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APM-001 Associate in Project Management (APM) Question and Answers

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Question # 4

Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Full Access
Question # 5

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

Full Access
Question # 6

When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Document analysis

D.

Product analysis

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Question # 7

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A.

3

B.

5

C.

7

D.

9

Full Access
Question # 8

An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Plan Human Resource Management

D.

Develop Project Team

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Question # 9

A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:

A.

Require communication technology that is not readily available.

B.

Create difficulties when including people with disabilities.

C.

Often cannot accommodate teams that work different hours or shifts.

D.

Create the possibility for misunderstandings to arise.

Full Access
Question # 10

In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A.

Performing

B.

Storming

C.

Norming

D.

Forming

Full Access
Question # 11

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Question # 12

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Question # 13

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Question # 14

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Inspection and audits

C.

Estimate budget

D.

Risk register

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Question # 15

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A.

project documents updates.

B.

project management plan updates.

C.

change requests.

D.

work performance information.

Full Access
Question # 16

What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Work performance information

C.

Work package

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Full Access
Question # 17

Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?

A.

Changing project specifications continuously

B.

Elaborate tracking of the project progress

C.

Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system

D.

Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses

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Question # 18

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

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Question # 19

Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Question # 20

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Question # 21

Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?

A.

Performance organizations

B.

Schedule baselines

C.

Work performance measurements

D.

Change requests

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Question # 22

The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X. The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A.

Resource leveling and fast tracking

B.

Fast tracking and crashing

C.

Crashing and applying leads and lags

D.

Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

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Question # 23

Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?

A.

Applying calendars

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Resource planning

D.

Resource conflict management

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Question # 24

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

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Question # 25

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

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Question # 26

Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?

A.

A single product lifecycle may consist of multiple project lifecycles.

B.

A product lifecycle is always shorter than the project lifecycle.

C.

A single product lifecycle can only have one project lifecycle.

D.

A single project lifecycle may consist of multiple product lifecycles.

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Question # 27

Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A.

Legal

B.

Discretionary

C.

Internal

D.

Resource

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Question # 28

Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A.

Vendor risk assessment diagram

B.

Risk register

C.

Requirements traceability matrix

D.

Area of responsibility summary

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Question # 29

Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?

A.

Three-point estimates

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Bottom-up estimating

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Question # 30

Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A.

Vendor bid analysis

B.

Three-point estimates

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Reserve analysis

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Question # 31

In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?

A.

Team meetings

B.

Subcontracting teams

C.

Virtual teams

D.

Teamwork

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Question # 32

As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?

A.

Communication management activities

B.

Change requests

C.

Configuration verification and audit

D.

Work performance information

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Question # 33

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Question # 34

Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Risk register

C.

Change requests

D.

Risk response plan

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Question # 35

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Question # 36

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Question # 37

The stakeholder register is an output of:

A.

Identify Stakeholders.

B.

Plan Stakeholder Management.

C.

Control Stakeholder Engagement.

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement.

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Question # 38

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Executing

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Question # 39

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Control Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Question # 40

When is a project finished?

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Question # 41

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Question # 42

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B.

Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)

C.

Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)

D.

Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

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Question # 43

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Question # 44

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

Full Access
Question # 45

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Bottom-up

D.

Top-down

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Question # 46

An output of Control Schedule is:

A.

A project schedule network diagram

B.

A schedule management plan

C.

Schedule data

D.

Schedule forecasts

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Question # 47

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A.

Define Activities.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Scope.

D.

Control Schedule.

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Question # 48

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?

A.

Schedule management plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Quality management plan

D.

Resource management plan

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Question # 49

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Question # 50

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?

A.

When the project uses capital expenditures

B.

When the required staff can be acquired from outside sources

C.

When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses

D.

When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal

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Question # 51

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A.

Portfolio

B.

Project

C.

Program

D.

Operations

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Question # 52

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A.

Critical path method

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Schedule compression

D.

Schedule comparison bar charts

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Question # 53

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A.

Scope changes

B.

Resource limitations

C.

Risk analysis

D.

Quality audits

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Question # 54

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A.

Customer request

B.

Market demand

C.

Technological advance

D.

Strategic opportunity

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Question # 55

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A.

Control Schedule

B.

Define Activities

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Question # 56

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A.

Organizational process assets

B.

A work breakdown structure

C.

The project management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 57

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A.

Cost management plan

B.

Quality management plan

C.

Communications management plan

D.

Risk management plan

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Question # 58

Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A.

Share

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Transfer

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Question # 59

An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:

A.

Activity resource requirements.

B.

Published estimating data.

C.

Resource calendars.

D.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS).

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Question # 60

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Question # 61

Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A.

Sensitivity analysis

B.

Three-point estimate

C.

Modeling and simulation

D.

Expected monetary value analysis

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Question # 62

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A.

Recognized by every project manager

B.

Constantly evolving

C.

The sum of all knowledge related to project management

D.

A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

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Question # 63

Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?

A.

Acceptance of deliverables

B.

Change requests

C.

Project management plan updates

D.

Benchmarking

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Question # 64

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Full Access
Question # 65

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Monitor and Control Project Work

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control

D.

Close Project or Phase

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Question # 66

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A.

requirements documentation.

B.

scope baseline.

C.

project charter.

D.

validated deliverables.

Full Access
Question # 67

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A.

Performance reports

B.

Project charter

C.

Outputs from planning processes

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

Full Access
Question # 68

Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?

A.

Reserve analysis

B.

Three-point estimating

C.

Parametric estimating

D.

Analogous estimating

Full Access
Question # 69

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Question # 70

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Question # 71

The diagram below is an example of a:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Question # 72

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A.

External

B.

Lead

C.

Discretionary

D.

Mandatory

Full Access
Question # 73

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Full Access
Question # 74

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

Full Access
Question # 75

Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project management plan

C.

Business case

D.

Change requests

Full Access
Question # 76

Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?

A.

Estimate at completion

B.

Cost performance

C.

Schedule performance

D.

To-complete performance

Full Access
Question # 77

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

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Question # 78

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

Full Access
Question # 79

When should quality planning be performed?

A.

While developing the project charter

B.

In parallel with the other planning processes

C.

As part of a detailed risk analysis

D.

As a separate step from the other planning processes

Full Access
Question # 80

When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?

A.

Negative

B.

Zero

C.

Positive

D.

Free

Full Access
Question # 81

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Question # 82

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Question # 83

Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?

A.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.

B.

Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,

C.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.

D.

Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.

Full Access
Question # 84

An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A.

change requests

B.

enterprise environmental factors

C.

the stakeholder management plan

D.

the change log

Full Access
Question # 85

Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Closing

D.

Initiating

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Question # 86

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

Full Access
Question # 87

The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?

A.

Timing

B.

Methodology

C.

Risk categories

D.

Budgeting

Full Access
Question # 88

An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A.

Source selection criteria.

B.

Market research.

C.

A stakeholder register.

D.

A records management system.

Full Access
Question # 89

An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:

A.

Deliverables.

B.

Activity lists.

C.

A work breakdown structure.

D.

A scope statement.

Full Access
Question # 90

Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

A.

External

B.

Internal

C.

Mandatory

D.

Discretionary

Full Access
Question # 91

The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Sequence Activities.

C.

Define Activities.

D.

Develop Schedule.

Full Access
Question # 92

The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:

A.

Responses

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Attitude

Full Access
Question # 93

A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:

A.

Expert judgment.

B.

Performance reporting.

C.

Bidder conferences.

D.

Reserve analysis.

Full Access
Question # 94

Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?

A.

Project Scope Management

B.

Project Human Resource Management

C.

Project Integration Management

D.

Project Time Management

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Question # 95

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

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Question # 96

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

Full Access
Question # 97

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Question # 98

A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A.

Executing

B.

Planning

C.

Initiating

D.

Closing

Full Access
Question # 99

Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?

A.

Interrelationship digraphs

B.

Tree diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Network diagram

Full Access
Question # 100

Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?

A.

Cause-and-effect diagram

B.

Histogram

C.

Control chart

D.

Scatter diagram

Full Access
Question # 101

Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A.

Marketplace conditions

B.

Policies and procedures

C.

Project files from previous projects

D.

Lessons learned from previous projects

Full Access
Question # 102

A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:

A.

contingent risk

B.

residual risk

C.

potential risk

D.

secondary risk

Full Access
Question # 103

Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Plan Scope Management

C.

Plan Stakeholder Management

D.

Plan Schedule Management

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Question # 104

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Question # 105

Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:

A.

Continuous

B.

Discrete

C.

Regulated

D.

Arbitrary

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