220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 2025 Exam Question and Answers

This scenario involves a mismatch in device time settings, which can affect synchronization and authentication across the network. Using a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server ensures all networked devices maintain accurate and synchronized clocks.

From Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTP servers keep all devices on a network in sync. This prevents time drift, which can cause authentication issues with domain logins, certificates, and applications.” .

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

AnNDA (Non-Disclosure Agreement)is used to ensure confidentiality of sensitive company information, especially when interacting with external parties.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“An NDA ensures that confidential information is not disclosed to unauthorized individuals, especially important in external communications.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Memory usage is critically high, suggesting many applications or background processes. Closing unnecessary programs will immediately free up RAM.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“High memory usage with moderate CPU load usually means too many applications are open. Close unnecessary apps or use Task Manager to end processes.”

The correct answer is D. Enabling HTTPS-Only Mode, because HTTPS ensures that all communication between the browser and websites is encrypted using TLS (Transport Layer Security). This protects sensitive information such as usernames, passwords, and payment details from interception.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, HTTPS encrypts data in transit, preventing attackers from eavesdropping or modifying communications. HTTPS-only modes in modern browsers block or warn users when a site does not support secure connections.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that HTTPS is essential for protecting authentication credentials and financial information, especially on public or untrusted networks. Enforcing HTTPS-only connections ensures users cannot accidentally submit data over unencrypted HTTP.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that disabling cookies or JavaScript may break website functionality but does not guarantee encryption. Pop-up blockers address nuisance behavior, not data security.

Because the objective is to encrypt browser communications and protect sensitive data, enabling HTTPS-Only Mode is the most effective and direct solution, making D the correct answer.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Device encryptionensures that even if someone bypasses biometrics or has physical access to the phone, they cannot read the stored data without the encryption key.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Encryption is the most effective way to protect data at rest. Even if the device is lost or stolen, encryption ensures the data remains inaccessible without the correct key or passcode.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

To ensure the authenticity of a downloaded application, the most reliable method is to verify the file’s hash (e.g., SHA256, MD5) against the value provided by the legitimate vendor. If the hash values match, the file has not been altered or tampered with. This verification confirms the integrity and authenticity of the executable.

B. Process IDs are dynamic and not unique to specific software.

C. Running in safe mode doesn’t validate legitimacy—it only runs the app in a minimal environment.

D. File names can be spoofed; matching the name does not prove authenticity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.

A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.

B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.

D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) is used to control, monitor, and enforce policies on mobile devices. It allows IT teams to restrict app installations, push approved apps, and monitor device compliance. Deploying MDM would prevent unauthorized applications, such as password crackers, from being installed on company-managed devices.

A. Group Policy is for managing Windows environments and not applicable to smartphones.

B. PAM (Privileged Access Management) controls administrative access, not app installation.

C. Anti-malware can help detect malicious apps but doesn’t prevent their installation proactively.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

User offboarding involves disabling the departing user's access to company systems and facilities. Two key tasks typically include:

Deactivating physical access credentials (e.g., key fobs or badges) to prevent unauthorized entry (B).

Suspending or disabling the user’s email account to prevent future use and to retain business communications (D).

A. Quarantining a hard drive is not standard unless malware or legal issues are involved.

C. Purging PII must follow legal retention policies; it's not typically an immediate offboarding task.

E. Disabling network ports may be relevant in some cases but is not a standard offboarding step.

F. Blocking MAC addresses is not typical unless the device is considered a security threat.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

An evil twin is a rogue wireless access point set up to mimic a legitimate Wi-Fi network. Unsuspecting users may connect to it, giving attackers the opportunity to intercept traffic, steal credentials, or install malware. The evil twin often uses the same SSID as the real network to fool users.

A. Stalkerware is spyware installed to track user activity, typically on personal devices.

C. Tailgating is a physical security breach involving unauthorized entry behind someone with access.

D. Shoulder surfing involves observing a person entering confidential data, such as PINs or passwords.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Shreddingphysically destroys the platters, making data recovery virtually impossible. It's more effective and accessible than degaussing or low-level formatting.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Physical destruction methods like shredding are the most secure options for ensuring data on failed drives cannot be recovered.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Image deployment is the fastest and most efficient method for installing operating systems on multiple machines. It involves creating a pre-configured image of an OS and deploying it across systems using tools like Windows Deployment Services (WDS) or third-party imaging solutions. This method saves time and ensures consistency across all devices.

A. Physical media is slow and not scalable.

B. Mountable ISOs are useful but still require manual installation.

C. Manual installation is time-consuming and not suitable for large-scale deployment.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows an organization to enforce security policies, such as denying network access to jailbroken/rooted devices.

From the All-in-One Exam Guide by Travis Everett and Andrew Hutz:

“MDM software allows administrators to monitor, manage, and secure mobile devices connected to enterprise networks. One key feature is the detection and denial of access for rooted or jailbroken devices”.

Quentin Docter also confirms:

“An MDM solution can check if a device has been rooted and prevent it from accessing the network, ensuring compliance with corporate security standards”.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

A synthetic full backup combines the last full backup with subsequent incremental backups to create a new full backup without re-reading data from the source system. This method significantly reduces the backup window and network impact. It is especially useful when traditional full backups are too time-consuming.

A. Changing the backup window only shifts timing, not duration.

B. Incremental weekly backups would lack a proper full recovery point and aren't ideal alone.

C. Storage space isn't the bottleneck in backup speed—it’s read/write operations and network load.

An MSDS providessafety and emergency procedures, such as what to do if a battery leaks or catches fire. It is not a technical or setup guide.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“An MSDS contains safety information, including handling, storage, and emergency procedures related to potentially hazardous components like UPS batteries.”

The correct answer is C. Browser policy, because the listed requirements apply specifically to browser-level behavior and settings, not general network traffic or system-wide configuration. Browser policies allow administrators to centrally control how browsers behave on managed systems.

The Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide explains that modern browsers support administrative templates or policies that govern password storage, trusted sites, security levels, history handling, and URL restrictions. These policies ensure consistent behavior across all user systems without relying on manual configuration.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide clarifies that while Group Policy can deploy browser policies, the object being configured is still the browser itself. The question asks what is best to configure, not how it is delivered. Browser policies directly control password management, trusted URLs, and security zones.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further notes that web proxies and gateways filter traffic at the network level and cannot control local browser features such as password storage or history retention.

Because every listed requirement is a browser-specific control, the most accurate and targeted solution is Browser policy, making C the correct answer.

The correct answer is B. Add the user to the local Administrators group, because this provides the necessary permissions to install software on a specific machine without granting excessive privileges across the entire domain. This approach follows the principle of least privilege while still allowing the user to perform required testing tasks.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, local administrator rights allow users to install and configure applications on a single system but do not grant access to domain-wide resources. This makes it an appropriate choice for sandboxed or test environments.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide warns against adding users to the Domain Admins group, as this grants full control over the entire Active Directory environment and poses a significant security risk. Sharing credentials or passwords violates security best practices and audit requirements.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that granting local administrative access is a common and accepted practice in controlled testing scenarios, especially when systems are isolated from production environments.

Because the goal is to allow software installation without compromising domain security, adding the user to the local Administrators group is the best and safest option, making B the correct answer.

The correct answer is A. gpedit.msc, which opens the Local Group Policy Editor. Group Policy allows administrators to configure and enforce security-related settings, including screensaver timeout, password protection, and automatic locking, across systems or user accounts.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, Group Policy is commonly used to enforce security policies such as inactivity timeouts, especially in departments handling sensitive data like finance or HR.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that screensaver timeout settings can be configured under User Configuration → Administrative Templates → Control Panel → Personalization, ensuring systems lock automatically after a defined period of inactivity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that tools like certmgr.msc manage certificates, devmgmt.msc manages hardware devices, and perfmon.msc monitors system performance. None of these tools control user security policies.

Because the requirement is to enforce a shorter screensaver timeout for security, Group Policy Editor is the correct and professional tool, making A the correct answer.

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

>Select reply:"I am happy to assist you today."

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

>Select reply:"Is this the first router in your office?"

Third Chat Response:After learning it's a replacement router and the user is logged into the router's web page:

>Select reply:"The first thing you need to do is change the default password."

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

>Select reply:"Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character."

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

>Select reply:"Yes, reboot please."

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

1st CLI Resolution

copy "C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll" "User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32" /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.