providers with imaging technology. This is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses BPO as a strategy for “outsourcing transactional AP tasks like invoice imaging, check printing, and payment processing to improve efficiency.†It notes that strategic functions, such as “performance monitoring and analytics,†are typically retained in-house to maintain control over compliance and process optimization. The IOFM training video emphasizes that BPO is ideal for high-volume, low-complexity tasks, while performance monitoring requires internal expertise to align with organizational objectives.
Which of the following accounting entries are necessary to record an expense from an incoming invoice?
A debit to the asset account and a corresponding debit to the expense account
A credit to the AP liability account and a corresponding credit to the expense account
A debit to expense and a credit to the AP liability account
A credit to expense and a debit to the AP liability account
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers double-entry accounting for recording invoices. When an incoming invoice is received, it represents an obligation to pay a vendor (a liability) and an expense (or asset, depending on the purchase). The correct journal entry is todebit the expense account(to recognize the cost incurred) andcredit the accounts payable (AP) liability account(to record the amount owed).
Option A (A debit to the asset account and a corresponding debit to the expense account): Incorrect, as recording an invoice does not typically involve debiting both an asset and an expense account. An asset might be debited for capital purchases, but the second debit to an expense account is invalid, and no credit is provided to balance the entry.
Option B (A credit to the AP liability account and a corresponding credit to the expense account): Incorrect, as crediting the expense account would reduce expenses, which is not the purpose of recording an invoice. Additionally, two credits do not form a valid journal entry without a debit.
Option C (A debit to expense and a credit to the AP liability account): Correct. Debiting the expense account (e.g., utilities, supplies) recognizes the cost incurred, and crediting the AP liability account records the obligation to pay the vendor. This is the standard entry for expense-related invoices.
Option D (A credit to expense and a debit to the AP liability account): Incorrect, as crediting the expense account would decrease expenses, which is not appropriate when recording an invoice. Debiting the AP liability would also incorrectly increase the liability.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesexplains, “When an invoice is received, the journal entry debits an expense account (or asset for capital purchases) andcredits the accounts payable liability account to reflect the obligation.†The training video illustrates this with examples, such as debiting “Office Supplies Expense†and crediting “Accounts Payable†for a supply invoice, emphasizing accurate recording to ensure financial statement integrity.
TESTED 01 Jul 2025