220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Question and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:

“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

Reasoning: A cable tester capable of testing Power over Ethernet (PoE) functionality can verify whether the switchport is providing the required power to the phone. This tool measures both the presence of data and the voltage or wattage being provided through the Ethernet cable.

This is the most effective way to confirm that PoE is available on the port.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Network tap:

A network tap is primarily used to monitor network traffic, not to test for PoE availability. It cannot verify if power is being supplied through the Ethernet cable.

C. Loopback plug:

A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port by creating a loop for transmitted and received signals. It does not measure or verify PoE availability.

D. Toner probe:

A toner probe is used for tracing and identifying network cables. It cannot test for PoE functionality.

Practical Example:

A PoE phone might not turn on due to a misconfigured or faulty switchport. Using a cable tester capable of measuring PoE would help the technician determine if the switchport is supplying sufficient power to the phone.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 2.1: Identify common networking hardware and tools, including PoE-enabled devices and cable testers.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining:

The operating system

Applications

Patches, updates, and configurations

This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server environments without purchasing physical hardware.

In contrast:

SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications—users do not manage OS or software.

PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management.

XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning “anything as a service,” not a specific model.

Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA A+ describes satellite internet as:

A wireless broadband solution used where wired infrastructure is unavailable.

Most common in rural and remote areas.

Provides high-speed access where DSL, cable, or fiber cannot be deployed.

Thus, satellite internet is the primary option for rural high-speed access.

Why the other answers are incorrect

A. Fiber – Not available in rural regions due to high installation costs.

C. DSL – Requires phone lines and is distance-limited; rarely available in remote areas.

D. Cable – Requires existing cable TV infrastructure; usually not available rurally.

Final Answer: B

Since the issue only occurs during scanning and copying (not printing or faxing), the problem is isolated to the document feeder. A vertical line is typically caused by debris or damage on theglass under the ADF (Automatic Document Feeder), not on components related to printing.

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a high-performance drive interface commonly found in enterprise environments and servers due to its reliability and speed. While SATA is more common in consumer systems, SAS is specifically designed for mission-critical applications, offering features like full-duplex operation and compatibility with SATA drives.

A distorted image where the screen is not symmetrical (wider at the top or bottom) is typically due to keystone distortion. Adjusting the projector's keystone settings corrects this trapezoidal effect caused by an angled projection.

Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.

Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.

Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.

Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts​.

A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.

Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.

Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.

Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.10, email security controls​.

RAID 1 is known as mirroring. It duplicates all data to both drives simultaneously, providing redundancy in the event of a single drive failure. CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 1 is ideal when reliability is the priority and only two drives are available exactly matching this scenario.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy. RAID 5 requires three or more drives. RAID 10 requires four or more drives.

Since the workstation has only two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID configuration providing data protection and is heavily featured in CompTIA’s coverage of RAID technologies, their requirements, and their purposes in fault tolerance.

Mobile Device Management (MDM)software often controls access to corporate resources based onlocation, network, or VPN status. If the MDM is not configured to allow access from outside the office or via home networks, the apps may be blocked. This is the most probable cause if apps work only on-premises.

Option A:GPS is used for location services, not access control.

Option C:WPA is a Wi-Fi security protocol, not related to access restrictions.

Option D:NFC enables close-range communication irrelevant to app access.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Modifying duplex settings to double-sided:

Printing on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) reduces paper usage, making it one of the most effective environmentally friendly printing initiatives.

It directly minimizes waste and supports sustainability goals in the workplace.

Incorrect Options:

A. Requiring user authentication for printing: While this can reduce unnecessary or unauthorized printing, it does not directly address environmental objectives like saving resources.

B. Locking down printing to only certain individuals: Limiting access may reduce printing overall, but it does not actively contribute to environmentally friendly practices like duplex printing.

D. Changing the print quality settings to best: Using the "best" print quality increases toner or ink usage, which is counterproductive to environmentally friendly objectives.

Key Takeaway:

Modifying duplex settings to enable double-sided printing is the best initiative to achieve environmentally friendly goals by reducing paper consumption.

B. Correct the keystone:

A keystone correction adjusts the image shape when a projector is angled either up or down. When a projector is not positioned directly perpendicular to the screen, the image becomes distorted or offset. Correcting the keystone will resolve alignment issues, ensuring that the presentation matches the display.

Incorrect Options:

A. Adjust the color settings: This is used for improving color balance and has no impact on ghosting or mismatched images.

C. Increase the brightness levels: Brightness changes the visibility of the image but does not address ghosting or alignment.

D. Replace the monitor: Replacing the monitor is unnecessary unless there is hardware failure, which is not indicated here.

Key Takeaway: Keystone correction is essential to resolve alignment and distortion issues in projected images.

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is required for high-end video cards.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) utilizes the M.2 or PCIe interface for the fastest SSD performance.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Motherboard expansion slots and storage interfaces:

“High-end video cards require a PCIe slot, while NVMe drives use M.2 (PCIe) slots for the highest data transfer rates.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Motherboard and Storage

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

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Intermittent connectivity issues with network printers are commonly caused by changing IP addresses when using DHCP. Assigning a static IP address ensures that the printer is always reachable at the same IP address by client machines.

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and forwards traffic using MAC addresses. CompTIA A+ teaches that switches maintain a MAC address table, learning which devices reside on each port. When a frame arrives, the switch checks the destination MAC address and forwards it only to the appropriate port, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving performance.

Routers, on the other hand, operate at Layer 3 and forward traffic based on IP addresses, not MAC addresses. Firewalls inspect traffic for security policies and operate across multiple OSI layers but do not perform MAC-based forwarding. A gateway is a broad term that generally refers to a device connecting different networks or protocols, typically involving routing, not MAC-based switching.

Thus, the device specifically responsible for forwarding frames based on MAC address lookup is the switch.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

CompTIA A+ Core 1 memory standards describe the differences between DDR generations. One of the key improvements in DDR4 over DDR3 is reduced operating voltage, which allows lower power consumption and increased efficiency.

DDR3 operates at 1.5V (some variants 1.35V)

DDR4 operates at 1.2V (some variants 1.05V LPDDR4)

This lower voltage is a recognized defining characteristic separating DDR4 from DDR3.

Other differences such as increased speed and internal bank structure exist, but the question specifically asks for the characteristic that differentiates DDR4 from DDR3 — and voltage is the correct, primary distinction used in CompTIA A+ materials.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Higher latency

DDR4 generally has slightly higher CAS latency numbers, but due to increased speed, real latency is similar. This is not the standard differentiator referenced by CompTIA.

C. Increased DIMM width

DDR3 and DDR4 standard DIMMs both have a 64-bit data width.

D. Single-sided modules

Both DDR3 and DDR4 can be single- or double-sided; not a differentiating factor.

Final Answer: A

If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.

Why Not A (Replace the hard drive's USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections or errors, not just slower speeds.

Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.

Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of the slow backups.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting​.

AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.

Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.

Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.

Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

To run Secure Boot, the system must have:

✔ UEFI firmware (not legacy BIOS)

Secure Boot is a UEFI feature that validates bootloaders using digitally signed keys stored in secure firmware.

✔ TPM (Trusted Platform Module)

The TPM stores cryptographic keys in tamper-resistant hardware, enabling secure key management that cannot be altered by normal users.

CompTIA materials describe TPM as essential for enhanced platform security and for storing validated boot keys when Secure Boot is enabled.

Together, UEFI + TPM provide:

Verified boot loader

Hardware-level key protection

Prevention of unauthorized OS tampering

Non-user-controllable secure key storage

Why the other options are incorrect

A. VDI – Virtual desktops; unrelated to Secure Boot hardware requirements.

B. BIOS password – Helps protect firmware settings but is not required for Secure Boot.

E. Disabled boot drive – Irrelevant to Secure Boot.

F. USB permissions – Not part of Secure Boot requirements.

Final Answer: C, D

NFC (Near-Field Communication) is a subset of RFID technology designed for very short-range wireless communication, typically within a few centimeters. It is primarily used for contactless transactions, like mobile payments, and can also support peer-to-peer data exchanges. NFC operates at 13.56 MHz and enables devices to communicate when placed near each other.

To change adomain passwordfrom a remote location, the system must communicate with thedomain controller. Since the user is working from home, they need toconnect to the corporate VPNto establish that secure connection. Without it, the password change cannot be authenticated.

Option A:Restarting will not resolve the lack of connection to the domain controller.

Option C:Resetting the password in AD could help, but doesn’t let the user reset it themselves.

Option D:The user may already be on Wi-Fi; the issue is with connecting to thecorporate network, not local.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

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A port replicator is designed to allow a user to quickly connect a laptop to multiple peripherals (display, keyboard, mouse, network, etc.) using a single interface, reducing setup time.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:

“Port replicators offer quick connections for multiple peripherals, streamlining the process of docking and undocking a laptop.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA A+ describes satellite internet as:

A wireless broadband solution used where wired infrastructure is unavailable.

Most common in rural and remote areas.

Provides high-speed access where DSL, cable, or fiber cannot be deployed.

Thus, satellite internet is the primary option for rural high-speed access.

Why the other answers are incorrect

A. Fiber – Not available in rural regions due to high installation costs.

C. DSL – Requires phone lines and is distance-limited; rarely available in remote areas.

D. Cable – Requires existing cable TV infrastructure; usually not available rurally.

Final Answer: B

DHCP normally assigns IP addresses dynamically using timed leases, meaning the address may change after expiration. However, many devices—such as servers, printers, or specialized workstations—require permanent, predictable IP addresses. CompTIA A+ identifies a DHCP reservation as the correct method for assigning a consistent IP while still using DHCP.

A reservation binds a device’s MAC address to a specific IP address in the DHCP server. Each time the device requests an address, the DHCP server recognizes the MAC address and issues the same IP. This provides reliability while still allowing centralized management of network addressing.

A lease is temporary and not permanent. An exclusion simply removes certain IP addresses from the assignable pool—it does not assign any device a fixed address. A scope option configures additional network parameters such as DNS, gateway, or WINS settings but does not assign static IPs.

Therefore, a reservation is the correct method to permanently assign an IP address using DHCP without requiring static configuration on the device itself.

A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment used to test potentially harmful software or code. It prevents the software from affecting the main system, allowing safe malware testing. Thismethod is standard in cybersecurity best practices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When installing an operating system from external media (USB flash drive), the motherboard firmware must be instructed to check that device before checking the internal storage.

The CompTIA A+ official objectives describe that technicians must know how to access UEFI/BIOS settings and configure boot priority. Installing an OS from USB requires:

Entering UEFI/BIOS setup

Navigating to the Boot or Startup menu

Setting the USB drive as the first boot device

Saving and exiting to allow the computer to boot from the USB installer

This process is specifically referenced in CompTIA A+ material under “BIOS/UEFI settings,” where boot sequence / boot order is a fundamental configuration needed for OS installation.

Thus, the next step after assembling the PC is to modify the boot order to allow the system to boot from the USB installation media.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. BIOS password

Used for system access security; has no relevance to installing an OS from USB.

B. PXE boot

Used for network-based installations, not USB installations.

C. Secure Boot

Controls OS signature validation; not required to be changed for USB installation and is not the next required step.

Final Answer: D

A common reason for aPOST failureafter a motherboard installation isimproperly seated RAM. The system requires working memory to successfully complete POST. Reseating (removing and reinserting) the RAM ensures it's making proper contact with the motherboard.

Option A:Flashing the BIOS is not possible if the system won’t POST.

Option B:A dead CMOS battery can cause BIOS settings to reset, but it usually won’t prevent POST entirely.

Option D:Reinstalling the old motherboard is premature basic troubleshooting steps should be completed first.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

The default gateway is the network device responsible for routing traffic from a local computer to destinations outside its subnet. When a new firewall is deployed and intended to manage outbound traffic, client devices must be configured to send packets to this firewall. CompTIA A+ identifies the gateway setting as the key parameter that determines where a workstation sends its external-bound traffic.

By updating the gateway address to point to the new firewall’s internal interface, all internet-bound and off-subnet traffic will now pass through the firewall for filtering, inspection, and routing. This ensures correct traffic flow and enforces security policies.

Changing the VPN settings (A) does not affect local traffic routing unless a VPN tunnel is active. Subnet mask adjustments (C) determine the network size but do not control routing. VLAN settings (D) require switch configuration, not workstation changes, and do not dictate default routing behavior.

Thus, modifying the gateway is the correct and necessary step to route all traffic through the newly implemented firewall.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that allows users to access applications over the Internet without managing the infrastructure or platform. Users can log in via a browser or app on any device, such as a laptop, with minimal configuration required.

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power protection:

“A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges, ensuring system integrity.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let’s break it down:

Correct Answer: A. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.

Encrypted hard drives, such as those secured with BitLocker encryption, rely on the cryptographic keys stored in the TPM to unlock data.

Clearing the TPM will erase these keys, making it impossible for the encrypted drive to decrypt its contents unless a recovery key (separate from the TPM) is available. Without this recovery key, the data will likely become inaccessible.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference: This falls under Objective 3.5, which covers understanding BIOS/UEFI configurations, TPM functions, and securing devices.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.

Clearing the TPM does not erase security certificates stored in the operating system or other areas. Certificates are generally managed by the OS or specific applications, not the TPM.Clearing the TPM only affects cryptographic keys and data stored in the TPM chip, so this is incorrect.

C. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment typically does not rely on the TPM. While certain enterprise security configurations may involve the TPM, clearing it does not inherently trigger MDM reenrollment unless specifically tied to the MDM configuration.

D. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.

While domain registrations may sometimes use TPM for authentication or secure operations, clearing the TPM alone does not require re-registering the device to the domain. The domain registration and authentication process rely more on system-level credentials than the TPM itself.

Practical Example:

A user enables BitLocker on their laptop, which relies on the TPM to store the encryption key. Later, if they clear the TPM via BIOS/UEFI without saving the BitLocker recovery key separately, they will not be able to unlock the hard drive, leading to data loss unless the recovery key is available. This is a common issue when technicians or users inadvertently clear the TPM without understanding its role in encryption.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components, including UEFI/BIOS security settings (TPM, secure boot, etc.).

This question tests understanding of TPM functionality, encryption technologies, and secure device configurations.

Mobile Application Management (MAM) enforces policies restricting access to apps and services based on location, ensuring security at external sites.

Why Not A (MOW): "Mobile Only Workplace" (MOW) is not a recognized term in this context.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) is unrelated to mobile device policies.

Why Not C (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user accounts but does not enforce app restrictions.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, mobile device security policies​.

An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:

"eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

If a laptop shuts down when undocked and remains powered off even with a new charging cable, the internal battery is likely faulty and cannot hold a charge. Replacing the battery is the next troubleshooting step.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

"If a laptop only works when docked or connected to AC power, and a replacement cable does not resolve the issue, the internal battery may need to be replaced."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI)hosts desktop environments on centralized servers. Thisallowsrapid deployment and consistent configurationacross multiple users, minimizing manual setup and easing IT management.

Option A:VDI still uses standard authentication methods.

Option B:Licensing can actually be more expensive due to virtualization software and backend servers.

Option D:VDI centralizes the desktop environment viruses would affect the virtual session, not be "contained locally."

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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Paper jams and smudging in high-volume printers are often caused bydirty or worn rollers. Rollers are responsible for feeding the paper through the printer. Over time, they accumulate dust, toner residue, or wear out, resulting in misfeeds or jams. Cleaning or replacing them typically resolves this issue.

Option A (Factory reset):A full reset does not directly address mechanical issues like dirty rollers or smudging. It’s a last resort and more relevant to configuration or software-related issues.

Option C (Change toner cartridges):While toner quality can affect print quality, it won’t usually cause jams or widespread smudging unless the cartridge is leaking which is less likely across multiple users.

Option D (Replace the fuser):A damaged fuser could cause smudging, but this is typically after extensive use and is not the first thing to check. Fuser issues also usually present more persistent, uniform smudges.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

CompTIA networking fundamentals describe VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) as a method to segment network traffic logically, even while using the same physical switch hardware.

A VLAN allows a company to:

Separate traffic by department

Improve security

Reduce broadcast domains

Control inter-department access

To separate accounting and customer service networks, VLANs are the industry-standard and the CompTIA-approved method.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. VPN – Used for secure remote connections, not internal LAN segmentation.

B. DNS – Resolves hostnames to IPs, not used for network separation.

D. DHCP – Assigns IP addresses; does not isolate network groups.

Final Answer: C

An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing dedicated resources and enhanced control.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:

“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – Network services and protocols:

“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6

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DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.

F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output. DisplayPort's support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.

A failing CPU fan may make unusual noises (including clicking) and, if it is not cooling the CPU, the system will quickly overheat and shut down to prevent damage.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshooting hardware problems:

“Overheating due to a failed or obstructed CPU fan can cause frequent shutdowns. Loud noises are a sign the fan should be checked first.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: PC Hardware Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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CompTIA A+ teaches that the default gateway is required for any device to communicate with external networks such as the internet. Without a configured default gateway, the computer can communicate only with devices on the same local subnet explaining why the file server is reachable.

DNS and IPv6 settings are not the issue; without a gateway, external routing cannot occur. Flushing DNS affects hostname resolution, not routing. NetBIOS settings have no effect on internet connectivity.

Adding or correcting the default gateway (usually the router’s LAN IP, such as 192.168.1.1) will allow the PC to route traffic beyond its local network.

This aligns precisely with CompTIA’s troubleshooting steps for missing or incorrect gateway configuration.

Adocking stationconnects to a laptop’sproprietary port or USB-C/Thunderbolt, providing access tomultiple additional ports(USB, Ethernet, video, audio, etc.). It allows users to transform a laptop into a full desktop workstation.

Option A (NFC adapter):Used for short-range communication, not port expansion.

Option C (Port replicator):Similar to a dock but usually less powerful and often lacks charging or video output.

Option D (USB dongle):Adds a single function (like Wi-Fi or storage), not full port expansion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.4: Given a scenario, configure settings and use cases for laptops and mobile devices.

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Outdated drivers: Device functionality issues after an OS upgrade are often caused by incompatible or outdated drivers.

Disabled settings: Some features may be disabled during the upgrade process, requiring re-enablement.

Why Not A (Incorrect configuration): This is unlikely given the issues arose only after the upgrade.

Why Not B (OS and device incompatibility): Upgrades check for compatibility before installation.

Why Not D (Full storage): Storage issues typically prevent installation, not device functionality.

Why Not F (Corrupted registry entries): While possible, this is less common than the selected answers.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.5, troubleshooting OS upgrades​.

The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.

Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors​.

CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.

Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper, and fiber uses light instead of RF.

Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the correct answers.

An NVMe port, typically implemented through an M.2 slot, is designed specifically for NVMe-based solid-state drives (SSDs). CompTIA A+ explains that NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance storage protocol that communicates directly with the CPU over PCIe lanes, offering significantly faster read/write speeds compared to SATA-based SSDs.

SATA drives (A) connect via SATA ports, not NVMe/M.2 PCIe slots. SAS drives (C) are enterprise-level storage devices requiring SAS controllers and are incompatible with consumer desktop motherboards. Optical drives (D) use SATA or USB interfaces and cannot be installed in an NVMe slot.

Thus, the only device designed for and compatible with an NVMe slot is a solid-state drive (SSD) using the NVMe protocol.

Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for remote desktop connections in Windows environments. This port allows remote control and management of systems across the network.

If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

============

Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It's four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.

Option A (1920x1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.

Option B (2048x1080):DCI 2K used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.

Option D (7680x4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.7: Compare and contrast display technologies and their features.

===========

Dual-BIOS motherboards contain two firmware chips. If theprimary BIOS becomescorrupted, the system canfailover to the secondary BIOS. Most boards allow manual enabling of the secondary BIOS via a physical switch or jumper.

Option B:Downgrading firmware may not be possible if the system won’t POST or access UEFI.

Option C:Not necessary until both BIOS chips are non-functional.

Option D:Thermal paste affects heat dissipation, not BIOS/boot behavior.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

Firewalls are specifically designed to monitor, filter, and control network traffic using Access Control Lists (ACLs). ACLs define which traffic is allowed or denied based on parameters like IP address, protocol, or port.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware and security:

“Firewalls use access control lists (ACLs) to allow or deny traffic based on rules. Unmanaged switches and PoE injectors do not support ACLs.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Security Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

============

RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.

RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.

Identifying changes made to the system is the next step to troubleshoot why an application no longer launches, as recent changes often cause such issues.

Why Not A (Research the symptoms): Research is broader and should come after identifying changes.

Why Not C (Determine which steps need to be performed): This comes after identifying the issue.

Why Not D (Check the vendor's website): This is a later step if further guidance is needed.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​.

Reasoning: Many docking stations provide power and functionality only when the laptop is properly powered on. If the laptop was powered off (e.g., during the vacation), docking it will not automatically turn it on. The technician should first ensure the laptop is powered on by pressing the power button.

This is a common troubleshooting step when laptops in docking stations appear non-functional.

Relevance to CompTIA A+ Core 1: This falls under Objective 5.2, which covers diagnosing and resolving common laptop and mobile device issues.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Ensure the docking station is plugged in:

While ensuring power to the docking station is important, the scenario specifies that the issue occurred after a vacation. The likelihood of the docking station losing power coincidentally during the vacation is low. Verifying the laptop's power state should be the first step.

C. Plug the laptop in and let it charge overnight:

There is no indication the laptop’s battery is drained. While charging could resolve a dead battery, the user is more likely experiencing an issue where the laptop is powered off but docked, so charging overnight is not the best first step.

D. Connect the laptop directly to the network:

A network connection will not resolve the primary issue of the keyboard and display not working. Addressing the laptop’s power state is a higher priority.

Practical Example:

If a user returns from a vacation and places a powered-off laptop into a docking station, it may not automatically power on. Pressing the power button ensures the laptop is operational and communicating with the docking station.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.2: Troubleshooting common laptop issues, including power, display, and peripheral connectivity.

Large electrical motors can emit electromagnetic interference (EMI), which can disrupt wireless signals and prevent connectivity.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wireless troubleshooting:

“Sources of external interference such as motors or other electrical equipment can disrupt wireless network connectivity.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

============

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) hosts user desktops on centralized servers rather than physical PCs. Users access a virtual desktop session remotely through thin clients, laptops, or web browsers. The CompTIA A+ cloud-computing domain explains that VDI improves manageability, security, and resource efficiency by allowing IT to centralize OS images, apps, and updates.

SaaS provides applications not desktops. RMM is for monitoring and managing devices. Containers virtualize applications, not full desktops.

VDI enables organizations to avoid purchasing physical desktops while still delivering full computing environments to users, which aligns with the A+ virtualization objectives and remote-access concepts.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables administrators to enforce controls on enterprise devices, such as restricting apps, ensuring compliance, and remotely managing security policies.

Why Not B (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user access but does not control device configurations.

Why Not C (VPN): VPN secures communication but does not enforce device controls.

Why Not D (SSL): SSL secures data in transit but does not provide device management.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management concepts​.

Changing the page orientation(e.g., fromportrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.

Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.

Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.

Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

When a newly built computer successfully passes POST, it indicates that the CPU, RAM, motherboard, video output, and other essential components are functioning at a hardware level. POST will typically fail or display error codes if there are problems with the CPU, RAM, GPU, or power delivery. Therefore, the fact that POST succeeds allows us to eliminate those components from suspicion.

The issue arises after POST, when the system attempts to load an operating system. For the OS to load, the BIOS/UEFI must detect a working storage device—such as an HDD, SSD, or NVMe drive—containing a bootable OS. If the computer cannot locate or read the drive, the system will halt at a boot error, such as “No boot device found,” “Insert boot media,” or similar messages. This is consistent with a failed or improperly connected HDD.

A failed HDD prevents access to boot files, even though the rest of the system hardware functions normally. Audio cards are irrelevant to booting. A failed CPU would cause a POST failure, not an OS loading issue. A faulty power supply would affect system stability during POST, not specifically OS boot failure unless the system is not powering at all.

Thus, the failed component is the HDD.

Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.

Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.

Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.

Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network types and purposes​.

When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.

Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.

Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.

Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

Software as a Service (SaaS) provides users access to fully managed applications hosted in the cloud. CompTIA A+ explains that SaaS is subscription-based and typically billed monthly or annually, which aligns perfectly with the phrase “recurring fee.” Business productivity applications—such as Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Zoom, Slack, and Salesforce—are classic examples of SaaS offerings.

SaaS applications run entirely in the provider’s cloud environment, eliminating the need for installation, maintenance, or management by the customer. This makes SaaS ideal for businesses that need reliable, scalable tools without maintaining their own infrastructure.

DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops.

PaaS (Platform as a Service) offers a development framework for building applications.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtual servers, storage, and networking—not end-user productivity apps.

Thus, SaaS is the correct and only model that matches the description of subscription-based access to productivity applications.

The symptoms slow response and failed app launches indicate that thedevice's memory or processing resources are overutilized. Closing unnecessary apps can free up RAM and CPU resources, improving performance.

Option A:Overheating may cause sluggishness, but that’s not indicated here.

Option C:Factory reset is a last resort, not the next logical step.

Option D:Battery health would affect uptime, not system speed.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

Upgrading to asolid-state drive (SSD)providesmore storage spaceandfaster read/write speeds, which resolves both the “insufficient storage” error and slow application loads.

Option B (USB):Not intended for permanent application storage or performance improvements.

Option C (HDD):Could solve storage capacity but would not improve speed.

Option D (RAM):Affects multitasking and memory-intensive tasks, not storage capacity directly.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.

When a laptop powers on but the screen is blank, the quickest way to isolate the problem is to connect to an external monitor. This helps determine if the issue is with the laptop display or with the graphics subsystem.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

“A blank screen on a laptop with power indicators lit should be tested with an external display first to rule out a faulty screen or ribbon cable.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Laptop Display Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

============

Tethering refers to sharing a mobile phone’s internet connection with another device, such as a laptop, either through USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Tethering effectively turns the mobile phone into a personal hotspot for internet access.

Option A (IR): Incorrect. Infrared (IR) is used for short-range communication, such as remote controls, but it does not support internet sharing.

Option B (NFC): Incorrect. Near-field communication (NFC) is used for close-proximity data transfer, not for internet sharing.

Option C (Wi-Fi Direct): Incorrect. Wi-Fi Direct enables device-to-device communication but does not inherently provide internet sharing.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.

Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.

Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.

Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts​.

SMB (Server Message Block)is a protocol used to access files and printers over a network, including across shared network folders. It enables the user to access and print files stored remotely on a shared directory.

Option A (ADF):Automatic Document Feeder hardware, not a network protocol.

Option B (USB):Used for direct physical connections, not for printing over networks.

Option C (PCL):Printer Command Language relates to printer drivers, not file sharing or access.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

AnMX (Mail Exchange)record defineswhich mail servers are responsible for receiving emailfor a domain. If you want to change or redirect email traffic, theMX recordmust be updated with the correct server information.

Option B (TXT):Stores text-based info used for SPF, DKIM, etc.

Option C (SPF):Part of email authentication stored in a TXT record; doesn’t redirect traffic.

Option D (CNAME):Alias for another domain name not used for email routing.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.4: Compare and contrast common networking hardware.

===========

2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical barriers.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 – Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols:

“The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more easily absorbed by walls.”

NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances (a few centimeters).

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5

============

Improper seating is the most common reason an SSD isn’t recognized. Ensuring it is correctly connected resolves the issue.

Why Not A (Faulty SSD): A faulty SSD is possible but less likely than an installation issue.

Why Not B (Not formatted): Formatting affects data usability, not drive detection.

Why Not C (Incompatibility): SSD compatibility issues are rare with modern hardware.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.3, storage troubleshooting​.

Assigning astatic IP addressto a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.

Option B (Private address):Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) doesn't guarantee address persistence.

Option C (Wi-Fi):Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.

Option D (Dynamic addressing):Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.

Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.

Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically implement ACLs.

Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts​.

If the user is on a guest network and cannot access internal resources like printers, connecting to the corporate Wi-Fi will place the device on the correct subnet to access the printer.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network segmentation:

“Guest networks are isolated from internal resources for security. Connect to the main corporate Wi-Fi to access shared devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

============

After determining the issue is likely on the remote server, the technician should test the theory to confirm the root cause before proceeding.

Why Not A (Document the findings): Documentation comes after confirming the issue.

Why Not C (Gather information): Information gathering is already completed.

Why Not D (Establish a plan of action): This is done after confirming the issue.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​.

The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.

Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here’s the breakdown:

A. Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):

Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).

It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.

For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.

Incorrect Options:

B. Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.

C. Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.

D. Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.

Key Takeaway:

For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m), Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.

A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host, making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments. Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts:

“A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual machines. This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and isolation.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

If performance isnot a primary concernand the user requireslarge, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDDis ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.

Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.

Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.

Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive overkill for desktop use.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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APrivate Cloudis operated solely for a single organization. It ishosted on-premises or in a dedicated off-site data center, giving the company full control over data, security, and compliance often hosted in theorganization’s own local data center.

Option B (Public):Hosted by third-party providers and shared by multiple clients.

Option C (Hybrid):Combines private and public cloud resources.

Option D (Community):Shared by several organizations with similar goals.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

===========

ANetwork Interface Card (NIC)is the hardware responsible for network connectivity. If the NIC is failing or underperforming (e.g., due to a bad driver, hardware fault, or misconfiguration), it can causeslow or unstable network speeds.

Option A (CPU):A failing CPU affects overall system performance but not specifically network speed.

Option C (HDD):A slow hard drive causes application lag, but not poor network performance.

Option D (RAM):Affects multitasking and speed, not network throughput.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to wired and wireless networks.

===========

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology):

S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system integrated into modern HDDs and SSDs that detects and reports on various indicators of drive health and reliability.

A S.M.A.R.T. error indicates that the drive is showing signs of impending failure, even if the PC continues to boot and work normally for the time being.

Next Steps:

The appropriate action is to replace the hard drive (HDD) because a S.M.A.R.T. error is an early warning of possible hardware failure. Ignoring the warning could result in data loss if the drive fails completely.

The technician should also back up the user's data immediately to avoid losing critical information.

Incorrect Options:

B. Update the PC's BIOS: While keeping the BIOS updated is a good practice, it does not address the S.M.A.R.T. error, which is specific to the HDD.

C. Close the ticket: Closing the ticket without resolving the issue would be improper, as the S.M.A.R.T. error is a hardware problem that needs to be addressed to prevent future data loss or downtime.

D. Change the NIC: The NIC (Network Interface Card) is unrelated to the storage system and would not resolve a S.M.A.R.T. error.

Key Takeaway:

A S.M.A.R.T. error is a critical indicator of HDD health issues, and the drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Backing up data is also essential.

An A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address in a DNS server.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – DNS records:

“A records map hostnames to IPv4 addresses, while AAAA records map to IPv6 addresses.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: DNS Records

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6

============

D. POST Code Beeps:

During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.

These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.

Incorrect Options:

A. Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.

B. Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.

C. Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.

Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.

Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.

Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.

Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access control and permissions​.

Cloud storage platforms—such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox—use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.

Synchronization allows users to:

Modify files offline and have them sync once online

Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices

Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients

Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution

A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.

Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.