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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Question and Answers

Question # 4

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of a project?

A.

The management of a routine operation.

B.

A functional team doing a repetitive task.

C.

It has an agreed timescale.

D.

No specific objectives for change.

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Question # 5

A project communication plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

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Question # 6

One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:

A.

facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.

B.

balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.

C.

mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.

D.

chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

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Question # 7

Which one of the following statements best defines a portfolio?

A.

A. group of related projects, which may include business-as-usual activities, that delivers change.

B.

A. timetable of how project activities and project milestones are planned over a period of time.

C.

A. group of projects that represent the delivery of all, or a discrete part of a new capability.

D.

A. grouping of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities.

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Question # 8

What is the most likely result of providing effective quality management in the project?

A.

The project outputs will have been delivered.

B.

Conformance of the outputs and processes to requirements will result in a product that is fit for purpose.

C.

The project management plan will have been followed

D.

Customer expectations will have been exceeded with both outputs and processes

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Question # 9

Which of the following are typical estimating methods? 1) Analytical 2) Budgeting 3) Analogous 4) Parametric

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 10

Quality management ensures that ______ are fit for purpose.

A.

processes and outputs.

B.

standards and benefits.

C.

managers and teams.

D.

regulations and requirements.

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Question # 11

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

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Question # 12

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

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Question # 13

Which is one of the three key project constraints?

A.

Time

B.

Political

C.

Environmental

D.

Technical

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Question # 14

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

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Question # 15

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

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Question # 16

Good teamwork helps to deliver a successful project because:

A.

team members have similar skill sets.

B.

project work can be distributed equally around the team.

C.

all team members have the same access to project information.

D.

people work collaboratively towards a common goal.

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Question # 17

Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

A.

A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.

B.

A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.

C.

A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

D.

A project is a method of planning work.

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Question # 18

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

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Question # 19

The advantages of communicating using a telephone conference call is:

A.

accents are easier to interpret.

B.

information is easier to understand.

C.

discussions will be quicker.

D.

there is less visual distraction.

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Question # 20

If using an iterative life cycle what actions might be necessary for scope items that are NOT considered as 'must have'?

A.

They need to be given a special priority to ensure that they are definitely delivered.

B.

They should have best resort to ensure they efficiently delivered.

C.

The project could be If the delivery of these requirements were proving more difficult than expected

D.

They would sacrificed if at any time Was to go over budget or be late

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Question # 21

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

A.

Work breakdown structure.

B.

Organisational breakdown structure.

C.

Product breakdown structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure

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Question # 22

The primary purpose of the post-project review is to:

A.

find out who was responsible for problems on the project and why.

B.

find out whether the business benefits were achieved and why.

C.

find out who performed well on the project in order to support future resource allocations.

D.

identify lessons learned to enable continuous improvement.

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Question # 23

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Question # 24

Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship?

A.

Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need.

B.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity.

C.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost.

D.

Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities.

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Question # 25

A portfolio can best be defined as:

A.

A group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.

B.

A group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

C.

A group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.

D.

A range of products and services offered by an organisation.

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Question # 26

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activity against a calendar called?

A.

A Gantt chart.

B.

A critical path network.

C.

A product flow diagram.

D.

A Pareto chart.

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Question # 27

Unlike in linear life cycles, the scope in an iterative lifecycle is:

A.

expected to change.

B.

hard to change.

C.

unimportant.

D.

unstructured.

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Question # 28

What is the main benefit of using prototyping. time boxing or iterative thinking?

A.

They offer tested methods for experimentation and risk reduction

B.

They reduce stakeholders' expectations of how they benefit from the project.

C.

Try allow the project to develop an extended life cycle.

D.

They always deliver the project quicker than planned

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Question # 29

5 A. --> 5 B. --> 5D --> 5F

`-->4C. --> 4E --^

The total float of activity E in the above diagram is:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

0

D.

4

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Question # 30

Which one of the following would best describe a post project review?

A.

It is a personal appraisal for each team member on completion Of the project.

B.

It appraises the products of the project.

C.

It considers all aspects of the management of the project.

D It involves only the project implementation team.

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Question # 31

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

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Question # 32

What is the best way that PESTLE analysis supports the development of a business case?

A.

It provides A. powerful way in which the most favourable financial returns are shown from the project options being considered.

B.

It considers a number of options avoiding over reliance on a single idea, when there may be other more favourable options available.

C.

It identifies which tools and techniques are necessary in order to arrive at the best group of projects to be considered as valid options.

D It shows which assets, capabilities, processes and functions are required to be included in the business case.

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Question # 33

Which of the following is not a key aspect of issue resolution?

A.

Increase risk budget.

B.

Apply change control.

C.

Escalate analysis to project sponsor.

D.

Assign actions to relevant team member.

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Question # 34

Communication is said to be the means by which information or instructions are:

A.

exchanged.

B.

received.

C.

clarified.

D.

given.

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Question # 35

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 36

Which of the following is not an output of a critical path analysis?

A.

Total and free float.

B.

Earliest start time and latest finish time of activities.

C.

Project completion time.

D.

Cost-benefit analysis.

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Question # 37

The prime purpose of configuration management is to:

A.

ensure the traceability and integrity of the delivered product or products

B.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project

C.

ensure that the final product meets the needs of the business as defined by key stakeholders.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements to the project deliverables

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Question # 38

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

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Question # 39

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Question # 40

What is one of the most important aspects to establish about a stakeholder's interest in the project?

A.

If it is positive or negative.

B.

If it is regular or intermittent.

C.

If it is influenced by the project.

D.

If it is influenced by other stakeholders.

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Question # 41

Which of the following statements about the role of project sponsor is false?

A.

A. project sponsor is an advocate for the project and the change it brings about.

B.

A. project sponsor writes and owns the project management plan.

C.

A. project sponsor is able to work across functional boundaries within an organisation.

D A. project sponsor is prepared to commit sufficient time and effort to support the project.

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Question # 42

The concept that describes how estimating accuracy changes through the project life cycle is termed:

A.

estimating risk.

B.

estimating funnel.

C.

normal values.

D.

parametric estimating.

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Question # 43

On examining a particular risk in the project there is some uncertainty among the project team of how important this risk is to the project. How would you advise the team on how the significance of the risk is to be determined?

A.

By assessing its probability of occurrence.

B.

By assessing its impact on project objectives,

C.

By assessing both its probability of occurrence and its impact on project objectives.

D.

By assessing its effect on the business case.

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Question # 44

Which of the following defines the term 'deployment baseline'?

A.

The starting point for creating a resource histogram.

B.

The basis for creating an organisational breakdown structure.

C.

The starting point for the monitoring of project risks.

D.

The basis for progress monitoring.

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Question # 45

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

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Question # 46

Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?

A.

All variance to the project scope is evaluated.

B.

No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.

C.

Management costs of the project do not increase.

D.

Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

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Question # 47

When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

A.

scope verification.

B.

change freeze.

C.

consolidated baseline.

D.

configuration control.

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Question # 48

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

A.

Evaluate the change.

B.

Advise the sponsor.

C.

Update the change log.

D.

Update the project plan.

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Question # 49

What action can lead to more consistent communication in the project?

A.

Only transmitting information that stakeholders have requested, ensuring that any excess information is kept to a minimum.

B.

Communication is carried out en-masse ensuring that all stakeholders get all information.

C.

Communication is planned in advance and all messages delivered use the approved framework.

D.

Communicating information on a one-way basis reducing the need for stakeholders to waste their time providing feedback

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Question # 50

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

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Question # 51

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:

A.

indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

B.

ensure adequate resource allocation.

C.

indicate what is important in supplier selection.

D.

ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

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Question # 52

Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

A.

A target for the project to receive zero change requests.

B.

The date by which the project is to be completed.

C.

Delivery of products that meet required specifications.

D.

The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

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Question # 53

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.

B.

A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.

C.

An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.

D.

A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

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Question # 54

Which of the following provides the project manager with a formal overview of project quality?

A.

Design reviews

B.

Project definition reports.

C.

Quality audits.

D.

Historical experience.

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Question # 55

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

B.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of the project life cycle.

C.

The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life cycle.

D.

The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the project life cycle.

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Question # 56

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

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Question # 57

What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

A.

The issue owner is consulted,

B.

A decision regarding the issue is deferred.

C.

The issue is rejected and the owner is informed.

D.

The issue needs to be progressed through change control.

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Question # 58

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 59

Quality control verifies that:

A.

the project follows appropriate processes.

B.

project outputs are delivered on time.

C.

the project follows appropriate governance.

D.

project outputs meet acceptance criteria.

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Question # 60

Suppliers are stakeholders of a project management plan because they:

A.

contribute to the project's procurement strategy.

B.

help satisfy the project's resource requirements.

C.

provide acceptance certificates based on quality of resources supplied.

D.

determine the quality requirements of goods supplied.

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Question # 61

Configuration management is best described as:

A.

control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.

B.

an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.

C.

quality control of project deliverables and documentation.

D.

creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

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Question # 62

What is the main reason for an initial high-level review of a change request?

A.

To consider if the change is feasible to evaluate at this stage.

B.

To establish who might be the best stakeholders to be involved in the change.

C.

To ensure that the change request is considered as soon as possible.

D.

To implement the necessary actions to ensure the change has a smooth implementation.

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Question # 63

Configuration management can be used to control documents, information and:

A.

users.

B.

audits.

C.

stakeholders.

D.

assets.

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Question # 64

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

A.

A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

B.

Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

C.

It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

D.

Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

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Question # 65

Project success criteria are best defined as:

A.

the qualitative or quantitative measures by which the success of the project is judged.

B.

the factors that, when present in the project are most conducive to a successful outcome.

C.

the measures that establish if project activities are ahead or behind schedule.

D.

the activities or elements of the project which are considered to be critical to success

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Question # 66

Which of the following would be considered as a valid objective for the post project review?

A.

Plan the next project for the project team.

B.

Make proposals for the operation of the project deliverables.

C.

Improve future estimating accuracy.

D.

Plan how to complete the objectives of the project.

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Question # 67

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Question # 68

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

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Question # 69

Configuration management would be used to:

A.

ensure the required materials are in stock when needed.

B.

help the impact Of a change request to be fully assessed.

C.

help configuration within IT projects.

D.

ensure that a work breakdown structure can be completed.

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Question # 70

The purpose of PESTLE analysis is to:

A.

understand the project's external operating environment.

B.

prioritise requirements that should be included in the project.

C.

periodically review the financial viability of the project.

D.

determine the project team's strengths and weaknesses.

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Question # 71

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

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Question # 72

One purpose of a typical project business case is to:

A.

carry out earned value analysis.

B.

allocate resources to the project.

C.

analyse cost-benefit of the project.

D.

plan project work packages

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Question # 73

What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle?

A.

Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits.

B.

Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation.

C.

Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits.

D.

Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation.

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Question # 74

The characteristics of a product that determine whether it meets certain requirements is known as the:

A.

product criteria.

B.

acceptance criteria.

C.

quality criteria.

D.

success criteria.

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Question # 75

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

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Question # 76

Which of the following is an activity in a typical configuration management process?

A.

Evaluation.

B.

Identification.

C.

Registration.

D.

Justification.

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Question # 77

A project life cycle which combines approaches from the linear and iterative life cycles is known as _________ project life cycle.

A.

a hybrid.

B.

an extended.

C.

a reduced.

D.

a combined.

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Question # 78

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

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Question # 79

A project management plan could best be described as:

A.

an activity on a network diagram.

B.

A. Gantt chart.

C.

A. plan for the programme.

D.

an overall plan for the project.

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Question # 80

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Question # 81

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Question # 82

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

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Question # 83

Following the approval of the deployment baseline, which of the following can be altered during an iterative project life cycle but not a linear project life cycle?

1) Scope

2) Resource

3) Time

4) Cost

A.

1 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

2 and 4

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Question # 84

Configuration management is defined as a process which enables:

A.

the creation, maintenance, controlled change and the quality control of a scope of work.

B.

a structured approach to move an organisation from a current state to a future desired state.

C.

the safeguarding of stakeholder benefits, outputs and outcomes to requirements.

D.

the identification of differences would affect successful completion of objectives.

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Question # 85

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

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Question # 86

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Question # 87

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Question # 88

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

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Question # 89

Which of the following defines quality?

A.

The fitness for purpose of outputs and processes.

B.

The value for money of a product.

C.

The satisfaction of the stakeholders.

D.

The thoroughness of the management plan.

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Question # 90

Which one of the following best describes the purpose of a project's business case?

A.

A statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/deliverables and satisfaction.

B.

The reasons why the project sponsor wants their project to proceed.

C.

A statement on how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor.

D.

Provides justification for undertaking the project, in terms of evaluating the benefits, cost and risks

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Question # 91

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

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Question # 92

An important aim of a post-project review is to:

A.

validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.

B.

capture learning and document it for future usage.

C.

ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.

D.

establish that project benefits have been identified.

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Question # 93

When delivering a project, the project manager has to balance which of the following constraints?

A.

Definition and delivery.

B.

Time, cost and quality.

C.

Budget, spend and contingency.

D.

Cost and scope.

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Question # 94
A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Question # 95

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

A.

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

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Question # 96

When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

A.

the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

B.

the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.

C.

the project documentation must be disposed of.

D.

the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised

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Question # 97

What defining character from those listed below particularly typifies an issue?

A.

A major problem that was unexpected and now requires the attention Of the whole project team.

B.

A major problem that can only be addressed by the project sponsor.

C.

A major problem that may happen in the future.

D.

A major problem that requires A. formal process of escalation

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Question # 98

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

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Question # 99

Which one of the following best describes the entire project reporting process?

A.

Producing an exception report to communicate A. project issue to the project board.

B.

Publicising the project benefits to the business organisation.

C.

Notifying team members of the project's progress at the weekly team meeting.

D.

Formally notifying the status of the project to the project's stakeholders.

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Question # 100

An example Of an external stakeholder group could be:

A.

users.

B.

A. governmental regulatory body.

C.

functional managers within the sponsoring organisation.

D.

the project team members.

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Question # 101

When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process?

A.

Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented.

B.

Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project.

C.

The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations.

D.

Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

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Question # 102

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Question # 103

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Question # 104

Which one of the following is the correct definition of an issue?

A.

Any major problem that the project team has to deal with.

B.

A. problem that is the responsibility of the Project Manager.

C.

An uncertain event that should it occur would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A. threat to project objectives that cannot be resolved by the Project Manager.

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Question # 105

For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

A.

Skills of the team delivering the project.

B.

Project objectives.

C.

Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place.

D.

Location of the venue Where risk identification Will take place

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Question # 106

One benefit of a gate review process is:

A.

it allows learning from one phase of the project to be passed on to the next phase.

B.

it stops projects that no longer meet the organisation's needs.

C.

it allows procurement to be planned into the project life cycle.

D.

it allows the project team to plan delivery of the next phase

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Question # 107

Which one of the following statements is true?

A.

Risk events always have beneficial effects on the project.

B.

Risk events can have either beneficial or detrimental effects on the project.

C.

Risk events always have detrimental effects on the project.

D.

Risk events have neither beneficial nor detrimental effects on the project.

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Question # 108

Risk management should be initiated...

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

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Question # 109

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

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Question # 110

Which of the following is a definition of project management?

A.

A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable.

B.

Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives.

C.

The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specificobjectives for change.

D.

The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.

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Question # 111

Which one of the following is a valid description of the phases of a complete project lifecycle?

A.

Start-up, feasibility, planning, execution and roll-out.

B.

Concept, screening, implementation, handover and closeout.

C.

Concept, definition, implementation, handover and closeout.

D.

Start-up, definition, development and production closedown.

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Question # 112

What is the main objective of an audit?

A.

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

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Question # 113

When the project progresses through the life cycle. which one of the following aspects would be expected to occur?

A.

The accuracy of the estimate reduces and the level of contingency requirement increases.

B.

The accuracy of the estimate increases and the level of contingency requirement reduces.

C.

The accuracy and level Of contingency requirement both increase.

D.

The accuracy and level of contingency requirement both reduce.

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Question # 114

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called?

A.

a Gantt chart.

B.

a critical path network.

C.

a product flow diagram.

D.

a Pareto chart.

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Question # 115

Which of the following are documented in a risk register?

1) Analysis

2) Priority

3) Ownership

4) Responses

A.

1, 3 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2, 3 and 4

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Question # 116

Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?

A.

People working collaboratively towards a common goal.

B.

Developing skills that will enhance project performance.

C.

Gathering the right people together to work on a project.

D.

Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

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Question # 117

A communications plan should be:

1) one way

2) adjustable

3) measurable

4) rigid

A.

2, 3 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

2 and 3

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Question # 118

Which of the following responsibilities lies with the project management office?

A.

Liaising with end users.

B.

Managing suppliers.

C.

Providing technical support.

D.

Supporting the project sponsor.

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Question # 119

Product breakdown structures illustrate the required scope of work by a hierarchical structure itemising the:

A.

components of each product.

B.

budget of each product.

C.

benefits of each product.

D.

risks of each product.

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Question # 120

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Question # 121

A review most closely linked to the phases Of the project life cycle could be described as a:

A.

gate review.

B.

learning review.

C.

handover review.

D.

audit review.

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Question # 122

Which of the following is true regarding differences between linear and iterative life cycles?

A.

A linear life cycle is best for evolving projects whereas an iterative life cycle is better for more structured projects.

B.

A linear life cycle is sequential whereas an iterative life cycle repeats one or more phases.

C.

A linear life cycle is always longer in duration whereas an iterative life cycle is always shorter in its duration.

D.

A linear life cycle is formally managed by A. dedicated project manager whereas management responsibility is shared in an iterative life cycle

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