220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Question and Answers

Port 110 is used by POP3, a protocol designed for downloading emails from a remote server to a local client. POP3 does not inherently synchronize changes (such as read status, folder organization, or deletions) between devices. The customer wants a more secure connection that automatically synchronizes with the server, which directly aligns with the functions of IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

IMAP typically uses port 143 for unencrypted connections and 993 for secure, encrypted connections (IMAPS). It is designed for modern email usage—supporting multi-device access, live synchronization across clients, and server-stored mail. When a user reads, deletes, or moves an email using IMAP, these changes are reflected on the server and visible on every device logged into the same account.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that IMAP is preferred for users requiring constant synchronization, mobile access, and cloud-based email management, while POP3 is considered outdated. IMAP also supports secure, encrypted communication when paired with SSL/TLS.

HTTPS and SFTP do not handle email retrieval, and SMTP is a sending protocol, not a retrieval protocol. Therefore, IMAP is the only correct and CompTIA-aligned upgrade option.

If a desktopfails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is afaulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.

Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.

Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.

Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

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An IP address starting with169.254.x.xis aself-assigned address(also calledAPIPA– Automatic Private IP Addressing). It’s used when a client device cannot contact a DHCP server. This address allows limited communication on the local network segment butno internet access.

Option A:DHCP reservations assign specific IPs from the DHCP server they don’t result in APIPA.

Option B:Dynamic assignment from DHCP assigns valid IPs in the proper subnet, not 169.254.x.x.

Option D:Static IPs are manually set and would not fall in the 169.254.x.x range unless set incorrectly.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

CompTIA A+ explains that DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) relies on TXT DNS records to define its policies. TXT records allow administrators to publish arbitrary text-based configuration data, including DKIM and SPF policies, which DMARC references.

MX records identify mail servers, A records map IP addresses, and CNAME records create aliases none are used to store DMARC policy rules.

DMARC improves email authenticity by requiring SPF and DKIM alignment and specifying how receiving servers should handle failed validations. The A+ exam explicitly mentions TXT records as the method used for SPF, DKIM, and DMARC storage.

Therefore, the correct answer is the TXT record, which stores the policy used by DMARC to authenticate senders and prevent spoofing.

Modern motherboards require both the 24-pin ATX connector and a 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector. If the CPU power connector is not attached, the motherboard will receive power but the system will not boot. CompTIA A+ specifically lists this as a common mistake after replacing a power supply.

Insufficient wattage may cause instability, but usually the system still attempts to start. RAM does not prevent power-on if missing; instead, the system produces beep codes. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not standard desktops.

Therefore, the missing CPU power connector is the most likely cause, and this scenario reflects typical troubleshooting steps outlined in A+ hardware diagnostics.

Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.

Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds—not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.

Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.

Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.

From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions—especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.

Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.

With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users’ reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.

Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.

Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.

C. Initiate the system restore:

If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.

System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.

Incorrect Options:

A. Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.

B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.

D. Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.

Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.

D. POST Code Beeps:

During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.

These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.

Incorrect Options:

A. Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.

B. Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.

C. Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.

Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.

When an application fails to install on a smartphone despite being supported by the OS and device type, CompTIA A+ stresses that the most common cause is insufficient storage. Mobile devices require not only space for the app itself but also additional temporary space for the installation process, cached data, and updates. If internal storage is nearly full, the app store will display installation errors—even if the OS and hardware meet requirements.

Battery health has no impact on app installation. A SIM card is unrelated to installing local applications—it only affects cellular connectivity. Processor architecture issues would have been caught during compatibility checking, but the technician already verified the device supports the application.

Therefore, after confirming compatibility, the next logical step is to check available storage space. If storage is low, deleting unused apps, clearing cached data, or transferring media to cloud storage or an SD card typically resolves the installation issue.

Thus, Option A: Storage is the correct answer.

Changing the page orientation(e.g., fromportrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.

Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.

Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.

Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

To allow multiple users to print to networked printers:

Printer shares enable users to access printers shared on the network.

Print servers manage print jobs and provide centralized control of printing.

Why Not B (DHCP server): DHCP is unrelated to print management.

Why Not D (Printer subnet): Subnets group devices but don’t manage printing.

Why Not E (SMB configuration): SMB is for file sharing, not specifically print management.

Why Not F (Printer Wi-Fi settings): These settings are irrelevant since the printers use Ethernet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer configuration​.

BitLocker Drive Encryption in Windows requires aTrusted Platform Module (TPM)to encrypt the boot drive securely. The TPM is a dedicated microcontroller designed to secure hardware through integrated cryptographic keys. It validates system integrity during boot and securely stores the encryption keys. If BitLocker cannot find a TPM or it is disabled in BIOS/UEFI, drive encryption cannot proceed.

BitLocker can function without TPM using a USB startup key, but this compromises some security and is not recommended for managed enterprise environments.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When assigning a static IP address to a network device such as a printer, the administrator must manually enter all information that a DHCP server would normally provide automatically.

CompTIA A+ networking fundamentals explain that a statically assigned host requires:

IP address (set manually)

Subnet mask (must be manually configured to define the network boundary)

Default gateway (must be manually assigned so the device can communicate outside its subnet)

DNS (also typically required, but in SOHO printer configs, it is not always mandatory unless name resolution is needed)

The question asks specifically: Which must be set manually?

The two required components for every static IP assignment in a CompTIA-compliant small office network are:

✔ B. Subnet mask

Defines the network and host portions of the IP address. Must be manually entered for static IPs.

✔ C. Default gateway

Allows communication outside the local network. Must also be manually set for static IP devices.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. DHCP

Not used in static addressing. DHCP is automatic; static addressing bypasses it.

D. DNS

Not always required for printers unless hostname resolution is needed. The question asks for what must be set manually.

E. Reservations

DHCP reservations create “static-like” addresses via DHCP, not manual configuration.

F. Exclusions

Used to prevent DHCP from assigning certain IPs; not part of configuring a static IP on a device.

A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.

Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.

Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.

Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, cryptographic hardware​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.

The first security step after deploying a new router is to change the default administrative password. Default credentials are well known and pose a security risk if left unchanged.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.3 – Secure a wireless network:

“Always change default administrative credentials before further configuration to prevent unauthorized access.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Security

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.3

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Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.

Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical for hardware deployment across regions.

Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but does not directly impact deployment.

Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is not relevant to regional compatibility.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client-server communication.

Port 25 (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):

This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).

SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.

A common reason for aPOST failureafter a motherboard installation isimproperly seated RAM. The system requires working memory to successfully complete POST. Reseating (removing and reinserting) the RAM ensures it's making proper contact with the motherboard.

Option A:Flashing the BIOS is not possible if the system won’t POST.

Option B:A dead CMOS battery can cause BIOS settings to reset, but it usually won’t prevent POST entirely.

Option D:Reinstalling the old motherboard is premature basic troubleshooting steps should be completed first.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.

Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.

Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.

Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.

When printing on preprinted forms, precise alignment is critical. If print output shifts downward on the page, the first step is to ensure that the correct paper type and form stock are loaded properly. CompTIA A+ emphasizes verifying media type and tray configuration when dealing with alignment issues, especially in environments using specialized or preformatted paper.

Preprinted forms often require thicker media, specialty settings, or exact tray loading orientation to ensure feeding accuracy. If the wrong paper type is selected on the printer or print driver, the printer may adjust feed rate, roller pressure, or margin expectations incorrectly, causing vertical misalignment. Thus, confirming the correct paper type is loaded—and that the printer is configured for that type—is the most fundamental starting point.

Orientation settings (C) could affect sideways alignment but not vertical shifting. Pickup rollers (D) can cause skewing or paper jams, but they generally do not cause consistent downward shifts. PostScript drivers (B) relate to graphic rendering but do not affect form alignment unless dealing with complex images, which is not indicated here.

Therefore, confirming correct paper type and loading aligns with CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology: always check the simplest, most likely physical cause first—especially with form printing.

Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. One significant advantage is that it allows organizations to keep sensitive data in a private environment to meet regulatory or data residency requirements, while still utilizing the scalability and cost-efficiency of the public cloud for other workloads. This ensures compliance with legal mandates about data location.

A container is the ideal environment for software testing when access to the underlying operating system must be restricted. CompTIA A+ explains that containers isolate applications from the host OS by packaging the app and all its dependencies into a controlled environment. This prevents the application from modifying or interfering with the host system and ensures predictable, consistent behavior across environments.

Unlike virtual machines, containers do not include a full OS installation; they share the host OS kernel but run in isolated user-space environments. This makes them lightweight, fast to deploy, and secure—perfect for developers testing new or potentially unstable applications.

A Type 2 hypervisor hosts full virtual machines but does not inherently limit OS access. A VDI provides remote desktops but is not designed for controlled application testing. A quarantined PC is used for isolating infected or suspicious systems, not structured development testing.

Thus, containers provide the controlled, restricted environment required.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150 Words):

A proxy server acts as an intermediary between client devices and the internet. One of its primary functions is URL filtering, web-content restriction, and logging user activity. When a user attempts to connect to a website, the request first goes to the proxy, where filtering rules determine whether the site is allowed or blocked. CompTIA A+ 220-1201 emphasizes that proxies help organizations control outbound traffic, enforce browsing policies, block malicious or inappropriate content, and improve security through caching.

Spam gateways only filter email, DHCP assigns IP addresses, and RADIUS handles authentication, none of which enforce website restriction. Therefore, the correct solution for content control is a proxy server, as stated in the Networking domain of the A+ curriculum.

B. USB-C:

USB-C is a versatile connector that supports charging, high-speed data transfer, and the ability to send audio and video signals (e.g., DisplayPort over USB-C).

It is used by most modern mobile devices and laptops because of its fast transfer speeds and power delivery capabilities.

Incorrect Options:

A. Lightning: Lightning is proprietary to Apple devices and does not natively support video output.

C. MicroUSB: MicroUSB is outdated and does not support video output.

D. MiniUSB: MiniUSB is an older standard and does not support modern features like video output or fast charging.

Key Takeaway: USB-C is the most versatile connector for charging and transferring data, audio, and video.

A fileshare becoming slow over time and then failing completely strongly suggests storage subsystem degradation, often due to a failing RAID array. CompTIA A+ explains that slow file access is an early sign of a degraded array, and eventual unavailability indicates the array may have failed or entered a critical state.

Since the technician can still RDP into the server, the OS is functioning, meaning memory is likely not the issue. Network connectivity is sufficient for remote login. Backup integrity does not affect real-time file availability.

Thus, the next step is to check the RAID array status, which directly controls the server’s storage performance and availability precisely what CompTIA identifies as the primary point of failure in such scenarios.

Ceiling-mounted projectors are typically installed upside down, and therefore include a built-in “Ceiling Mount” or “Vertical Flip” setting within their display menu. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that projectors provide their own orientation controls intended specifically for this installation scenario. Adjusting orientation from the laptop rotates the desktop, not the projected output configuration. Changing input sources does not affect image orientation. Display frequency affects refresh rate and flickering, not physical image rotation.

Flipping the image directly from the projector ensures the display is oriented correctly regardless of the device connected. This is the method recommended in A+ material under display configuration and projector troubleshooting, which covers keystone correction, rotation, and mounting modes.

Thus, the correct solution is to flip the image vertically using the projector’s built-in settings.

Wireless coverage issues at the physical edges of a building are typically caused by weak RF signal strength. The CompTIA A+ study material says the best solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or implement a mesh system to extend coverage and eliminate dead zones.

Enabling 5GHz often worsens the issue because 5GHz has shorter range. Wi-Fi 6 NIC upgrades improve performance but do not increase signal reach. Flushing DNS does not affect wireless coverage.

Installing more APs ensures stronger coverage, better signal-to-noise ratio, and stable connectivity aligning with CompTIA’s wireless troubleshooting best practices.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:

“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

CompTIA A+ explains that Secure Boot is a UEFI security feature that prevents unauthorized or malicious bootloaders, rootkits, and unsigned OS loaders from starting during the boot process. Secure Boot verifies digital signatures on the OS and critical boot files before allowing startup, ensuring the system has not been tampered with.

TPM (Option A) provides encryption key storage and is used for BitLocker, but alone does not block malicious bootloaders. HSMs (Option B) are enterprise cryptographic devices, not PC boot protection features. BIOS passwords (Option D) restrict access to configuration but do not protect against malicious boot-level malware.

Windows 11 specifically requires Secure Boot, making it the correct protection mechanism for preventing startup-level malware.

Thus, Secure Boot is the proper choice.

Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

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solution as

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The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/

Packet loss

Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation

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Answer of both steps below.

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